CDC 2F071 Volume 1 (2016)
- 1.
Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?
- A.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent.
- B.
Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.
- C.
Fuels maintenance supervisor.
- D.
Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).
Correct Answer
B. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.Explanation
The correct answer is Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures. They oversee the management and maintenance of the vehicle fleet, which includes ensuring that tools are properly accounted for and procedures are in place to track their usage and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except
- A.
Initial issue.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semi-annually.
- D.
When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.
Correct Answer
B. Quarterly.Explanation
The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all occurrences except quarterly. This means that the POC does not need to update and perform inventories on a quarterly basis. Instead, they are required to do so during the initial issue, semi-annually, and when a responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?
- A.
Vehicle maintenance superintendent.
- B.
Vehicle management flight materiel control section.
- C.
Vehicle fleet manager.
- D.
Technician assigned to CTK.
Correct Answer
B. Vehicle management flight materiel control section.Explanation
The Vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. This section oversees the maintenance and control of all vehicle-related materials and equipment, including the CTK. They are responsible for ensuring that the tools and equipment are properly calibrated and certified to maintain accuracy and precision in vehicle maintenance and repair tasks. The other options, such as the vehicle maintenance superintendent, vehicle fleet manager, and technician assigned to CTK, may have related responsibilities but are not specifically responsible for calibration and certification of tools and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.Explanation
The correct answer is monthly. Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are high hazard systems that require regular flushing to ensure proper functioning and prevent any blockages or buildup of sediment. Flushing these systems monthly helps to maintain water quality, remove any stagnant water, and ensure that the hydrants are in good working condition. Quarterly, semiannual, or annual flushing may not be sufficient to prevent potential issues and maintain the overall integrity of the hydrant systems.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed
- A.
With a minimum of twice the line volume.
- B.
Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.
- C.
Until a sump sample is obtained.
- D.
For at least 30 minutes.
Correct Answer
A. With a minimum of twice the line volume.Explanation
During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least double the volume of the water that normally flows through the line. This ensures that any sediment or debris that may have accumulated in the line is thoroughly flushed out, improving the water quality and preventing blockages or clogs. Flushing for a longer duration or using a specific amount of product is not mentioned as a requirement in this context.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?
- A.
ESC.
- B.
NEXT.
- C.
TANK.
- D.
ENTER.
Correct Answer
C. TANK.Explanation
When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, pressing the TANK key first is necessary when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which the quantity readings are required. The other options, ESC, NEXT, and ENTER, do not seem to be relevant in this context and do not provide a logical explanation for switching between tanks.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?
- A.
One week.
- B.
One month.
- C.
Three months.
- D.
Six months.
Correct Answer
B. One month.Explanation
The correct answer is "One month." This means that when the ATG TCU displays an alarm indicating that the nitrogen supply has dropped below 200 psi, it is estimated that the supply will last for approximately one month.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?
- A.
All items.
- B.
All items preceded by an asterisk (*).
- C.
All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.
- D.
All items followed by an ampersand (&).
Correct Answer
B. All items preceded by an asterisk (*).Explanation
The correct answer is "All items preceded by an asterisk (*)." This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 that are marked with an asterisk. The asterisk indicates that these items are specifically important and require attention during the inspection process. Completing all the items marked with an asterisk ensures a thorough and comprehensive inspection of the cryotainer.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
- A.
No action is required.
- B.
Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.
- C.
Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.
- D.
Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.
Correct Answer
C. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.Explanation
If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action would be to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing and coordinating fuel operations, including the receipt and handling of LOX shipments. By notifying the FSC, they can take the necessary steps to address the issue and provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?
- A.
Vent valve.
- B.
Service valve.
- C.
Fill/drain valve.
- D.
Pressure build up valve.
Correct Answer
A. Vent valve.Explanation
Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows for the release of excess pressure and prevents the cryotainer from becoming over-pressurized during the receipt process. By opening the vent valve, any built-up pressure can be safely released, ensuring the proper and safe receipt of liquid nitrogen.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator
- A.
Reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy.
- B.
Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer.
- C.
Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.
- D.
Signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.
Correct Answer
C. Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.Explanation
The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants." This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to ensure that the transfer hose is purged to remove any potential contaminants. This step is crucial to maintain the purity and safety of the liquid oxygen during the receipt process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?
- A.
No action is required.
- B.
Do not service the receiving tank.
- C.
Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.
- D.
Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.
Correct Answer
B. Do not service the receiving tank.Explanation
If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This is because an improperly filled out form may indicate that there are unknown issues or discrepancies with the tank, and servicing it without proper documentation could lead to safety risks or operational problems. It is important to ensure that all necessary information is accurately recorded before proceeding with any actions involving the tank.Rate this question:
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- 13.
