1.
What is a requirement for military explosives?
Correct Answer
A. The raw materials must be cheap
Explanation
The requirement for military explosives is that the raw materials must be cheap. This is because military explosives are often produced in large quantities and used extensively in warfare, so it is crucial to keep the cost of production as low as possible. By using inexpensive raw materials, the military can maximize their resources and allocate funds to other important aspects of their operations.
2.
The rate of transformation for high explosives is between
Correct Answer
B. 3,200 and 28,000 feet per second
Explanation
The correct answer is 3,200 and 28,000 feet per second. This is because the rate of transformation for high explosives falls within this range. The given options provide different ranges of speeds, but only the range of 3,200 to 28,000 feet per second is within the correct range.
3.
The tendancy of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called
Correct Answer
C. Deflagration
Explanation
Deflagration refers to the tendency of a substance to burn rapidly and sparkle during combustion. It is characterized by a subsonic flame front that propagates through the substance, releasing heat and light. Unlike detonation, which involves a supersonic shockwave, deflagration occurs at a slower rate. Disposition refers to a person's inherent qualities or tendencies, while decomposition refers to the breakdown of a substance into simpler components. Therefore, deflagration is the correct answer in this context.
4.
What is the final effect of deflagration under confinement?
Correct Answer
B. Detonation
Explanation
Deflagration under confinement refers to the rapid combustion of a substance in a confined space. The final effect of this process is detonation. Detonation occurs when the combustion front moves through the substance at a supersonic speed, causing a highly destructive and explosive reaction. Unlike deflagration, which is a slower and less intense burning process, detonation releases a shockwave that can cause significant damage and destruction. Therefore, the correct answer is detonation.
5.
What does a booster do?
Correct Answer
B. Deonates the main charge
Explanation
A booster detonates the main charge. Boosters are explosive components that are used to initiate the detonation of a larger explosive charge. They are designed to provide a high-energy output to ensure that the main charge detonates effectively. Boosters transmit energy from one detonating component to the next, ultimately leading to the detonation of the main charge.
6.
How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?
Correct Answer
B. Use a time action HE train
Explanation
To achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb, one can use a time action HE train. This means that the bomb is equipped with a time fuse that is set to detonate at a specific altitude or time after release. When the bomb reaches the predetermined point, the time fuse triggers the explosion, causing the bomb to burst in the air rather than upon impact with the ground. This allows for a wider area of effect and can be particularly useful in targeting enemy troops or structures.
7.
What are the basic components of an explosive train?
Correct Answer
B. Detonator, booster and a bursting charge
Explanation
The basic components of an explosive train are a detonator, booster, and a bursting charge. The detonator is the initiation device that starts the explosion, the booster amplifies the energy of the detonator, and the bursting charge is the main explosive material that produces the desired effect. These components work together to create a controlled and powerful explosion.
8.
In the explosive train, where can you find the delay?
Correct Answer
B. Ahead of the detonator
Explanation
The delay in the explosive train is located ahead of the detonator. This means that there is a component in the explosive train that is designed to delay the initiation of the detonator. The purpose of this delay is to ensure that the explosive charge reaches its intended target before detonating, allowing for precise timing and control of the explosion.
9.
What effect does more damage then the framentation effect of a specific bomb?
Correct Answer
D. Blast
Explanation
The blast effect of a specific bomb causes more damage than the fragmentation effect. When a bomb detonates, it releases a powerful shockwave that rapidly expands in all directions. This shockwave creates a high-pressure zone that can cause destruction by collapsing buildings, damaging infrastructure, and injuring or killing people within its range. While fragmentation refers to the shrapnel and debris propelled by the explosion, the blast effect itself is responsible for the majority of the damage and casualties.
10.
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
Correct Answer
B. Increase the standoff distance
Explanation
Increasing the standoff distance can increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge. Standoff distance refers to the distance between the shaped charge and the target. By increasing this distance, the shaped charge has more time to focus and concentrate its explosive force before reaching the target. This allows for a more effective and powerful penetration, as the shaped charge can form a more concentrated and focused jet of explosive energy.
11.
For what do we use a shaped charge?
Correct Answer
A. To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object
Explanation
A shaped charge is used to produce an explosive penetration of a solid object. It is designed in a way that focuses the explosive energy into a specific direction, creating a high-velocity jet of metal that can penetrate armored vehicles, bunkers, or other fortified structures. This makes it a valuable tool in military operations, as it can effectively neutralize enemy targets by breaching their defenses. Additionally, shaped charges can also be used in controlled demolitions to bring down walls and collapse roofs.
