CDC 2S051 Volume 5 Multiple Choice Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (801) How many individual options does SATS have built-in within the reports list?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    D. 25
    Explanation
    SATS has a built-in reports list with a total of 25 individual options.

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  • 2. 

    (801) Who is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system?

    • A.

      User

    • B.

      Customer

    • C.

      Network technician.

    • D.

      System administrator

    Correct Answer
    D. System administrator
    Explanation
    The system administrator is responsible for managing and overseeing all the internal workings of the SATS system. They are in charge of maintaining the system's functionality, ensuring its security, and resolving any technical issues that may arise. The system administrator plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the SATS system and its overall performance.

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  • 3. 

    (802) How many types of hand-held terminals are used in the Standard Asset Tracking System?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Three. This suggests that there are three types of hand-held terminals used in the Standard Asset Tracking System. However, without further context or information, it is not possible to provide a detailed explanation of what these three types of terminals are or how they are used in the system.

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  • 4. 

    (802) Which type of hand-held terminal uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy LogicScanner?

    • A.

      Intermec 2010

    • B.

      Intermec 2020

    • C.

      Intermec 5023

    • D.

      Intermec 5032

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermec 2010
    Explanation
    The Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner is used by the Intermec 2010 hand-held terminal.

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  • 5. 

    (803) What happens during a warm-boot?

    • A.

      Many settings revert to the default factory settings

    • B.

      Configuration settings and files are retained

    • C.

      Many applications reset to original settings

    • D.

      The SATS application is not retained

    Correct Answer
    B. Configuration settings and files are retained
    Explanation
    During a warm-boot, the computer restarts without completely shutting down. This process allows for the retention of configuration settings and files, meaning that any changes made to the computer's settings or any files created or modified will still be present after the restart. However, many other settings, such as applications and the SATS application, may reset to their original default settings.

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  • 6. 

    (803) Which of the following is not correct concerning a cold-boot?

    • A.

      Configuration settings and files are retained

    • B.

      The network and scanner parameters are retained

    • C.

      Some settings revert to the default factory settings

    • D.

      It is necessary to re-flash the SATS application onto the HHT

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration settings and files are retained
    Explanation
    A cold-boot refers to restarting a computer system after it has been completely powered off. During a cold-boot, configuration settings and files are not retained, as the system starts fresh and does not have any memory of previous settings. Therefore, the statement "Configuration settings and files are retained" is not correct concerning a cold-boot.

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  • 7. 

    (804) At a minimum, what operating system is required for flashing a hand-held terminal?

    • A.

      Windows 95

    • B.

      Windows 98

    • C.

      Windows XP

    • D.

      Windows 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Windows 95 because flashing a hand-held terminal requires an operating system that is compatible with the hardware and software requirements of the terminal. Windows 95 is the oldest operating system listed, so it is the minimum requirement for flashing the terminal.

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  • 8. 

    (805) What are tracked in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location or deliverydestination?

    • A.

      No Warehouse locations

    • B.

      Assigned locations

    • C.

      Temporary locations

    • D.

      Permanent locations

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporary locations
    Explanation
    Temporary locations are tracked in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination. These temporary locations refer to the intermediate stops or checkpoints where the item may be temporarily stored or processed before reaching its final destination. By tracking these temporary locations, SATS can provide real-time updates on the item's movement and ensure its smooth transition throughout the supply chain.

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  • 9. 

    (805) Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items into the warehouselocation?

    • A.

      Pull

    • B.

      Delivery

    • C.

      Put Away

    • D.

      Movement.

    Correct Answer
    C. Put Away
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Put Away." The Put Away function on a hand-held terminal allows the user to place items into the warehouse location. This function is typically used when receiving new inventory or when moving items from one location to another within the warehouse. It helps in organizing and storing items in their designated places, ensuring efficient inventory management.

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  • 10. 

    (806) Which of these actions does not occur when scanning receipts through SATS?

    • A.

      Clears the REC document from SATS

    • B.

      Greatly reduces Document Control workload

    • C.

      Clears the REC document control record from the SBSS

    • D.