To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?
- A.
10–15 psi.
- B.
15–20 psi.
- C.
20–30 psi.
- D.
30–40 psi.
Correct Answer
A. 10–15 psi.Explanation
The source tank pressure should be set within the range of 10-15 psi for cryogenic issuing. This range ensures that the pressure is sufficient to allow for the cryogenic substance to flow out of the tank, while also preventing excessive pressure that could cause leaks or other safety hazards.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
- A.
No action is required.
- B.
Do not fill the receiving tank.
- C.
Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.
- D.
Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.
Correct Answer
B. Do not fill the receiving tank.Explanation
If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a discrepancy or malfunction with the tank. In this case, it is important not to fill the receiving tank with liquid nitrogen. Filling the tank could potentially worsen the existing issue or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?
- A.
Conduct another odor test.
- B.
Inform aircraft maintenance.
- C.
Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.
- D.
Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.
Correct Answer
C. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.Explanation
If a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test, the next step should be to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is important because if the cart failed the odor test, it suggests that there may be a problem with the oxygen supply from the storage tank. By conducting an odor test on the storage tank, it can help identify if there is any contamination or issue with the tank that may have caused the cart to fail the test. This step is crucial in ensuring the safety and quality of the oxygen supply.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?
- A.
100 milliliter (ml).
- B.
200 ml.
- C.
300 ml.
- D.
400 ml.
Correct Answer
B. 200 ml.Explanation
The correct answer is 200 ml. The size of the sample for an odor test should be approximately 200 ml. This quantity is likely sufficient to capture enough of the odorant molecules for accurate testing without being excessive. A larger sample size may not provide significantly more information, while a smaller sample size may not be representative enough to draw reliable conclusions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
- A.
Red X.
- B.
Red dash.
- C.
Red cross.
- D.
Red diagonal.
Correct Answer
B. Red dash.Explanation
If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the AFTO Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not performed within the required timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?
- A.
The date the cart was filled.
- B.
The quantity issued to the cart.
- C.
The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.
- D.
The initials of the individual that filled the cart.
Correct Answer
D. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.Explanation
In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the initials of the individual who filled the cart should be entered. This information is important for tracking and accountability purposes. By recording the initials, it allows for easy identification of the responsible person in case any issues or discrepancies arise with the cryogenic product.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?
- A.
As either “+” or “–” in column A.
- B.
As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.
- C.
As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.
- D.
As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.
Correct Answer
D. As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.Explanation
The question is asking how odor test results should be annotated in block 2, column D of the AFTO Form 134 when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart. The correct answer states that the odor test results should be annotated as either "FAIL" or "PASS" in column D. This means that if the odor test detects a failure, it should be noted as "FAIL" in column D, and if the odor test is successful, it should be noted as "PASS" in column D.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?
- A.
DD Form 250.
- B.
DD Form 250–1.
- C.
DD Form 1348.
- D.
DD Form 1348–1.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 250.Explanation
The vendor's invoice is obtained from the DD Form 250 when documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This means that they need to renew their certification once every year. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest safety protocols and procedures involved in hot refueling operations. By undergoing certification annually, they can refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring that they are competent and capable of carrying out hot refueling operations safely and effectively. This regular certification helps to maintain a high level of safety and proficiency among hot refueling personnel.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
- A.
HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
- C.
Wing commander.
- D.
Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).
Correct Answer
B. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.Explanation
The Major command (MAJCOM) commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the military hierarchy and has the authority to make decisions and provide guidance for their respective command. In situations where hot refueling is necessary due to combat or emergency circumstances, the MAJCOM commander has the power to authorize these deviations to ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?
- A.
B–1.
- B.
F–15.
- C.
F–16.
- D.
F–22.
Correct Answer
B. F–15.Explanation
The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 do not need to be inspected for excessive heat or wear before refueling while the engines are still running. This is likely due to the design and construction of the F-15's braking system, which allows it to withstand the heat generated during hot refueling without the need for additional checks.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first
- A.
Minute of fuel flow.
- B.
Two minutes of fuel flow.
- C.
250 gallons defueled.
- D.
500 gallons defueled.
Correct Answer
A. Minute of fuel flow.Explanation
The high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first minute of fuel flow during rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles. This is important to ensure that the valve is functioning properly and can effectively shut off the fuel flow when the desired level is reached. Testing the valve early on allows for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of fuel spills or accidents.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?
- A.
Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.
- B.
Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.
- C.
Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.
- D.
Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.
Correct Answer
B. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.Explanation
A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that as long as there is any engine in operation on the aircraft, the defuel operation is considered to be hot. It does not matter if the engines are located on the same side as the refueling receptacle or if all engines are running, as long as there is at least one engine running, it is considered a hot defuel.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?
