CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test

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  • 1/285 Questions

    (001) What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?    

    • Run memory byte count.
    • Test for parity errors.
    • Load instructions to random access memory (RAM).
    • Run the power-on self-test.
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About This Quiz


Comprehensive test consisting of all 3 volumes of CDC 3C051 VRE questions.

CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS is a type of semiconductor used in computer chips, including BIOS and EEPROM. CMOS is highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because it operates at low voltage levels and is sensitive to voltage spikes. ESD can cause permanent damage to the CMOS component, leading to malfunction or failure of the device. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with proper ESD precautions to prevent damage.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed? 

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    The CMOS component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. This is because CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS settings and other configuration data that need to be retained even when the computer is turned off. The lithium battery provides a constant power supply to the CMOS chip, ensuring that the settings are not lost.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?    

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Read-only memory (ROM).
    Explanation
    ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be altered or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store firmware, operating system instructions, and other permanent data that needs to be accessed quickly during the booting process. Unlike volatile memory such as RAM, ROM does not require constant power to maintain its data, making it a reliable and long-lasting storage solution.

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  • 5. 

    (001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?    

    • Cache

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Basic input output system (BIOS)." BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing a basic interface between the hardware and software of a computer system.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as 

    • Polling.

    • Signaling.

    • Processing.

    • Multitasking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling.
    Explanation
    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. Polling involves the client program regularly checking the status of the external device to determine if any changes or updates have occurred. This method allows the client program to actively monitor the device and respond accordingly based on its status. Signaling, processing, and multitasking are not accurate descriptions for actively sampling the status of an external device.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete? a. Driver. b. Parity bit. c. Data integrity. d. Error correction. 

    • Driver.

    • Parity bit.

    • Data integrity

    • Error correction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, whole, and free from any errors or inconsistencies. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.

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  • 8. 

    (002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity? 

    • Asynchronous.

    • Parity bit.

    • Interrupt.

    • Fault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit.
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a technique used to check the integrity of data. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected. If the number of 1s in the data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission or storage. Therefore, the parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity.

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  • 9. 

    (002) What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices during the boot process. It also performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, the BIOS will send an error message to the user.

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  • 10. 

    (003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

    • Voltage

    • Amperage.

    • Conductivity.

    • Electrostatic discharge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrostatic discharge.
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when there is a difference in electrical potentials between two objects. This discharge can happen when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object and it is discharged to another object with a lower electrical potential. It is commonly experienced as a static shock when touching a metal object after walking on a carpeted floor.

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  • 11. 

    (003) Static electricity remains intact until it is 

    • Absorbed.

    • Dissolved.

    • Discharged.

    • Neutralized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged.
    Explanation
    Static electricity refers to the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning they are released or transferred to another object or the surrounding environment. Discharging static electricity can occur through various means, such as through contact with a conductor or through a spark. Once discharged, the object no longer carries a static charge.

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  • 12. 

    (003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

    • I.

    • II.

    • III.

    • IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. III.
  • 13. 

    (003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity? 

    • Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.

    • Check the relative humidity level.

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device.

    • Turn the power switch to the off position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.
    Explanation
    To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is necessary. Grounding helps to dissipate any accumulated static charge and prevents it from damaging the device or causing a discharge. This measure ensures that the device remains safe and protected from any potential harm caused by static electricity. Checking the relative humidity level, disconnecting the circuit from the device, and turning off the power switch may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.

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  • 14. 

    (003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

    • Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.

    • Check the relative humidity level.

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device.

    • Turn the power switch to the off position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the power switch to the off position.
  • 15. 

    (004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

    • Fault isolation.

    • Event evaluation.

    • Process investigation.

    • Analytical consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation.
    Explanation
    Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and analyzing the root cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to understand what went wrong and how to prevent it from happening again. This process helps in identifying the specific component or system that caused the failure and enables the implementation of corrective actions to prevent its recurrence. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 16. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present? 

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or condition that needs to be resolved. By defining the problem, you can gather relevant information, analyze the symptoms, and determine the underlying causes. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the rest of the troubleshooting process, including isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

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  • 17. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?     

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you narrow down the issue and determine its root cause. This involves gathering information, analyzing symptoms, and conducting tests to identify the specific problem. Once the problem is isolated, you can move on to resolving it. Confirming the resolution comes after the problem has been resolved and involves verifying that the issue has been successfully addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is "Isolate the problem."

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  • 18. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes? 

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting step of resolving the problem, you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This involves analyzing the situation, gathering information, and using deductive reasoning to narrow down the possible causes of the problem. By eliminating unlikely causes, you can focus on the most probable causes and work towards finding a solution.

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  • 19. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed? 