      Eliminates the sending of a hardcopy to Document Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Clears the REC document from SATS
    Explanation
    When scanning receipts through SATS, the action of clearing the REC document from SATS does not occur. This means that the scanned receipt document is not removed or deleted from the SATS system after scanning. The other actions mentioned, such as greatly reducing Document Control workload, clearing the REC document control record from the SBSS, and eliminating the sending of a hardcopy to Document Control, all occur when scanning receipts through SATS.

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  • 11. 

    (806) What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in thewarehouse?

    • A.

      Pull

    • B.

      Delivery

    • C.

      Put Away

    • D.

      Movement

    Correct Answer
    C. Put Away
    Explanation
    The process of "Put Away" is responsible for verifying that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse. This process involves taking the item from the receiving area or the picking area and physically placing it in its designated storage location. By performing this action, the user ensures that the item is correctly stored and organized within the warehouse.

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  • 12. 

    (806) What does the Pull process involve?

    • A.

      Delivering property to the customer

    • B.

      Issuing property from the warehouse

    • C.

      Tracking an interim location for an item

    • D.

      Placing an item in the proper storage location

    Correct Answer
    B. Issuing property from the warehouse
    Explanation
    The Pull process involves issuing property from the warehouse. This means that when a customer requests a specific item or product, it is retrieved or "pulled" from the warehouse and made available for the customer. This process ensures that the customer receives the requested item in a timely manner.

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  • 13. 

    (806) The Review Deliveries function allows the user to view delivery items that have

    • A.

      Not been updated in the SBSS

    • B.

      Been delivered to the customer

    • C.

      Not been delivered to the customer

    • D.

      Been awaiting delivery to the customer

    Correct Answer
    C. Not been delivered to the customer
    Explanation
    The Review Deliveries function allows the user to view delivery items that have not been delivered to the customer. This means that the user can see a list of items that are still pending delivery and have not yet reached the customer.

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  • 14. 

    (807) How many pre-sorted reports are available to the Standard Asset Tracking System users?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      17

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      31

    Correct Answer
    D. 31
    Explanation
    The Standard Asset Tracking System provides users with a total of 31 pre-sorted reports. This means that users have access to a wide range of pre-defined reports that are already sorted and organized for their convenience. Having this many reports available allows users to easily retrieve specific information without having to manually sort through large amounts of data.

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  • 15. 

    (807) When processing reports in the Standard Asset Tracking System, options that allow you to filter data for your specific requirement are called

    • A.

      Sorts

    • B.

      Data lists

    • C.

      Parameters

    • D.

      Selection types

    Correct Answer
    D. Selection types
    Explanation
    When processing reports in the Standard Asset Tracking System, the options that allow you to filter data for your specific requirement are called "selection types". These selection types provide different criteria or conditions that can be applied to the data, enabling you to narrow down the results and obtain the specific information you need. Sorting, data lists, and parameters are not specifically mentioned as options for filtering data in the system.

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  • 16. 

    (807) What report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?

    • A.

      Items Pulled

    • B.

      Items Not Pulled

    • C.

      Items Received by Customer

    • D.

      Items Not Received by Customer

    Correct Answer
    D. Items Not Received by Customer
    Explanation
    The report that provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets is "Items Not Received by Customer". This report shows the number of items that were not received by the customer, indicating a potential gap in meeting customer requirements. By analyzing this report, businesses can identify any issues or inefficiencies in their supply chain or customer service processes and take necessary actions to improve customer satisfaction.

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  • 17. 

    (807) Which of the following reports lists the user’s privileges?

    • A.

      User List

    • B.

      User Access.

    • C.

      User Verification

    • D.

      User Authorization.

    Correct Answer
    B. User Access.
    Explanation
    The User Access report lists the user's privileges. This report provides information about the access rights and permissions assigned to each user. It includes details such as the specific privileges granted to each user, the level of access they have, and any restrictions or limitations imposed on their account. This report is useful for administrators to monitor and manage user privileges effectively.

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  • 18. 

    (808) The batch hand-held terminal login process allows users to log into the hand-held terminal when no

    • A.

      RF device is available

    • B.

      Workstation is available

    • C.

      SATS session is available

    • D.