- A.
A–10.
- B.
B–2.
- C.
F–15.
- D.
F–22.
Correct Answer
B. B–2.Explanation
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) refers to the ability to perform maintenance tasks while simultaneously generating sorties. The given question asks which aircraft is not authorized for CSO/SGO, and the correct answer is B–2. This means that the B–2 aircraft is not designed or authorized for concurrent servicing operations while generating sorties.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?
- A.
Concurrent servicing supervisor.
- B.
Aircraft servicing supervisor.
- C.
Chief servicing supervisor.
- D.
Fuels operator.
Correct Answer
A. Concurrent servicing supervisor.Explanation
The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). This individual oversees and coordinates the various tasks and operations involved in servicing aircraft during combat missions. They ensure that all necessary servicing activities are carried out efficiently and effectively, while also maintaining safety standards. The concurrent servicing supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that aircraft are properly serviced and prepared for combat sorties.Rate this question:
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- 28.
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?
- A.
10.
- B.
20.
- C.
25.
- D.
50.
Correct Answer
C. 25.Explanation
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of both the personnel and the aircraft. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of fire or explosion, as fuel vapors can be released from the outlet. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?
- A.
Passenger compartment monitor.
- B.
Fuels servicing supervisor.
- C.
Chief servicing supervisor.
- D.
Refueling panel monitor.
Correct Answer
C. Chief servicing supervisor.Explanation
The Chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They are in charge of ensuring that all these operations are carried out efficiently and safely.Rate this question:
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- 30.
During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?
- A.
15.
- B.
20.
- C.
30.
- D.
40.
Correct Answer
B. 20.Explanation
During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, it is important to limit the operation of fuel servicing vehicle engines to prevent the buildup of dangerous fumes. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that the engines should not be allowed to operate for more than 20 minutes to minimize the risk of fumes entering the sheltered area. Operating the engines for longer periods could increase the concentration of fumes and pose a safety hazard to personnel inside the shelter.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
6.
Correct Answer
C. 4.Explanation
Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to a maximum of 4 operations per duty day. This limitation is important to ensure the safety of the crew members and the aircraft. Conducting in-shelter refueling with closed doors can lead to the accumulation of dangerous fumes and gases, which can pose a risk to the crew members. By limiting the number of operations, the exposure to these hazardous substances is minimized, reducing the potential for accidents or health issues.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
- A.
No action is required.
- B.
Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM).
- C.
Decrease the engine RPMs.
- D.
Stop the operation immediately.
Correct Answer
D. Stop the operation immediately.Explanation
If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is crucial to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can lead to contamination or damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation immediately helps prevent further complications and ensures the safety of the refueling process.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle
- A.
Can begin fuel flow once positioned.
- B.
May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing.
- C.
Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft.
- D.
Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.Explanation
When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure the safe and efficient refueling process. By remaining positioned and bonded, it helps prevent any accidental movement or disconnection of the refueling units, which could lead to fuel spills or other hazardous situations. Therefore, it is necessary for the vehicles to stay in place until all fuel flow is stopped on that side of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?
- A.
PDA.
- B.
Wireless.
- C.
Device info.
- D.
Base.
Correct Answer
D. Base.Explanation
The Base tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned. This tab is specifically designed to gather and store details related to the base or location where the Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT) is being configured. By entering the necessary information in this tab, the system can accurately track and manage the fuels management flight associated with the APOSD UIT.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?
- A.
Basic configuration.
- B.
Device configuration.
- C.
Fuel point configuration.
- D.
Meter configuration.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel point configuration.Explanation
The correct answer is Fuel point configuration. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), the fuel point configuration settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned. This screen allows you to specify details such as the fueling unit's identification, location, and other relevant information.Rate this question:
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- 36.
While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?
- A.
Immediately terminate the operation.
- B.
Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue.
- C.
Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center.
- D.
Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.
Correct Answer
A. Immediately terminate the operation.Explanation
If an expediter notices an unsafe fueling operation, the immediate action that must be taken is to terminate the operation. This is the most appropriate and responsible course of action to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. Allowing the operation to continue could lead to potential accidents or hazards, so it is crucial to stop it immediately. Notifying the fuels service center or reporting the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge can be done after ensuring that the unsafe operation has been terminated.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?
- A.
Return-to-bulk (RTB).
- B.
Ground fuel servicing.
- C.
Aircraft fueling.
- D.
Fillstand.
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft fueling.Explanation
A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating and managing the fueling process for aircraft. This includes ensuring that the correct type and amount of fuel is delivered to the aircraft in a timely manner. Therefore, the operation that requires a fuels expediter to be used is aircraft fueling.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
- A.
