CDC 4b051 Vol 4a

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CDC 4b051 Vol 4a - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which person is appointed by the wing commander and is the focal point for all aspects ofradiation protection?

    • A.

      Unit radiation safety officer

    • B.

      Command radiation safety officer

    • C.

      Installation radiation safety officer

    • D.

      Unit radiation safety committee officer

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation radiation safety officer
    Explanation
    The installation radiation safety officer is appointed by the wing commander and is responsible for overseeing all aspects of radiation protection within the installation or facility. They serve as the focal point for coordinating and implementing radiation safety policies, procedures, and training programs. Their role includes monitoring radiation exposure levels, ensuring compliance with regulations, and providing guidance and support to personnel working with radiation sources.

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  • 2. 

    Which provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force (AF)organizations?

    • A.

      AF Radioisotope committee (RIC)

    • B.

      Radiation safety committee (RSC)

    • C.

      AF Surgeon General’s office (USAF/SG).

    • D.

      Environmental protection agency (EPA).

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Radioisotope committee (RIC)
    Explanation
    The AF Radioisotope committee (RIC) provides regulatory oversight for the use of radioactive materials by Air Force organizations. This committee is responsible for ensuring that all activities involving radioactive materials are conducted safely and in compliance with applicable regulations and guidelines. They review and approve the use of radioactive materials, establish protocols for their handling and disposal, and monitor radiation safety practices within the Air Force. The RIC plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of radioactive materials and preventing any potential harm to personnel and the environment.

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  • 3. 

    Who is the unit commander’s point of contact for radiation protection matters?

    • A.

      Unit radiation safety officer

    • B.

      Command radiation safety officer

    • C.

      Installation radiation safety officer

    • D.

      Unit radiation safety committee officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit radiation safety officer
    Explanation
    The unit radiation safety officer is the point of contact for radiation protection matters for the unit commander. They are responsible for ensuring that all radiation safety protocols and procedures are followed within the unit and for providing guidance and support to the unit commander regarding radiation safety.

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  • 4. 

    The more kinetic energy the electrons have, the

    • A.

      Closer they are to each other

    • B.

      Closer they are to the nucleus

    • C.

      Farther they are from each other

    • D.

      Farther they are from the nucleus

    Correct Answer
    D. Farther they are from the nucleus
    Explanation
    As electrons gain kinetic energy, they move to higher energy levels or orbits farther from the nucleus. This is because the energy levels of electrons in an atom are quantized, meaning they can only occupy certain specific energy levels. As the electrons gain kinetic energy, they move to higher energy levels, resulting in them being farther from the nucleus. So, the statement "farther they are from the nucleus" is the correct answer.

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  • 5. 

    A rock rolling down a hill contains what form of energy?

    • A.

      Kinetic

    • B.

      Velocity

    • C.

      Potential

    • D.

      Centrifugal

    Correct Answer
    A. Kinetic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is kinetic. When a rock is rolling down a hill, it possesses kinetic energy. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion, and in this case, the rock is moving as it rolls down the hill. Potential energy is the energy that an object possesses due to its position, and centrifugal energy is not a recognized form of energy. Velocity is a measure of an object's speed in a given direction, but it is not a form of energy itself. Therefore, the most appropriate form of energy for a rolling rock is kinetic energy.

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  • 6. 

    What is the magnetic field also known as?

    • A.

      E field

    • B.

      H field

    • C.

      K field.

    • D.

      M field

    Correct Answer
    B. H field
    Explanation
    The magnetic field is also known as the H field. In electromagnetism, the H field represents the magnetic field strength or intensity. It is related to the magnetic field B by the equation B = μH, where μ is the permeability of the medium. The H field is used to describe the behavior of magnetic fields in materials and is an important concept in understanding magnetic phenomena.

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  • 7. 

    The number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second is known as

    • A.

      Energy

    • B.

      Intensity

    • C.

      Frequency

    • D.

      Wavelength

    Correct Answer
    C. Frequency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is frequency. Frequency refers to the number of electromagnetic waves passing a certain point in one second. It is a measure of how many wave cycles occur in a given time period. Energy, intensity, and wavelength are related concepts but do not directly measure the number of waves passing a point.

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  • 8. 