12.
The penetrating action fo a shaped charge is the result of the
Correct Answer
D. Shock wave and a jet of dense gas
Explanation
The correct answer is shock wave and a jet of dense gas. When a shaped charge detonates, it creates a high-pressure shock wave that travels through the target material. This shock wave compresses and weakens the material, making it easier for the jet of dense gas to penetrate and cause damage. The combination of the shock wave and the jet of dense gas working together allows the shaped charge to effectively penetrate the target.
13.
Besides thier purpose, what else do we use to classify rockets?
Correct Answer
B. Warhead filler
Explanation
Rockets can be classified based on various factors, including their purpose and warhead filler. The warhead filler refers to the substance or material that fills the warhead of a rocket. Different types of fillers can be used, such as explosives, chemicals, or even non-explosive materials. The choice of warhead filler can greatly impact the rocket's effectiveness and intended use, such as for anti-personnel, anti-vehicle, or anti-structure purposes. Therefore, warhead filler is an important criterion used to classify rockets.
14.
How do we identify practice warheads?
Correct Answer
B. By a light blue body and white markings
15.
Where do you stand while loading a rocket into a launcher?
Correct Answer
C. Either side of the launcher
Explanation
When loading a rocket into a launcher, you can stand on either side of the launcher. This is because the loading process typically involves attaching the rocket to the launcher from the sides, ensuring stability and proper alignment. Standing on either side allows for easier access and maneuverability during the loading process. Additionally, it ensures that you are clear of any potential hazards or obstructions that may be present at the front or rear of the launcher.
16.
What is the hazard associated with a flechette warhead?
Correct Answer
D. Fire
Explanation
A flechette warhead is a type of munition that releases a large number of small, dart-like projectiles upon detonation. These projectiles are designed to penetrate armor and cause damage to personnel and equipment. The hazard associated with a flechette warhead is fire. When the warhead detonates, it can ignite flammable materials in the vicinity, leading to the spread of fire and causing further damage and danger.
17.
The main types of fuze action are impact, time and
Correct Answer
C. Proximity
Explanation
Proximity is a type of fuze action that is triggered by the presence or close proximity of a target. This type of fuze is designed to detect the target using sensors such as radar or infrared, and then initiate the explosion when the target is within a certain range. Proximity fuzes are commonly used in anti-aircraft and anti-missile systems, as well as in artillery shells and torpedoes. They provide an effective way to target and destroy moving objects without the need for direct impact or precise timing.
18.
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?
Correct Answer
A. Nose only
Explanation
A proximity fuze is placed on the nose of a bomb. This is because the nose of the bomb is the most effective location for detecting and reacting to the proximity of a target. By placing the fuze on the nose, it can accurately detect the distance between the bomb and the target, allowing for precise detonation at the optimal moment to maximize the destructive impact. Placing the fuze on the tail or between the lugs would not provide the same level of accuracy and effectiveness.
19.
When is a bomb fuze considered to be armed?
Correct Answer
C. When the next normal event will initiate a functioning of the fuze
Explanation
A bomb fuze is considered to be armed when the next normal event will initiate a functioning of the fuze. This means that the fuze is ready to activate and perform its intended function when the appropriate conditions are met. This could include factors such as impact, proximity to a target, or a specific time delay. The other options mentioned, such as when the bomb is released or when the safety pins are pulled, are not necessarily the criteria for the fuze to be armed, but rather steps in the process of preparing the bomb for deployment.
20.
In an electronically timed fuze, what replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?
Correct Answer
C. Electric charging assembly
Explanation
In an electronically timed fuze, the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes are replaced by an electric charging assembly. This assembly is responsible for charging the electrical circuitry of the fuze, allowing it to function properly. The electric charging assembly ensures that the fuze is armed and ready to detonate at the desired time, providing precise timing and control for explosive devices.
21.
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems and strikers while the fuze is being handled?
Correct Answer
B. Cotter pins
Explanation
Cotter pins are designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled. They are inserted through a hole in the component and secured with a split pin or wire, ensuring that the parts remain in place and do not accidentally activate the fuze. This safety feature is crucial in preventing accidental detonation during transportation or handling of the fuze.
22.
How do you set the firing delay times in an M904 mechanically timed nose fuze?
Correct Answer
A. Change the delay element
Explanation
In an M904 mechanically timed nose fuze, the firing delay times can be set by changing the delay element. This means that by replacing the delay element with a different one, the desired delay time can be achieved. This allows for flexibility and customization in the fuze's functioning, as different delay times may be required for different situations or targets.