      Communications dock is available

    Correct Answer
    A. RF device is available
    Explanation
    The batch hand-held terminal login process allows users to log into the hand-held terminal when an RF device is available. This means that users can access the terminal and perform tasks even when there is no workstation, SATS session, or communications dock available. The RF device allows for wireless communication and connectivity, enabling users to log in and use the hand-held terminal independently.

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  • 19. 

    (809) The Standard Asset Tracking System and Standard base supply system interface inputsession

    • A.

      Sends SBSS-generated SATS transactions to SATS

    • B.

      Sends the SATS-generated SBSS transactions to SBSS

    • C.

      Captures the 1348–1A and updates SATS with the data

    • D.

      Processes the output documents sent from SBSS to SATS

    Correct Answer
    B. Sends the SATS-generated SBSS transactions to SBSS
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) sends the SATS-generated Standard base supply system (SBSS) transactions to SBSS. This means that SATS is responsible for sending the transactions generated by itself to SBSS. This implies that SATS is capable of generating transactions and communicating with SBSS to send them.

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  • 20. 

    (809) What happens to the hand-held terminal and workstation transactions when the Standard base supply system and Standard Asset Tracking System are unable to interface?

    • A.

      Both are halted until the SATS and SBSS interface is restored

    • B.

      Both are maintained in the SATS database, in the order they are generated

    • C.

      The workstation transactions are halted; the HHT transactions are maintained

    • D.

      The workstation transactions are maintained; the HHT transactions are halted.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both are maintained in the SATS database, in the order they are generated
    Explanation
    When the Standard base supply system (SBSS) and Standard Asset Tracking System (SATS) are unable to interface, both the hand-held terminal (HHT) and workstation transactions are maintained in the SATS database, in the order they are generated. This means that even though the interface is not functioning, the transactions from both the HHT and workstation are still recorded and stored in the SATS database. They will be processed and handled once the interface is restored.

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  • 21. 

    (810) Software release information is provided using which AF Form?

    • A.

      633

    • B.

      636

    • C.

      366

    • D.

      363

    Correct Answer
    B. 636
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 636. This AF Form is used to provide software release information.

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  • 22. 

    (810) What item contains the developer’s instructions for Standard Asset Tracking Systemreleases?

    • A.

      Release Rationale

    • B.

      SBSS Program Bank Index

    • C.

      Software Version Description

    • D.

      Rapid Communication message

    Correct Answer
    C. Software Version Description
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Software Version Description". The Software Version Description contains the developer's instructions for Standard Asset Tracking System releases. This document provides information about the features, functionality, and changes in each software version, helping the developers and users understand the updates and improvements made in the system. It serves as a guide for the development team and ensures consistency and clarity in the release process.

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  • 23. 

    (811) In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to yourspecific data requirements?

    • A.

      Joins

    • B.

      Sorts

    • C.

      Reports

    • D.

      Business areas

    Correct Answer
    D. Business areas
    Explanation
    In Discoverer, a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to specific data requirements is referred to as business areas. Business areas help organize and categorize the data in a way that is relevant and meaningful to the user. By grouping related tables and views together, it becomes easier to access and analyze the specific data needed for reporting and analysis purposes.

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  • 24. 

    (811) What type of join is based on a one-to-one or one-to-many relationship?

    • A.

      Inner

    • B.

      Outer

    • C.

      Cross

    • D.

      Multiple

    Correct Answer
    A. Inner
    Explanation
    An inner join is based on a one-to-one or one-to-many relationship. This type of join only includes the matching rows from both tables, discarding any unmatched rows. It is commonly used to retrieve data that exists in both tables and is useful for filtering and combining data from different tables based on a specific relationship.

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  • 25. 

    (811) What type of join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?

    • A.

      Multiple

    • B.

      Cross

    • C.

      Outer

    • D.

      Inner

    Correct Answer
    C. Outer
    Explanation
    Outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. In an outer join, all the rows from one table are included in the result set, even if there is no matching row in the other table. This type of join is useful when you want to include unmatched rows from one table in the result.

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  • 26. 

    (811) Which worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickly and easily?

    • A.

      Sorts

    • B.

      Totals

    • C.

      Parameters

    • D.