    As the frequency becomes higher, wavelength becomes

    • A.

      Slower

    • B.

      Longer

    • C.

      Faster

    • D.

      Shorter

    Correct Answer
    D. Shorter
    Explanation
    As the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength decreases. This is because frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. A higher frequency means that the wave is oscillating more times per second, resulting in shorter distances between each wave crest. Therefore, as the frequency becomes higher, the wavelength becomes shorter.

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  • 9. 

    The amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time refers to whatmeasure of electromagnetic radiation?

    • A.

      Activity

    • B.

      Frequency

    • C.

      Intensity

    • D.

      Wavelength

    Correct Answer
    C. Intensity
    Explanation
    Intensity refers to the amount of energy flowing through a given area in a certain amount of time. In the context of electromagnetic radiation, intensity measures the strength or power of the radiation. It indicates how much energy is being transmitted through a specific area per unit of time. Therefore, intensity is the correct measure of electromagnetic radiation in this scenario.

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  • 10. 

    What is the real concern due to the potential hazards associated with higher frequencies ofradiofrequency radiation?

    • A.

      Relationship between frequency and Plank’s constant.

    • B.

      Relationship between ionizing and non-ionizing radiation

    • C.

      Relationship between intensity and distance from the source

    • D.

      Relationship between wavelength and the size of body organs

    Correct Answer
    D. Relationship between wavelength and the size of body organs
    Explanation
    The real concern due to the potential hazards associated with higher frequencies of radiofrequency radiation is the relationship between wavelength and the size of body organs. As the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases, and this can lead to increased absorption of radiation by smaller body organs, such as the eyes and testes. This increased absorption can potentially cause damage to these organs and increase the risk of health effects.

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  • 11. 

    A tanning booth is a good example of which type of radiation?

    • A.

      Gamma

    • B.

      Visible

    • C.

      Infrared

    • D.

      Ultraviolet

    Correct Answer
    D. Ultraviolet
    Explanation
    A tanning booth emits ultraviolet radiation, which is a type of electromagnetic radiation. Ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths than visible light and is responsible for causing tanning of the skin. Tanning booths use ultraviolet lamps to produce artificial sunlight, which can lead to the darkening of the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is ultraviolet.

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  • 12. 

    If the wavelength of a radiofrequency radiation (RFR) emission is 20 centimeters (cm), awaveguide designed for it must have one dimension that is at least

    • A.

      5 cm

    • B.

      10cm

    • C.

      20 cm

    • D.

      40 cm

    Correct Answer
    B. 10cm
    Explanation
    A waveguide is a structure that guides electromagnetic waves, such as radiofrequency radiation, along a specific path. In order for the waveguide to effectively guide the RFR emission, it must have a dimension that is at least half of the wavelength. Therefore, if the wavelength of the RFR emission is 20 cm, the waveguide must have a dimension of at least 10 cm to properly guide the radiation.

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  • 13. 

    In what region of the radio frequency radiation (RFR) spectrum doe most radar operate?

    • A.

      Infrared

    • B.

      Microwave

    • C.

      Low frequency

    • D.

      Communications

    Correct Answer
    B. Microwave
    Explanation
    Most radar operates in the microwave region of the radio frequency radiation (RFR) spectrum. Radar systems use radio waves to detect and track objects by emitting short pulses of microwave energy and measuring the time it takes for the signal to bounce back after hitting an object. Microwaves have the necessary properties, such as long wavelength and ability to penetrate certain materials, to be effective in radar applications. They are commonly used in various fields, including aviation, weather monitoring, and military operations, due to their ability to provide accurate and reliable detection and ranging capabilities.

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  • 14. 

    Which is an example of radio frequency radiation (RFR) emitter found on Air Force bases?

    • A.

      Cathode

    • B.

      Scanner

    • C.

      Laser pointer

    • D.

      Electronic countermeasures

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic countermeasures
    Explanation
    Electronic countermeasures are devices used to interfere with or disrupt the communication and radar systems of enemy forces. They emit radio frequency radiation (RFR) in order to jam or deceive the signals of enemy equipment. This makes them an example of RFR emitters commonly found on Air Force bases.

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  • 15. 