23.
The FMU-54-series fuzes are used in
Correct Answer
D. Retarder equipped general-purpose bombs
Explanation
The FMU-54-series fuzes are specifically designed for use in retarder equipped general-purpose bombs. These fuzes are not used in laser-guided bomb series, BLU-109/B-series guided bombs, or MK80 and M series with conical fins only. Therefore, the correct answer is retarder equipped general-purpose bombs.
24.
With electrical fuzes, what is used in place of arming wire?
Correct Answer
C. Battery-firing device
Explanation
With electrical fuzes, a battery-firing device is used in place of arming wire. This device is responsible for providing the necessary electrical current to initiate the explosive charge or detonator. Unlike traditional arming wire, which physically connects the fuze to the power source, a battery-firing device uses electrical signals to activate the explosive mechanism. This allows for more precise and controlled detonation, as well as remote arming capabilities.
25.
Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the SUU-64/B and the SUU-65/B dispensers?
Correct Answer
A. FZU-39/B
Explanation
The FZU-39/B is a sensor that is used with the SUU-64/B and SUU-65/B dispensers. It is a radio-frequency radar ranging system, which means it uses radar technology to determine the distance between objects. This sensor is specifically designed for use with these dispensers, suggesting that it is the correct answer for the question.
26.
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze?
Correct Answer
B. FZU-48/B initiator
Explanation
The FZU-48/B initiator provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze.
27.
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst setting built into the fuze at the time of its manufacture?
Correct Answer
D. FMU-113/B
Explanation
The FMU-113/B proximity fuze has a height-of-burst setting built into the fuze at the time of its manufacture.
28.
What is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?
Correct Answer
C. Adapter booster
Explanation
An adapter booster is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb. This device is specifically designed to enhance the performance and functionality of the fuze by boosting its capabilities. It allows for seamless integration between the fuze and the bomb, ensuring proper functioning and accuracy during deployment.
29.
Which fin provides a stablized flight and a "high drag" option for the M117 bomb?
Correct Answer
A. MAU-91
Explanation
The MAU-91 fin provides a stabilized flight and a "high drag" option for the M117 bomb.
30.
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK82 bomb?
Correct Answer
A. BSU-49/B
Explanation
The correct answer is BSU-49/B. The BSU-49/B is an air-inflatable retarder that is used on the MK82 bomb. It is designed to slow down the bomb's descent and improve its accuracy by reducing its forward speed. This retarder is commonly used by the military to increase the effectiveness of aerial bombings.
31.
What air-inflatable retarder is used on the MK84 bomb?
Correct Answer
B. BSU-50
Explanation
The air-inflatable retarder used on the MK84 bomb is the BSU-50.
32.
The BLU-109/B is a
Correct Answer
A. 2,000-pound penetrator bomb.
Explanation
The BLU-109/B is a 2,000-pound penetrator bomb. This means that it is a bomb weighing 2,000 pounds specifically designed to penetrate and destroy hardened targets such as bunkers or underground facilities. The weight of the bomb is an important factor in determining its penetrating capability, with heavier bombs generally being more effective at penetrating fortified structures.
33.
What type of bomb is a BLU-113?
Correct Answer
D. 4,000-pound penetrator bomb.
Explanation
The BLU-113 is a 4,000-pound penetrator bomb. This type of bomb is specifically designed to penetrate hardened targets, such as bunkers or underground facilities. It has a heavy weight and a strong casing, allowing it to penetrate deep into the target before detonating. The BLU-113 is commonly used by the military to destroy heavily fortified enemy positions.
34.
The BLU-109/B augments or replaces the
Correct Answer
C. MK84
Explanation
The BLU-109/B is a bomb that is designed to augment or replace the MK84 bomb. The MK84 is a general-purpose bomb that is commonly used by the United States military. It is a 2,000-pound bomb that is capable of causing significant damage to both soft and hardened targets. The BLU-109/B is a variant of the MK84 that incorporates a hardened steel casing, making it more effective against hardened targets such as bunkers and underground facilities. Therefore, the correct answer is MK84.
35.
The FMU-143 series fuze is normally the only fuze used with the
Correct Answer
B. BLU-109
Explanation
The FMU-143 series fuze is specifically designed to be used with the BLU-109 bomb. It is not used with the BLU-107, M129 leaflet bomb, or MJU-1 countermeasure bomb. Therefore, the correct answer is BLU-109.
36.
What is the M129 bomb used for?