      Calculations

    Correct Answer
    B. Totals
    Explanation
    The Totals worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickly and easily. This feature allows you to calculate the sum, average, minimum, maximum, and other statistical values for a selected range of data. By using the Totals item, you can easily generate summary information without having to manually perform calculations or create complex formulas.

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  • 27. 

    (812) What is used to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in aworksheet?

    • A.

      Discoverer Reporter

    • B.

      Discoverer Viewer

    • C.

      Discoverer Query

    • D.

      Discoverer Plus.

    Correct Answer
    B. Discoverer Viewer
    Explanation
    Discoverer Viewer is used to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet. It allows users to view, analyze, and manipulate data in a user-friendly interface. With Discoverer Viewer, users can customize the layout, apply filters, sort data, and perform calculations to generate meaningful insights from the reports. It provides a flexible and interactive way to explore and present data in a worksheet format.

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  • 28. 

    (812) In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

    • A.

      Report

    • B.

      Import

    • C.

      Export

    • D.

      Print

    Correct Answer
    C. Export
    Explanation
    In Discoverer, the function that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export". This feature enables users to extract data from Discoverer and save it in a format that can be easily imported into other applications for further analysis or processing. It provides flexibility and convenience in sharing data across different platforms and tools.

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  • 29. 

    (813) What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance,acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

    • A.

      Oracle Discoverer Plus

    • B.

      Enterprise Solution-Supply

    • C.

      Standard Asset Tracking System

    • D.

      Weapon System Management Information System

    Correct Answer
    B. Enterprise Solution-Supply
    Explanation
    Enterprise Solution-Supply is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. This system is designed to handle various aspects of supply chain management and allows for efficient decision-making in all areas related to the management of resources and assets.

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  • 30. 

    (813) The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility ofAir Force

    • A.

      Owned assets

    • B.

      Sourced assets

    • C.

      Asset shortages

    • D.

      Repairable assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Owned assets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "owned assets" because the intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force owned assets. This means that the system aims to track and monitor all assets that are owned by the Air Force, allowing for better management and control over these assets. It does not include assets that are sourced from external parties, asset shortages, or repairable assets.

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  • 31. 

    (814) One of the primary functions that ES-S offers is the ability to

    • A.

      Update orders in the SATS

    • B.

      Migrate orders into WSMIS

    • C.

      Transfer orders into Discoverer

    • D.

      Input orders into the legacy SBSS

    Correct Answer
    D. Input orders into the legacy SBSS
    Explanation
    ES-S offers the ability to input orders into the legacy SBSS. This means that users can use ES-S to enter new orders into the legacy SBSS system. The other options mentioned, such as updating orders in SATS, migrating orders into WSMIS, and transferring orders into Discoverer, are not mentioned as primary functions of ES-S.

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  • 32. 

    (814) In ES-S, which is not a type of order provided by the Order Placement Page?

    • A.

      Requisition

    • B.

      Common Issue

    • C.

      Depot Retail Issue

    • D.

      Maintenance Issue

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Issue
    Explanation
    The question asks about the types of orders provided by the Order Placement Page in ES-S. The options include Requisition, Common Issue, Depot Retail Issue, and Maintenance Issue. The correct answer is Maintenance Issue because it is not a type of order provided by the Order Placement Page in ES-S.

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  • 33. 

    (815) ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders in what three legacy systems?

    • A.

      D043; SATS; SBSS

    • B.

      D035A; SATS; SBSS

    • C.

      SBSS; D035A; D035K

    • D.

      D035A; D035K; D043

    Correct Answer
    C. SBSS; D035A; D035K
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SBSS, D035A, D035K. This is because the question asks for the three legacy systems that can be queried and viewed using ES-S. The answer choice SBSS is correct because it is listed first and matches one of the options in the question. D035A and D035K are the other two correct choices because they are listed in the same order as the question and match the other options provided.

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  • 34. 

    (815) In ES-S, the Order Selection Page is divided into what three sections?

    • A.

      Basic Selection Criteria, Additional Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • B.

      Required Selection Criteria, Optional Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • C.

      Order Selection Criteria, Supplement Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • D.

      Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    Correct Answer
    D. Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria
    Explanation
    The Order Selection Page in ES-S is divided into three sections: Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria. These sections allow users to specify the main criteria for selecting orders, additional criteria for further refinement, and the criteria for displaying the selected orders.

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  • 35. 

    (816) What function provides the ability to query all ES-S transactions from a single userinterface?

    • A.

      Asset Query

    • B.

      Audit Data Query

    • C.

      Process Orders Query

    • D.

      Process SBSS Transactions

    Correct Answer
    B. Audit Data Query
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Audit Data Query. This function allows users to query all ES-S transactions from a single user interface. It provides the ability to retrieve and analyze audit data related to transactions, ensuring transparency and accountability. By using the Audit Data Query, users can easily access and review the details of ES-S transactions for various purposes such as auditing, compliance, and reporting.

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  • 36. 

    (816) The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for what types of audits?

    • A.

      SBSS and SATS

    • B.

      Single and multiple

    • C.

      Internal and external

    • D.

      Issue and requisition

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal and external
    Explanation
    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for both internal and external audits. This means that you can use this tool to retrieve transaction data for audits conducted within your organization as well as audits conducted by external entities such as regulatory bodies or auditors. This feature is useful for organizations to ensure compliance with internal policies and external regulations.

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  • 37. 

    (817) The core of asset management is the

    • A.

      TRACKER

    • B.

      Stock Control System

    • C.

      Recoverable Assembly Process

    • D.

      Recoverable Consumption Items Requisitions System – D041

    Correct Answer
    B. Stock Control System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stock Control System. Asset management involves effectively managing and controlling assets to ensure their optimal use and maximize their value. A stock control system is a crucial component of asset management as it helps in tracking and managing inventory levels, monitoring stock movements, and ensuring efficient stock replenishment. By implementing a stock control system, organizations can minimize stockouts, reduce excess inventory, and improve overall inventory management, leading to cost savings and improved operational efficiency.

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  • 38. 

    (817) What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material?

    • A.

      SCS

    • B.

      LINK

    • C.

      VLIPS

    • D.

      SAMMS

    Correct Answer
    A. SCS
    Explanation
    SCS stands for Supply Chain System, which combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material. This system helps to streamline and manage the flow of materials in both wholesale and retail environments, ensuring efficient and accurate handling of inventory.

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  • 39. 

    (817) What automated system’s purpose is to maintain visibility of Air Force owned recoverable assets and levels by reporting worldwide location?

    • A.

      Recoverable Consumption Items Requisitions System

    • B.

      Recoverable Item Input Validation System

    • C.

      Recoverable Assembly Process

    • D.

      Recoverable Item Simulation Capability

    Correct Answer
    C. Recoverable Assembly Process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Recoverable Assembly Process." This automated system's purpose is to maintain visibility of Air Force owned recoverable assets and levels by reporting their worldwide location.

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  • 40. 

    (817) Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasisplaced on the flight line base level user?

    • A.

      TRACKER

    • B.

      RAMPS

    • C.

      LINK

    • D.

      SCS

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACKER
    Explanation
    TRACKER is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. This system is likely designed to track and manage requisitions made by users at the flight line, ensuring that they have the necessary information and updates regarding their requests.

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  • 41. 

    (818) What type of material is obtained through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?

    • A.

      Free issue.

    • B.

      Auctioned

    • C.

      Small value

    • D.

      Scratch-and-dent

    Correct Answer
    A. Free issue.
    Explanation
    The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service obtains free issue materials. Free issue refers to items that are provided at no cost to the recipient, typically by a government agency or military organization. These materials are typically surplus or excess items that are no longer needed by one organization but can still be useful to another. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service acts as a central hub for redistributing these materials to other government agencies or organizations that can make use of them.

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  • 42. 

    (818) What system gives you visibility of wholesale, retail and surplus assets in the services and DLA inventories.

    • A.

      SAMMS

    • B.

      VLIPS

    • C.

      WebCATS

    • D.

      LINK

    Correct Answer
    D. LINK
    Explanation
    LINK is the correct answer because it is a system that provides visibility of wholesale, retail, and surplus assets in the services and DLA inventories. It allows users to track and manage these assets, ensuring efficient inventory management and improved decision-making. SAMMS, VLIPS, and WebCATS are not systems that specifically provide visibility of wholesale, retail, and surplus assets in the services and DLA inventories.

