CDC 2AX7X (Vol. 1: 01 1201, Edit Code 5 -- Vol. 2: 02 1110, Edit Code 05) Ure's

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  • 1/130 Questions

    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

    • Cross-tells.
    • Self-inspecions.
    • Technical orders.
    • National stock numbers.
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About This Quiz

All URE questions from volume 1 & 2 of 2AX7X CDC's.

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Off-equipment.

    • On-equipment.

    • Preventative.

    • Corrective.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventative.
    Explanation
    Preventative maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need by regularly inspecting, cleaning, and servicing the equipment to prevent any potential breakdowns or failures. This proactive approach helps to identify and address any issues before they become major problems, reducing downtime and maximizing the equipment's reliability and efficiency. By regularly performing preventative maintenance tasks such as lubrication, calibration, and replacing worn-out parts, the equipment remains in optimal condition, ready to be used whenever required.

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  • 3. 

    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends?

    • Leading.

    • Lagging.

    • Trending.

    • Impacting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lagging.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Lagging." A lagging maintenance metric indicator is one that shows and follows firmly established trends. This means that it reflects the performance and results of past maintenance activities. Lagging indicators are useful for evaluating the effectiveness of maintenance strategies and identifying areas for improvement. They provide insights into historical data and help in making informed decisions for future maintenance planning and resource allocation.

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  • 4. 

    Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    Priority 1 maintenance repair is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions. This means that these aircraft have the highest priority for repairs, as their operational readiness is crucial for national defense and emergency response.

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  • 5. 

    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

    • 55.

    • 244.

    • 435.

    • 623.

    Correct Answer
    A. 55.
  • 6. 

    Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

    • Electro-environmental specialists.

    • Propulsion specialists.

    • Avionics specialists.

    • Crew chiefs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro-environmental specialists.
    Explanation
    Electro-environmental specialists are responsible for maintaining various aircraft systems such as bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems. They are trained to handle these systems and are skilled in removing and replacing associated components. Propulsion specialists primarily focus on the aircraft's engines, avionics specialists deal with electronic systems, and crew chiefs oversee the overall maintenance of the aircraft. However, it is the electro-environmental specialists who specifically handle the mentioned systems, making them the correct answer.

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  • 7. 

    (11) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer.

    • Group commander.

    • Unit training manager.

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager.
    Explanation
    The Unit Training Manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This role is specifically assigned to the Unit Training Manager, who is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They would be the most suitable person to conduct the interview as they have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the trainee's readiness for the CDC and ensure that all necessary requirements are met.

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  • 8. 

    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as:

    • Wing OIs.

    • Separate group OIs.

    • Support agreements.

    • Air Force instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing OIs.
    Explanation
    When operating instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as Wing OIs. This means that the instructions should be specific to the wing or unit that they apply to, rather than being general instructions for separate groups or support agreements. Publishing them as Air Force instructions would also not be appropriate, as they are specific to a particular wing or unit. Therefore, the correct answer is Wing OIs.

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  • 9. 

    Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?

    • 95.

    • 244.

    • 427.

    • 781 series.

    Correct Answer
    A. 95.
    Explanation
    AFTO IMT 95 is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment. This means that any important maintenance actions or repairs done on the equipment are recorded and documented in AFTO IMT 95 for future reference. This helps in tracking the maintenance history of the equipment and can be useful for troubleshooting, analysis, and decision-making purposes.

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  • 10. 

    In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least:

    • A 5-level.

    • A 7-level.

    • A senior Airman.

    • A non-commissioned officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 5-level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A 5-level. A 5-level refers to the rank of a journeyman in the Air Force. Squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must have at least this level of experience and knowledge in addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s). This ensures that they have the necessary skills and expertise to effectively carry out their responsibilities within the team.

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  • 11. 

    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

    • Metrics.

    • Reports.

    • Standards.

    • Instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metrics.
    Explanation
    Metrics provide a measurement of unit performance and capability. Metrics are quantifiable measures that are used to track and assess the performance and effectiveness of a particular process, system, or organization. They provide objective data and insights into various aspects such as productivity, efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction. By analyzing metrics, organizations can identify areas of improvement, set goals, and make informed decisions to enhance performance and achieve desired outcomes. Reports, standards, and instructions may provide information and guidelines, but metrics are specifically designed to measure performance and capability.