    Which radiofrequency radiation (RFR) health effect is the biological effect not associatedwith thermal absorption?

    • A.

      Thermal

    • B.

      Athermal

    • C.

      Indirect

    • D.

      Resonance

    Correct Answer
    B. Athermal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Athermal." Athermal refers to the absence of heat or thermal effects. In the context of radiofrequency radiation (RFR), athermal effects are biological effects that are not associated with the absorption of heat. This means that there are other non-thermal mechanisms through which RFR can affect biological systems. These effects may include changes in cell membrane permeability, alterations in gene expression, or disruption of cellular signaling pathways. Athermal effects are an important area of study in understanding the potential health effects of RFR exposure.

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  • 16. 

    Which is an example of an indirect effect of radiofrequency radiation (RFR)?

    • A.

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) damage

    • B.

      Electronic interference

    • C.

      Energy reflection

    • D.

      Tissue heating

    Correct Answer
    B. Electronic interference
    Explanation
    Electronic interference is an example of an indirect effect of radiofrequency radiation (RFR). When RFR interacts with electronic devices or systems, it can disrupt their normal functioning and cause interference. This interference can lead to errors or malfunctions in electronic equipment, such as radios, televisions, or communication systems. It does not directly affect biological tissues or DNA, cause energy reflection, or result in tissue heating.

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  • 17. 

    Which radiofrequency radiation (RFR) emitter should be the highest priority during theevaluation phase?

    • A.

      Inaccessible

    • B.

      Short duration

    • C.

      Climbing hazard

    • D.

      Ground-level hazard

    Correct Answer
    D. Ground-level hazard
    Explanation
    During the evaluation phase, the highest priority should be given to the ground-level hazard when considering radiofrequency radiation (RFR) emitters. This means that RFR emitters that are located at ground level and pose a potential risk to individuals should be prioritized for assessment and mitigation measures. This could include sources such as antennas or equipment emitting RFR at ground level, which may have a higher likelihood of exposure to people in close proximity.

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  • 18. 

    Which radiofrequency radiation (RFR) emitter should be the second priority during theevaluation phase?

    • A.

      Inaccessible

    • B.

      Short duration

    • C.

      Climbing hazard

    • D.

      Ground-level hazard

    Correct Answer
    C. Climbing hazard
    Explanation
    During the evaluation phase, the second priority should be given to the climbing hazard RFR emitter. This means that after addressing any inaccessible RFR emitter, the next focus should be on the emitter that poses a risk to individuals climbing or working at heights. This could include antennas or equipment mounted on towers, buildings, or other elevated structures. By prioritizing the climbing hazard, potential dangers associated with working at heights can be identified and mitigated effectively.

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  • 19. 

    When evaluating these radiofrequency radiation (RFR) emitters, their repair andmaintenance shops should be a higher priority than routine operations.

    • A.

      Inaccessible

    • B.

      Short duration

    • C.

      Climbing hazard

    • D.

      Ground-level hazard

    Correct Answer
    B. Short duration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Short duration" because the statement suggests that when evaluating RFR emitters, repair and maintenance shops should be given higher priority than routine operations. This implies that the repair and maintenance activities are of shorter duration compared to routine operations.

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  • 20. 

    If you need the radiofrequency radiation (RFR) permissible exposure limit (PEL) for radiation workers that have been trained and understand the hazards of exposure, you should look in the table for which environment?

    • A.

      Shielded

    • B.

      Unshielded

    • C.

      Upper tier

    • D.

      Lower tier

    Correct Answer
    C. Upper tier
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Upper tier." In the context of radiofrequency radiation (RFR) permissible exposure limit (PEL) for radiation workers who are trained and understand the hazards of exposure, the upper tier refers to a higher level of protection and stricter guidelines. Therefore, the table for the upper tier would provide the specific PEL for these workers.

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  • 21. 

    Which radiofrequency radiation (RFR) environment would describe the exposure forcustomers at a golf course near an emitter?

    • A.

      Shielded

    • B.

      Unshielded

    • C.

      Upper tier.

    • D.