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  • 43. 

    (818) What system provides real-time access to transactional information that has passed through the Defense Automated Addressing System?

    • A.

      Web Customer Account Tracking System

    • B.

      Logistics Performance Assessment System

    • C.

      Dyna-Metric Microcomputer Analysis System

    • D.

      Visual Logistics Information Processing System

    Correct Answer
    D. Visual Logistics Information Processing System
    Explanation
    The Visual Logistics Information Processing System is the correct answer because it is the system that provides real-time access to transactional information that has passed through the Defense Automated Addressing System. This system allows for efficient tracking and management of logistics information, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is available to users.

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  • 44. 

    (819) Which module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages flow ofrecoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

    • A.

      Readiness Assessment Module

    • B.

      Propulsion Requirement System

    • C.

      Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module

    • D.

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System

    Correct Answer
    D. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System
    Explanation
    The Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System module supports repair execution, item distribution, and manages the flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair. This module is responsible for coordinating and prioritizing repairs, ensuring that the necessary resources and assets are available for repair activities, and managing the distribution of repaired items back to the appropriate locations.

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  • 45. 

    (820) What has the capability to support multiple full SBSS accounts?

    • A.

      LSC

    • B.

      DECCs

    • C.

      HQ SSG

    • D.

      OSSG

    Correct Answer
    B. DECCs
    Explanation
    DECCs (Defense Enterprise Computing Centers) have the capability to support multiple full SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) accounts. DECCs are responsible for providing information technology services to the Department of Defense. They offer a wide range of services including data storage, network support, and application hosting. With their infrastructure and expertise, DECCs can efficiently handle multiple SBSS accounts, ensuring smooth operations and support for various defense organizations.

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  • 46. 

    (821) Establishing connectivity between a desktop PC and the mainframe computer is done with what kind of emulation program?

    • A.

      Terminal

    • B.

      Intranet

    • C.

      Internet

    • D.

      Portal

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminal
    Explanation
    Establishing connectivity between a desktop PC and a mainframe computer is typically achieved using a terminal emulation program. This program allows the desktop PC to emulate a terminal, enabling it to communicate with the mainframe computer. Terminals were commonly used in the past to interact with mainframe systems, and terminal emulation software allows modern computers to replicate this functionality. Intranet, internet, and portal are not directly related to establishing connectivity between a desktop PC and a mainframe computer.

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  • 47. 

    (821) What application gives you access to the green screens common in the days before thepersonal computer?

    • A.

      Access to the Internet

    • B.

      Internet Explorer

    • C.

      INFOConnect

    • D.

      SBSS

    Correct Answer
    C. INFOConnect
    Explanation
    INFOConnect is the application that gives you access to the green screens common in the days before the personal computer. This suggests that INFOConnect is a software or program that allows users to interact with and access mainframe or terminal systems, which were commonly used before the advent of personal computers. It is likely that INFOConnect provides a user interface that resembles the green screens that were characteristic of early computer systems.

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  • 48. 

    (822) What feature includes the settings needed for upload and download of files to and from the Unisys 2200 Operating System?

    • A.

      IP

    • B.

      FTP

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      SMTP

    Correct Answer
    B. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a feature that includes the settings needed for upload and download of files to and from the Unisys 2200 Operating System. FTP is a standard network protocol that allows for the transfer of files between a client and a server on a computer network. It provides a simple and efficient way to transfer files, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 49. 

    (822) What is it called when data is moved from SBSS to our local personal computer?

    • A.

      Copying

    • B.

      Uploading

    • C.

      Transferring

    • D.

      Downloading

    Correct Answer
    D. Downloading
    Explanation
    Downloading is the correct answer because it refers to the process of transferring data from a remote server or a cloud-based system, such as SBSS, to our local personal computer. This involves retrieving files or information from a remote location and saving them onto our computer's storage for offline access or further use.

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  • 50. 

    (823) In order for a program to interface via Interactive Communications Interface (ICI), howmany systems must reside on each host?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    To interface via Interactive Communications Interface (ICI), only one system must reside on each host.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 02, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Diezeitgeist
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