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  • 12. 

    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

    • Performance and health.

    • Trending and impacting.

    • Positive and negative.

    • Leading and lagging.

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading and lagging.
    Explanation
    The two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators are leading and lagging. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help predict future performance and identify potential issues before they occur. They focus on preventive maintenance and continuous improvement. Lagging indicators, on the other hand, are reactive measures that assess past performance and outcomes. They provide insights into historical data and are useful for evaluating the effectiveness of maintenance strategies. By using both leading and lagging indicators, maintenance teams can effectively manage and optimize their maintenance activities.

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  • 13. 

    (4) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of;

    • TSgt.

    • MSgt.

    • SMSgt.

    • CMSgt.

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt.
    Explanation
    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. The question is asking for the minimum grade required to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X." The options provided are TSgt, MSgt, SMSgt, and CMSgt. Among these options, the rank of MSgt is the minimum grade required to have this authority, as stated in the question.

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  • 14. 

    (5) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time;

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, verifications, and training statuses of personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, verifications, and training statuses of personnel.
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of technical qualifications, verifications, and training statuses of personnel. This means that through TBA, Air Force personnel can easily access and view information about the technical qualifications and training statuses of individuals. This visibility allows for better tracking and management of personnel's qualifications and training progress, ensuring that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.

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  • 15. 

    Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer:

    • In units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or trust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another.

    • As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for.

    • To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.

    • In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system.

    Correct Answer
    A. To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.
    Explanation
    Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. This means that if the location has the ability to access the maintenance information systems and retrieve the necessary historical information, there is no need for printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 to accompany the transfer.

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  • 16. 

    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage or alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

    • Aircraft section.

    • Support section.

    • Weapons section.

    • Armament Support section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Support section.
    Explanation
    The Support section is responsible for the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment. This section is tasked with providing support and resources to ensure the proper functioning and availability of equipment needed for various missions and operations.

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  • 17. 

    If a Refubishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the;

    • Fabrication Flight.

    • Accessories Flight.

    • Aircraft Inspection Flight.

    • Two-level Maintenance Flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabrication Flight.
    Explanation
    The Refurbishment section can be aligned under the Maintenance Flight or the Fabrication Flight.

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  • 18. 

    (15) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to;

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for personnel to work longer than the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to grant permission for them to work up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that the necessary work can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 19. 

    (69) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection.

    • Personnel Inspection.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection.
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to ensure that the task has been completed to the required standards and meets the necessary quality criteria. This inspection is conducted to verify the accuracy and effectiveness of the technician's work, ensuring that it meets the established maintenance standards. It helps to identify any potential errors or deficiencies in the completed task and ensures that the maintenance process is standardized and evaluated for quality control purposes.

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  • 20. 

    Which maintenance capability category is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

    • Two-level maintenance.

    • Organizational.

    • Intermediate.

    • Depot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Intermediate. Intermediate maintenance is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance. This level of maintenance involves repairing or replacing components or systems that are removed from the equipment and brought to a designated repair facility. Organizational maintenance is performed by the unit that operates the equipment, while depot maintenance is performed at a higher level and involves major repairs or overhauls. Two-level maintenance refers to a system where both organizational and intermediate maintenance capabilities exist.

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  • 21. 

    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

    • Leading.

    • Lagging.

    • Trending.

    • Impacting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading.
    Explanation
    The primary maintenance metric indicator that shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission, is the leading indicator. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help identify potential issues and allow for preventive actions to be taken before they affect the mission. They provide early warning signs and help in avoiding disruptions in maintenance operations. Lagging indicators, on the other hand, are reactive measures that assess past performance and do not provide immediate insights into potential problems. Trending and impacting are not specific maintenance metric indicators.

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  • 22. 

    (1) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command.

    • Air Training Command.

    • Air Reserve Command.

    • Air Education and Training Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command.
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force's enlisted force and officer corps. TDs are units that provide specialized training to airmen in specific career fields, such as technical training or pilot training. Therefore, it makes sense that TDs would be assigned to the command that is responsible for overall training and education within the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    (10) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification after they return from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation. It is important to note that this grace period only applies if it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.

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  • 24. 

    (14) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is;

    • 12 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This is the maximum continuous duty time that can be scheduled for workers without getting approval from the maintenance group commander. This suggests that any duty time exceeding 12 hours would require the approval of the MXG/CC.