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the resolution.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution. This step involves reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed during the troubleshooting process. It helps to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and there are no remaining issues or steps that need to be addressed.

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  • 20. 

    (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied? 

    • The keyboard lights should flash.

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor.

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash.
  • 21. 

    (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor? 

    • The keyboard lights should flash.

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor.

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
  • 22. 

    (005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist? a. Event evaluation. b. Power-on-self-test (POST). c. Process investigation. d. Analytical consideration. 

    • Event evaluation.

    • Power-on-self-test (POST).

    • Process investigation.

    • Analytical consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power-on-self-test (POST).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Power-on-self-test (POST). The POST is a diagnostic program that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the computer, including the CPU, to ensure that they are functioning properly. If a hardware problem exists with the CPU, the POST will detect it and provide an error message or beep code to indicate the issue. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration are not specifically designed to detect CPU hardware problems.

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  • 23. 

    (005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to 

    • Review the schematic diagram for errors.

    • Make a complete drawing of all the components.

    • Call the manufacture and speak to customer service.

    • Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.
    Explanation
    Placing masking tape to the cables and connection points is a simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware. This allows for easy identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot any issues. It also helps prevent confusion and misconnection of cables during the troubleshooting process.

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  • 24. 

    (006) What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold? 

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank indicates that they have the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively fulfill their responsibilities in managing communications security. It is likely that this rank is considered appropriate for this role based on the level of authority and decision-making required.

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  • 25. 

    (006) After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer’s (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually.

    • Annually.

    • Biennially.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This means that they need to undergo training and refresh their knowledge and skills in communications security (COMSEC) account management on a yearly basis. This ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and procedures in order to effectively manage their account and maintain the security of communications.

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  • 26. 

    (006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semi-annually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is semi-annually. The question asks how often the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible officers to ensure communications security. The answer "semi-annually" means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This ensures that the responsible officers are complying with directives and properly accounting for the COMSEC material under their control. Monthly, quarterly, and annually would not provide as frequent and regular oversight as semi-annually.

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  • 27. 

    (006) Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

    • Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).

    • HQ USAF/SCX.

    • Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG).

    Correct Answer
    A. Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA). The National Security Agency (NSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. As the director of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and oversight to ensure the proper production and management of cryptographic material to support national security objectives.

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  • 28. 

    (006) What is the classification of the combination to any security container? 

    • Not classified.

    • Always classified for official use only (FOUO).

    • Always classified confidential.

    • Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.

    Correct Answer
    A. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified at the same level as the highest classified material stored inside the container. This ensures that the container is adequately protected and secured based on the sensitivity of the materials it contains.

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  • 29. 

    (006) The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

    • A controlling authority.

    • A COMSEC manager.

    • An installation commander.

    • A cryptologic support group (CPSG).

    Correct Answer
    A. A controlling authority.
    Explanation
    The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed in the handling and distribution of COMSEC material to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. They have the authority to grant access, monitor usage, and enforce security measures to protect against unauthorized access or compromise of COMSEC material.

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  • 30. 

    (007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment. 

    • Standard Form (SF) 700.

    • SF701.

    • SF702.

    • SF703.

    Correct Answer
    A. SF701.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF701 because SF701 is the form used for a daily physical security inventory. The other forms listed (SF700, SF702, SF703) are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 31. 

    (007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination? 

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Annually.

    • Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Monthly" because changing the cipher lock combination frequently enhances security by reducing the chances of unauthorized access. Monthly changes ensure that even if someone manages to obtain the current combination, it will become invalid before they can exploit it. This practice also aligns with industry standards and best practices for maintaining a secure environment.

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  • 32. 

    (008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement.

    • By drawer arrangement.

    • Alphabetically by edition.

    • Alphabetically buy short title.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically buy short title.
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized in alphabetical order based on their abbreviated or short title. This method allows for easy and efficient reference and retrieval of the materials listed on the form.

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  • 33. 

    (008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager

    • Requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support group (CGSP).

    • Request special TDY orders from major command (MAJCOM).

    • Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone.

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message.
    Explanation
    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where conducting an inventory in person is not feasible. By requesting the user to verify their holding through written communication, the COMSEC manager can still ensure that the inventory is conducted accurately and securely.

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  • 34. 

    (009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the

    • User.

    • Manager.

    • Account manager.

    • Responsible officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. User.
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the user. This means that they are responsible for properly using and protecting the COMSEC aids, such as encryption devices or secure communication systems, to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of communications. The user is expected to follow established procedures and protocols to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information.

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  • 35. 

    (009) Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

    • Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

    • AFCOMSEC Form 23.

    • Standard Form (SF) 153

    • Standard Form 701.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.
    Explanation
    The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

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  • 36. 

    (010) What should each communications security responsible officer (CRO) do before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt?