      Lower tier

    Correct Answer
    D. Lower tier
    Explanation
    The term "lower tier" suggests that the radiofrequency radiation (RFR) exposure for customers at a golf course near an emitter is relatively low. This could mean that the emitter is located far away from the golf course or that there are physical barriers or shielding in place to reduce the exposure to RFR. Regardless, the answer implies that the RFR environment in this scenario poses minimal risk to customers.

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  • 22. 

    What is the first step in any radio frequency radiation (RFR) hazard distance calculation?

    • A.

      Solve for the antenna

    • B.

      Calculate the wavelength

    • C.

      Determine the average power

    • D.

      Determine the permissible exposure limit (PEL).

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine the average power
    Explanation
    The first step in any radio frequency radiation (RFR) hazard distance calculation is to determine the average power. This is because the average power of the radiation emitted by the antenna is a crucial factor in assessing the potential health hazards and determining the safe distance from the source. Without knowing the average power, it would be impossible to accurately calculate the hazard distance and ensure the safety of individuals exposed to the radiation.

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  • 23. 

    Which kind of system is described with the information below?

    • A.

      Laser

    • B.

      Pulsed wave

    • C.

      Ionizing source

    • D.

      Continuous wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser
    Explanation
    no information was given below... hmmmm

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  • 24. 

    What step must you take after obtaining radio frequency radiation (RFR) meter readings in order to find the real power density?

    • A.

      Compensate for temperature

    • B.

      Multiply by the correction factor

    • C.

      Account for the calibration curve

    • D.

      Calculate the time-weighted average

    Correct Answer
    B. Multiply by the correction factor
    Explanation
    After obtaining radio frequency radiation (RFR) meter readings, the next step to find the real power density is to multiply the readings by the correction factor. This is necessary because the RFR meter readings may not accurately represent the actual power density due to various factors such as device limitations or environmental conditions. By multiplying the readings by the correction factor, we can adjust and obtain a more accurate measurement of the real power density.

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  • 25. 

    Where should you hold the probe while conducting radio frequency radiation (RFR) measurements?

    • A.

      Above your head

    • B.

      Close to your body

    • C.

      In front of your body

    • D.

      To one side of your body

    Correct Answer
    C. In front of your body
    Explanation
    When conducting radio frequency radiation (RFR) measurements, it is recommended to hold the probe in front of your body. This position allows for accurate and reliable measurements of RFR levels. Holding the probe above your head, close to your body, or to one side of your body may introduce obstructions or interference that can affect the accuracy of the measurements. Placing the probe in front of your body ensures that it is in the most optimal position to capture the RFR levels accurately.

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  • 26. 

    Which radio frequency radiation (RFR) control is specifically required for upper tier areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz?

    • A.

      Dummy loads

    • B.

      Wooden fences

    • C.

      Safety interlocks

    • D.

      Electrical safety matting

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrical safety matting
    Explanation
    Electrical safety matting is specifically required for upper tier areas where frequencies are below 30 MHz. This is because electrical safety matting provides insulation and protection against electrical shock, making it essential in areas where radio frequency radiation (RFR) control is needed. It helps to prevent any potential electrical hazards and ensures the safety of individuals working in these areas.

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  • 27. 

    At the onset of a radio frequency radiation (RFR) overexposure investigation, make sure theexposed individual gets a

    • A.

      Complete report

    • B.

      Thorough interview

    • C.

      Record of exposure

    • D.

      Medical evaluation

    Correct Answer
    D. Medical evaluation
    Explanation
    In the context of a radio frequency radiation (RFR) overexposure investigation, it is important to conduct a medical evaluation of the exposed individual. This is necessary to assess their physical condition and determine any potential health effects resulting from the overexposure. A medical evaluation can provide valuable information about the individual's symptoms, medical history, and overall well-being, which can aid in diagnosing and treating any adverse effects caused by RFR overexposure.

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  • 28. 

    You must forward all documentation of radio frequency radiation (RFR) overexposure investigation to the Air Force Institute for Occupational Health (AFIOH) if the exposures may have exceeded

    • A.

      The permissible exposure limit (PEL).

    • B.

      Two times the PEL

    • C.

      Five times the PEL

    • D.

      Ten times the PEL

    Correct Answer
    C. Five times the PEL
    Explanation
    If the exposures to radio frequency radiation (RFR) may have exceeded five times the permissible exposure limit (PEL), all documentation of the overexposure investigation must be forwarded to the Air Force Institute for Occupational Health (AFIOH). This suggests that the AFIOH is responsible for monitoring and investigating cases of RFR overexposure that exceed five times the PEL.