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  • 25. 

    (17) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the;

    • Maintenance squadron (MXS).

    • Logistics readiness squadron (LRS).

    • Aircraft maintenance squadron (AMXS).

    • Maintenance operations squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing and providing logistical support for the entire base, including maintenance operations. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the LRS to ensure that maintenance units have the necessary supplies and equipment to perform their duties effectively. They serve as a communication link between the maintenance units and the LRS, ensuring that any supply or equipment issues are addressed promptly and efficiently.

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  • 26. 

    (48) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within;

    • 8 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 32 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    A Category I deficiency refers to a severe deficiency that poses a significant risk to safety or security. In such cases, it is crucial to promptly address the issue and take appropriate measures to mitigate the risk. Therefore, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours to ensure timely action and prevent any potential harm or further escalation of the deficiency.

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  • 27. 

    (51) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Engine Management.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This position is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required quality standards and for identifying and implementing improvements to enhance product quality. Quality Assurance is a critical function in any organization, as it helps to prevent defects and ensure customer satisfaction.

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  • 28. 

    (61) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the;

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance procedures and processes are carried out correctly and in accordance with regulations. The FOD monitor is used to detect and prevent foreign object damage to aircraft, which is an important aspect of maintaining the safety and integrity of the aircraft. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section, as they are the ones responsible for overseeing and enforcing maintenance standards.

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  • 29. 

    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charged must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing: 

    • Accountability and control procedures.

    • Qualification and upgrade training.

    • Maintenance and flying schedules.

    • Proper maintenance techniques.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountability and control procedures.
    Explanation
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge (NCOICs) are responsible for ensuring that their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and materials in a way that is close to the Point of Maintenance. However, they must also ensure that this organization does not jeopardize accountability and control procedures. This means that while it is important to have the necessary resources readily available for maintenance tasks, it is equally important to maintain strict control and accountability over these resources. This ensures that they are used properly, efficiently, and are accounted for at all times.

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  • 30. 

    Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?

    • Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter.

    • Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief.

    • Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.

    • Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.
    Explanation
    The Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent must ensure that the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations.

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  • 31. 

    In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

    • AFTO IMT 244's.

    • Driver radios.

    • Sub-pools.

    • Drivers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sub-pools.
    Explanation
    Sub-pools are centrally located to enhance mission performance in relation to aerospace ground equipment. Sub-pools refer to a centralized location where equipment and resources are stored and maintained. By having these sub-pools centrally located, it allows for easier access and distribution of equipment to different locations as needed, thereby enhancing mission performance by ensuring the availability and efficiency of the required equipment.

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  • 32. 

    (2) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course.

    • Weight and Balance.

    • Maintenance Orientation.

    • General Technical Order System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation.
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated period of time, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of the subject matter. The Maintenance Orientation course provides a broad overview of maintenance operations, policies, and procedures, making it suitable for block training.

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  • 33. 

    (20) Which expendability, recoverability, and repairability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3.

    • XD2.

    • XD1.

    • XB3.

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3.
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and repairability codes (ERRC) of XB3. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is not expected to be repaired or reused once it becomes unserviceable. This allows for easy replacement of the asset when needed.

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  • 34. 

    (63) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt.

    • Panel.

    • Safety pin.

    • Explosive munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions.
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations. The program is designed to prevent accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel or equipment. Bolts, panels, and safety pins are examples of objects that can accidentally fall and potentially cause damage or injury if not properly secured. However, explosive munitions are intentionally used and released as part of military operations, so they are not classified as dropped objects under this program.

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  • 35. 

    (68) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Special Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Personnel Evaluation. This assessment involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation of the technician while they perform a task. It focuses on evaluating the individual's performance and skills in carrying out the task, rather than inspecting the quality or management aspects.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?

    • Technical orders.

    • Support agreements.

    • Air Force instructions.

    • Operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operating instructions.
    Explanation
    Operating instructions are used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function. These instructions provide specific guidance and directions for carrying out tasks and operations within a particular unit or organization. They help ensure consistency and efficiency in the execution of duties and help maintain standardization across different branches or offices. Technical orders provide detailed instructions for the maintenance and operation of equipment, support agreements outline agreements between organizations for mutual support, and Air Force instructions provide guidance on Air Force policies and procedures but may not specifically address responsibilities and procedures within a subordinate function.