1,000.
- B.
1,500.
- C.
3,000.
- D.
4,500.
Correct Answer
B. 1,500.Explanation
Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?
- A.
4-inch hard hose.
- B.
4-inch collapsible hose.
- C.
6-inch hard hose.
- D.
6-inch collapsible hose.
Correct Answer
C. 6-inch hard hose.Explanation
A 6-inch hard hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations because it provides a larger diameter, allowing for a higher flow rate and minimizing pressure loss. The hard material of the hose ensures durability and resistance to damage, making it suitable for heavy-duty operations.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
B. 2.Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because the question asks about the number of fillstand assemblies included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system. The question does not provide any additional information or context, so it is not possible to determine the exact number of fillstand assemblies. However, based on the options given, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 41.
At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?
- A.
Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.
- B.
Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.
- C.
Every 250 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.
- D.
Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.
Correct Answer
B. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.Explanation
The R-18 pumping unit oil filter should be changed every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. This ensures that the oil filter is regularly replaced to maintain the proper functioning of the pumping unit and prevent any potential damage or malfunction. Regular filter changes help to keep the oil clean and free from contaminants, ensuring optimal performance and longevity of the pumping unit.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?
- A.
30 pounds per square inch (psi).
- B.
65 psi.
- C.
75 psi.
- D.
100 psi.
Correct Answer
C. 75 psi.Explanation
The correct answer is 75 psi. This is the proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit. Maintaining the correct tire pressure is important for the optimal performance and safety of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.Explanation
The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure optimal performance and prevent any build-up of contaminants. Regular drainage helps to maintain the efficiency of the unit and prevent any potential damage or blockages. Neglecting to drain the sump tank daily may result in reduced filtration effectiveness and potential operational issues.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?
- A.
A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.
- B.
A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge.
- C.
Elements that have been in use for 36 months.
- D.
Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.
Correct Answer
A. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.Explanation
A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge does not require the replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit. The DP gauge measures the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the filter elements. A reading of 16 psid indicates that the filter elements are still effectively removing contaminants from the fluid, as the pressure difference is within an acceptable range. Therefore, there is no need to replace the filter elements in this condition.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?
- A.
45 psi.
- B.
75 psi.
- C.
90 psi.
- D.
150 psi.
Correct Answer
C. 90 psi.Explanation
The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is necessary to maintain the integrity of the fueling system and prevent any potential surges or fluctuations in pressure. It ensures that the system is ready for operation and can handle the fueling process effectively when needed.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds
- A.
10 psid.
- B.
15 psid.
- C.
20 psid.
- D.
25 psid.
Correct Answer
B. 15 psid.Explanation
The micronic filter elements on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds 15 psid. Differential pressure is a measure of the pressure difference across the filter elements, indicating the level of contamination buildup. When the DP reading exceeds 15 psid, it suggests that the filter elements are becoming clogged and are no longer effectively filtering the air. Therefore, it is necessary to replace the filter elements to maintain optimal performance and prevent damage to the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?
- A.
Turn off the panel power switch.
- B.
Turn on the battery master switch.
- C.
Set the station unit identification (ID) switch to the desired number.
- D.
Place the manual/remote control switch in the MANUAL position.
Correct Answer
A. Turn off the panel power switch.Explanation
When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, the first action to take is to turn off the panel power switch. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the panel while setting it up, which can prevent any potential accidents or damage. By turning off the power switch, you can safely proceed with the rest of the setup process without any risk.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?
- A.
ON.
- B.
OFF.
- C.
OFFLOAD.
- D.
NO DEADMAN.
Correct Answer
D. NO DEADMAN.Explanation
The correct answer is NO DEADMAN. This means that when performing off load operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should not be present or used. This suggests that there is no requirement for a deadman switch in this particular scenario, indicating that the off load operation can be carried out without the need for constant human interaction or monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?
- A.
25 ± 5 pounds per square inch (psi).
- B.
50 ± 10 psi.
- C.
85 ± 5 psi.
- D.
90 ± 10 psi.
Correct Answer
B. 50 ± 10 psi.Explanation
The correct answer is 50 ± 10 psi. This is the reading that the oil pressure gauge should indicate when the R-18 pumping unit is operating properly during transfer operations. The range of 50 ± 10 psi allows for some variation in the oil pressure, ensuring that it falls within an acceptable range for the unit's proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?
- A.
1,550.
- B.
1,850.
- C.
1,950.
- D.
2,250.
Correct Answer
D. 2,250.Explanation
When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 revolutions per minute (rpm). This specific rpm setting is likely recommended for efficient and effective fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 07, 2016Quiz Created by
Spacemanjoe89
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