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  • 29. 

    Which laser is capable of causing injury during normal use?

    • A.

      Class 4.

    • B.

      Class 3.

    • C.

      Class 2.

    • D.

      Class 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class 4.
    Explanation
    Class 4 lasers are capable of causing injury during normal use because they have high power levels and can emit laser radiation that is hazardous to the eyes and skin. These lasers can cause burns, permanent eye damage, and in some cases, even ignite flammable materials. Class 3, Class 2, and Class 1 lasers have lower power levels and are considered safer for normal use, with Class 1 being the safest as they do not emit hazardous laser radiation.

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  • 30. 

    What is the most common cause of laser-induced tissue injury?

    • A.

      Thermal

    • B.

      Indirect.

    • C.

      Blindness

    • D.

      Photochemical

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal
    Explanation
    Thermal is the most common cause of laser-induced tissue injury because laser energy can be converted into heat, leading to tissue damage. The high intensity of the laser can cause overheating and burning of the tissues, resulting in thermal injury. This type of injury occurs when the laser energy is absorbed by the tissues, causing the temperature to rise and leading to various degrees of tissue damage.

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  • 31. 

    Which wavelength range damages the cornea by the same photochemical mechanism as sunlight?

    • A.

      Far Ultraviolet (UV).

    • B.

      Far Infrared (IR).

    • C.

      Near UV

    • D.

      Visible

    Correct Answer
    A. Far Ultraviolet (UV).
    Explanation
    Far ultraviolet (UV) radiation damages the cornea by the same photochemical mechanism as sunlight. This wavelength range is known to cause photochemical reactions in the cornea, leading to potential damage and harm. Far infrared (IR), near UV, and visible light do not have the same photochemical effect on the cornea as far UV radiation.

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  • 32. 

    Which is not one of the three primary operational aspects that influence a laser hazard evaluation?

    • A.

      Personnel and/or PAR exposed to laser radiation

    • B.

      Laser system capability to cause injury

    • C.

      Environment in which the laser is used

    • D.

      Nominal Hazard Zone

    Correct Answer
    D. Nominal Hazard Zone
    Explanation
    The nominal hazard zone is actually one of the three primary operational aspects that influence a laser hazard evaluation. It refers to the area where the level of laser radiation exceeds the maximum permissible exposure limits. Therefore, the correct answer is that personnel and/or PAR exposed to laser radiation, laser system capability to cause injury, and environment in which the laser is used are the three primary operational aspects that influence a laser hazard evaluation.

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  • 33. 

    Which laser does not require a laser hazard evaluation?

    • A.

      Class 1.

    • B.

      Class 3B.

    • C.

      Class 4.

    • D.

      Military specific.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class 1.
    Explanation
    Class 1 lasers do not require a laser hazard evaluation because they are considered to be safe for normal use. These lasers are low power and have minimal risk of causing harm to the eyes or skin. They are typically used in consumer products such as DVD players and laser printers. In contrast, Class 3B and Class 4 lasers have higher power levels and can pose a potential hazard to the eyes and skin. Military specific lasers may also have higher power levels and require evaluation due to their potential for use in military operations.

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  • 34. 

    What program does the Air Force use for laser safety assessment and hazard control?

    • A.

      LHAZ

    • B.

      ASIMS

    • C.

      DOEHRS

    • D.

      OEH-MIS

    Correct Answer
    A. LHAZ
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the LHAZ program for laser safety assessment and hazard control.

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  • 35. 

    Maximum permissible exposure limits are initially established by which agencies/individuals?

    • A.

      American National Standards Institute (ANSI).

    • B.

      Laser Institute of America (LIA).

    • C.

      MAJCOM BE and Installation Radiation Safety Officer (RSO).

    • D.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
    Explanation
    The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) is responsible for establishing the maximum permissible exposure limits. ANSI is a non-profit organization that develops and publishes voluntary consensus standards for a wide range of industries and products. In the case of laser safety, ANSI provides guidelines and standards to ensure that exposure to laser radiation is kept within safe limits. These limits are based on scientific research and are regularly updated to reflect advancements in technology and understanding of the potential hazards associated with laser radiation. The ANSI standards are widely recognized and followed by organizations and individuals involved in laser operations and safety.