    • Check the COMSEC manager’s clearance status.

    • Check to see if the effective dates of material are correct.

    • Check the users clearance to ensure they are authorized to utilize the material.

    • Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue.
    Explanation
    Before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt, the communications security responsible officer (CRO) should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue. This means that all the necessary COMSEC material is accounted for and available for use. Checking the COMSEC manager's clearance status, verifying the effective dates of material, and ensuring the user's clearance are authorized are not mentioned as necessary steps before signing the hand receipt.

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  • 37. 

    (010) Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

    • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) forces.

    • Transient aircrews.

    • Base communications security (COMSEC) account itself.

    • Joint military operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transient aircrews.
    Explanation
    Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This means that when material is issued to transient aircrews, there is no need to keep records or reports of its disposition or destruction.

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  • 38. 

    (011) What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

    • Carrier.

    • Transfer.

    • Transport.

    • Shipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport.
    Explanation
    Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material. It implies the involvement of a person or entity responsible for the transportation process. Carrier refers to the entity that physically carries the material, transfer refers to the act of moving something from one place to another, and shipment refers to a quantity of goods being transported together.

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  • 39. 

    (011) What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
  • 40. 

    (012) What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) 

    • Standard Form (SF) 153.

    • SF 700.

    • Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

    • AFCOMSEC Form 16.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form (SF) 153.
    Explanation
    Standard Form (SF) 153 is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC). This form is a standardized document that is used to record the destruction of COMSEC material. It provides a record of the date, time, and method of destruction, as well as the name and signature of the individual responsible for the destruction. Using SF 153 helps ensure proper accountability and documentation of the destruction process, which is crucial for maintaining the security of communications systems.

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  • 41. 

    (012) In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 4.

    • 6.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.
    Explanation
    In the 6-part folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account, destruction certificates are filed.

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  • 42. 

    (013) Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

    • Failure to respond.

    • Withdrawn from use.

    • Long delay in pickup.

    • Cryptographic incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptographic incident.
    Explanation
    Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident violation. This means that if someone fails to comply with the urgent message, it could lead to a breach or compromise in the security of cryptographic systems or information. It is important to promptly respond and take necessary actions to prevent any potential cryptographic incidents.

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  • 43. 

    (014) Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency actions plans (EAP) on base? 

    • Communications security manager (CM).

    • Communications security responsible officer (CRO).

    • Unit commander.

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications security manager (CM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Communications security manager (CM)." The CM is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base. They are in charge of ensuring that the plans are properly developed, implemented, and maintained. They work closely with other personnel, such as the unit commander and the communications security responsible officer (CRO), to ensure that the EAPs are effective and up to date. The CM plays a critical role in emergency preparedness and response on base.

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  • 44. 

    (015) Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account?

    • 3215

    • 3718

    • 4160

    • 4500

    Correct Answer
    A. 4160
    Explanation
    Communications security managers (CM) use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account.

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  • 45. 

    (015) What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO)accounts?

    • 1 month.

    • 2 months.

    • 6 months.

    • 12 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months.
    Explanation
    The maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts is 6 months. This means that CRO accounts should conduct EAP exercises at least once every 6 months to ensure preparedness and effectiveness in case of emergencies.

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  • 46. 

    (018) What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure? 

    • Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).

    • Combat integrated systems.

    • Theater deployable communications (TDC).

    • Integrated communications access package (ICAP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Theater deployable communications (TDC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). This term refers to a ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that is considered to be state-of-the-art. It implies that the communications system is designed to be easily deployable and capable of supporting operations in a theater of operations. This suggests that TDC is a modern and advanced solution for establishing and maintaining communication links in a military or operational environment.

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  • 47. 

    (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?

    • Mobility.

    • Survivability.

    • Interoperability.

    • Open system standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open system standards.
    Explanation
    The characteristic of open system standards reflects the module architecture's compliance with established international or commercial communication standards. This means that the modules are designed to be compatible and interoperable with other systems and technologies, allowing for seamless communication and integration. Open system standards promote flexibility, scalability, and the ability to easily adapt and incorporate new technologies and advancements.

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  • 48. 

    (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

    • Mobility.

    • Survivability.

    • Interoperability.

    • Open system standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility.
    Explanation
    The characteristic of theater deployable communications (TDC) that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. This means that the equipment used for communications in a deployed environment needs to be easily transportable and quickly deployable to support the mobility requirements of military operations.

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  • 49. 

    (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

    • Mobility.

    • Survivability.

    • Interoperability.

    • Open system standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Survivability.
    Explanation
    Survivability is the characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment must be able to withstand and function in hazardous and potentially life-threatening environments, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of communication systems in such conditions.

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  • May 09, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 27, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Becky11
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