Correct Answer
A. To persuade the enemy to surrender
Explanation
The M129 bomb is not used to persuade the enemy to surrender. It is actually used to destroy hardened aircraft shelters, penetrate and destroy runway surfaces, or destroy columns of armored vehicles.
37.
In external appearance, the M129E2 leaflet bomb is similar to the
Correct Answer
A. M117, 750-pound bomb
Explanation
The M129E2 leaflet bomb is similar in external appearance to the M117, 750-pound bomb.
38.
What weapon type is simulated by the BDU-38/B?
Correct Answer
B. B61 nuclear bomb
Explanation
The BDU-38/B is a simulation device used for training purposes to replicate the characteristics and behavior of the B61 nuclear bomb. It is not an actual weapon but rather a training tool that allows military personnel to practice handling and deploying the B61 bomb in a safe and controlled environment. The BDU-38/B helps to familiarize users with the procedures and protocols associated with the B61 bomb, ensuring that they are well-prepared for real-world scenarios.
39.
What is the purpose of the CCU-11/B cartridge in the BDU-38/B practice shape?
Correct Answer
D. Deploys the deployment tube assembly and parachute
Explanation
The purpose of the CCU-11/B cartridge in the BDU-38/B practice shape is to deploy the deployment tube assembly and parachute.
40.
What is the only difference between the CBU-87/B and the CBU-87A/B?
Correct Answer
B. The A/B has the live FZU-39/B sensor installed
Explanation
The only difference between the CBU-87/B and the CBU-87A/B is that the A/B version has the live FZU-39/B sensor installed.
41.
The CBU-89 is physically the same as the
Correct Answer
B. CBU-87 cluster bomb.
Explanation
The correct answer is CBU-87 cluster bomb. The question states that the CBU-89 is physically the same as another bomb. Among the given options, the only bomb that matches this description is the CBU-87 cluster bomb. Therefore, the CBU-87 cluster bomb is the correct answer.
42.
The major physical difference between the CBU-87 and the CBU-89 is the
Correct Answer
D. CBU-89 does not have canted fins
Explanation
The correct answer is CBU-89 does not have canted fins. Canted fins are angled fins that provide stability and control to a bomb during its descent. The absence of canted fins in the CBU-89 means that this particular bomb does not have this feature. The CBU-87, on the other hand, may have canted fins or some other type of fin design.
43.
Which proximity sensor is used with the CBU-89/B?
Correct Answer
C. FZU-39/B
Explanation
The FZU-39/B proximity sensor is used with the CBU-89/B.
44.
How many projectiles are contained in each BLU-108/B submunition?
Correct Answer
D. 4
Explanation
Each BLU-108/B submunition contains four projectiles.
45.
Which dispenser does the CBU-97 cluster bomb use?
Correct Answer
A. SUU-66
Explanation
The CBU-97 cluster bomb uses the SUU-66 dispenser.
46.
Which proximity sensor is used with the CBU-97/B?
Correct Answer
C. FZU-39/B
Explanation
The FZU-39/B proximity sensor is used with the CBU-97/B.
47.
The CBU-103/B is converted to a WCMD from what cluster bomb unit?
Correct Answer
A. CBU-87/B
Explanation
The CBU-103/B is converted to a WCMD (Wind Corrected Munitions Dispenser) from the CBU-87/B cluster bomb unit.
48.
The CBU-89A/B with a WCMD kit turns into a
Correct Answer
B. CBU-104A/B
Explanation
The correct answer is CBU-104A/B. When the CBU-89A/B is equipped with a WCMD (Wind Corrected Munitions Dispenser) kit, it transforms into a CBU-104A/B. The WCMD kit enhances the accuracy and precision of the CBU-89A/B by allowing it to be guided to its target with GPS navigation. This conversion enables the weapon to effectively engage and destroy targets with greater precision and reduced collateral damage.
49.
Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?
Correct Answer
C. Control actuation assembly
Explanation
The control actuation assembly is responsible for canting the fins of the wind-corrected munitions dispenser component during flight, causing it to spin. This assembly controls the movement and positioning of the fins, allowing for precise adjustments to the dispenser's trajectory and stability in the air.
50.
How is the incendiary composition initiated in the 20mm armor-peircing incendiary (API) round?
Correct Answer
A. Impact
Explanation
The incendiary composition in the 20mm armor-piercing incendiary (API) round is initiated through impact. When the round hits its target, the impact causes a mechanical force that triggers the ignition of the incendiary composition. This ignition then leads to the production of a high-temperature flame or intense heat, which is effective in penetrating armor and causing damage to the target.