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  • 36. 

    Maximum permissible exposure limits are based upon exposure duration, output, and exposure conditions and which of the following?

    • A.

      Frequency

    • B.

      Hazard distance

    • C.

      Power density

    • D.

      Wavelength

    Correct Answer
    D. Wavelength
    Explanation
    The maximum permissible exposure limits are determined by considering various factors such as exposure duration, output, and exposure conditions. One crucial factor in determining these limits is the wavelength of the radiation. Different wavelengths of radiation have varying levels of potential harm to human health. Therefore, the maximum permissible exposure limits are established based on the specific wavelength of the radiation being emitted.

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  • 37. 

    For outdoor operations, the nominal hazard zone (NHZ) may be limited somewhat by

    • A.

      Terrain.

    • B.

      Elevation

    • C.

      Temperature.

    • D.

      Barometric pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is terrain. Terrain refers to the physical features of the land, such as hills, valleys, and obstacles, which can affect the spread and intensity of hazards in outdoor operations. For example, a hazard like a chemical spill may be contained or limited by natural barriers like hills or rivers, reducing the extent of the nominal hazard zone (NHZ). Elevation, temperature, and barometric pressure may also have some influence on the NHZ, but they are not as directly related to the physical characteristics of the land as terrain is.

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  • 38. 

    The distance from a laser to a point where the energy of the beam falls below the ocular maximum permissible exposure level is called?

    • A.

      Nominal hazard zone (NHZ).

    • B.

      Upper tier environment (UTE).

    • C.

      Estimated hazard distance (EHD).

    • D.

      Nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD).

    Correct Answer
    D. Nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD)". This term refers to the distance from a laser where the energy of the beam decreases to a level that is considered safe for the eyes. It is important to know the NOHD to ensure that individuals are not exposed to laser radiation above the maximum permissible exposure level, which could cause harm to their eyes. The NOHD is a crucial factor in laser safety calculations and helps determine the appropriate safety measures and precautions that need to be taken when working with lasers.

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  • 39. 

    Which is an example of an administrative control for the use of lasers?

    • A.

      Key controls

    • B.

      Safety training

    • C.

      Viewing windows

    • D.

      Controlling the use of optics

    Correct Answer
    B. Safety training
    Explanation
    Safety training is an example of an administrative control for the use of lasers. Administrative controls are measures that are implemented through policies, procedures, and training to minimize risks and promote safety. Safety training ensures that individuals who work with lasers are educated on the potential hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency protocols. By providing comprehensive safety training, organizations can effectively mitigate the risks associated with laser use and ensure that individuals are equipped with the knowledge and skills to use lasers safely.

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  • 40. 

    Which skin cover fabric provides the best protection against lasers?

    • A.

      Loose

    • B.

      Light colored

    • C.

      Tightly woven

    • D.

      Darkly colored

    Correct Answer
    C. Tightly woven
    Explanation
    Tightly woven fabric provides the best protection against lasers because it has a dense structure that prevents laser beams from penetrating through the fabric. The tightly woven fibers create a barrier that absorbs or reflects the laser light, reducing the risk of burns or injury to the skin. Loose fabric may allow the laser light to pass through, while light colored or darkly colored fabrics do not necessarily offer the same level of protection as the tight weave.

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  • 41. 

    Which delegates authority to the Installation Laser Safety Officer to suspend operations involving the operation of laser or other optical radiation sources that pose a significant health risk to personnel?

    • A.

      Installation Commander (WG/CC).

    • B.

      Medical Group Commander (MDG/CC).

    • C.

      MAJCOM Bioenvironmental Engineer (MAJCOM/SGPB).

    • D.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency, Bioenvironmental Engineering Division (AFMSA/SG3PB).

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Commander (WG/CC).
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander (WG/CC) is the correct answer because they have the authority to delegate the responsibility to the Installation Laser Safety Officer to suspend operations involving lasers or other optical radiation sources that pose a significant health risk to personnel. This ensures that the person in charge of laser safety can take immediate action to protect the well-being of personnel if necessary.