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  • 37. 

    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

    • C-E Equipment Status.

    • Job Data Documentation.

    • Status and Inventory Reporting.

    • Comprehensive Engine Management System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Comprehensive Engine Management System.
    Explanation
    The Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) subsystem within the Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections. It also establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components. This subsystem is responsible for managing and maintaining the engine-related data and ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks are performed on time.

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  • 38. 

    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with:

    • Accountability and control procedures.

    • Deployments and wing-level taskings.

    • Qualification and upgrade training.

    • Scheduled maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification and upgrade training.
    Explanation
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with qualification and upgrade training. This means that while developing training requirements, they need to ensure that the qualification and upgrade training of personnel is not disrupted or compromised. They must prioritize and plan the cross-utilization training in a way that it does not hinder the progress and completion of qualification and upgrade training for the personnel in their section.

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  • 39. 

    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

    • Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents.

    • Maintenance Operation Center.

    • Group manning manager.

    • Squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operation Center.
    Explanation
    The maintenance squadron production superintendent must inform the Maintenance Operation Center of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift. The Maintenance Operation Center is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance operations, including the availability and assignment of specialists. Therefore, it is crucial for the production superintendent to inform them about any specialist non-availability to ensure proper allocation and scheduling of resources.

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  • 40. 

    How many standard squadrons are there in a maintenance group?

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 5.

    • 8.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because a standard squadron is a unit within a maintenance group, and there are three of these squadrons in a maintenance group.

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  • 41. 

    Which Maintenance Operations Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Production Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for maintaining standardized aircraft jacket files, which contain important information and records related to aircraft maintenance. They also attend pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings to ensure that all necessary documentation and scheduling is in place for the maintenance operations. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are properly planned, scheduled, and documented for efficient and effective aircraft maintenance.

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  • 42. 

    Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

    • Load crew chief.

    • Flight-line expediter.

    • Weapons expediter.

    • Dedicated crew chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons expediter.
    Explanation
    The Weapons expediter is responsible for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations. They ensure that the proper procedures are followed and that all equipment is functioning correctly. They coordinate with the Load crew chief and Flight-line expediter to ensure that the armament systems are properly maintained and loaded. The Dedicated crew chief may have other responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for monitoring armament systems maintenance and loading operations.

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  • 43. 

    Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if the maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed;

    • 600.

    • 670.

    • 700.

    • 760.

    Correct Answer
    A. 700.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 700. When the maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed 700, commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron. This allows for better organization and management of the maintenance personnel and resources.

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  • 44. 

    Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards or aerospace-grade equipment?

    • Low Observable.

    • Metals Technology.

    • Non-Destructive Inspection.

    • Aircraft Structural Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metals Technology.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Metals Technology. The reason for this is that Metals Technology is responsible for manufacturing parts and tools that must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment. This means that their processes need to be tightly controlled to ensure that the fabricated materials meet the required specifications and quality standards for use in aerospace applications.

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  • 45. 

    (24) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center.

    • Engineering Data Service Center.

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • Communication and Information System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center.
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information. The other options, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in storing engineering drawings and data, making the Engineering Data Service Center the most appropriate answer.

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  • 46. 

    (25) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water.

    • Stressed vegetation.

    • Stains on ground.

    • Cloudy water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water.
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be caused by pollution and are therefore considered obvious signs.

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  • 47. 

    (37) Who must authorize temporary storage of an in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander.

    • Host installation commander.

    • Operations Group commander.

    • Mission Support Group commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander.
    Explanation
    The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This ensures that the classified material is securely stored and protected while in transit. The aircraft commander, Operations Group commander, and Mission Support Group commander may have other responsibilities related to the transportation and handling of classified material, but the ultimate authority for authorizing temporary storage lies with the host installation commander.

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  • 48. 

    (40) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer.

    • Maintenance Supply Support.

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who needs the parts, has the authority to decide how urgently they require the supplies and can prioritize their delivery accordingly. The other options, such as Maintenance Supply Support, Maintenance Supply Liaison, and Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service, may assist in the process but the ultimate decision lies with the customer.

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  • 49. 

    (60) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8.

    • 9.

    • 10.

    • 11.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9. An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. Since the question asks how many digits make up the EID code, the answer is 9.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    IVI3T4LS70RM
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