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  • 42. 

    Within how many days of completion of a Laser overexposure investigation does the Installation Laser Safety Officer forward a detailed report to Installation Public Health, BE, Safety, JA, MAJCOM BE, and AFMSA/SG3PB.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    Within 30 days of completing a Laser overexposure investigation, the Installation Laser Safety Officer forwards a detailed report to Installation Public Health, BE, Safety, JA, MAJCOM BE, and AFMSA/SG3PB.

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  • 43. 

    Within what spectral region of the electromagnetic spectrum does ultraviolet radiation fall?

    • A.

      100–400 nanometers

    • B.

      400–700 nanometers

    • C.

      700–1400 nanometers

    • D.

      1400–3000 nanometers

    Correct Answer
    A. 100–400 nanometers
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet radiation falls within the spectral region of 100–400 nanometers in the electromagnetic spectrum. This range is shorter than visible light, which ranges from 400–700 nanometers. Ultraviolet radiation is known for its ability to cause sunburn and skin damage, and is often used in applications such as sterilization and fluorescence.

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  • 44. 

    The ultraviolet rays located in the UV-B range of the electromagnetic spectrum are considered the most destructive form of ultraviolet radiation because they

    • A.

      Have the ability to kill bacteria

    • B.

      Produce a pigment-darkening effect

    • C.

      Are the strongest of the ultraviolet rays

    • D.

      Have enough energy to cause photochemical damage to cellular deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Have enough energy to cause pHotochemical damage to cellular deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet rays in the UV-B range have enough energy to cause photochemical damage to cellular DNA. This means that they can disrupt the structure and function of DNA molecules, leading to mutations and other forms of damage. This makes UV-B rays the most destructive form of ultraviolet radiation, as they have the potential to cause long-term harm to living organisms.

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  • 45. 

    Which is a target organ for ultraviolet radiation?

    • A.

      Ears

    • B.

      Eyes

    • C.

      Lungs

    • D.

      Kidneys

    Correct Answer
    B. Eyes
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause damage to the eyes, making them the target organ for this type of radiation. Exposure to UV radiation can lead to various eye conditions such as cataracts, photokeratitis (sunburn of the eye), and macular degeneration. The eyes are particularly susceptible to UV damage because the cornea and lens are transparent to UV radiation, allowing it to reach the sensitive tissues inside the eye. Therefore, it is important to protect the eyes from UV radiation by wearing sunglasses or using other forms of eye protection when exposed to sunlight or artificial sources of UV radiation.

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  • 46. 

    Which conditions can be attributed to repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin?

    • A.

      Conjunctivitis

    • B.

      Photokeratitis

    • C.

      Flash burn

    • D.

      Erythema

    Correct Answer
    D. Erythema
    Explanation
    Repeated exposure to ultraviolet radiation by the skin can lead to erythema. Erythema refers to the redness or inflammation of the skin caused by dilation of blood vessels. Ultraviolet radiation can damage the skin cells and trigger an inflammatory response, resulting in erythema. This can occur due to prolonged exposure to sunlight or the use of tanning beds without proper protection. Erythema is a common symptom of sunburn and can range from mild redness to severe pain and blistering.

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  • 47. 

    Which options provides the most effective method of controlling overexposure to natural ultraviolet radiation?

    • A.

      Limiting exposure time

    • B.

      Interlocking doors

    • C.

      Blocking filters

    • D.

      Opaque barriers

    Correct Answer
    A. Limiting exposure time
    Explanation
    Limiting exposure time is the most effective method of controlling overexposure to natural ultraviolet radiation. By reducing the amount of time spent in direct sunlight, individuals can minimize their risk of overexposure and the potential health hazards associated with it. This approach allows for a balance between enjoying outdoor activities and protecting oneself from harmful UV radiation. Other options like interlocking doors, blocking filters, and opaque barriers may provide some level of protection, but they are not as effective as simply limiting the time spent in the sun.

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  • 48. 

    Because infrared radiation is detectable as heat, exposures can be a significant contributor towhat condition?

    • A.

      Erythema

    • B.

      Thermal stress

    • C.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    • D.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Thermal stress
    Explanation
    Exposure to infrared radiation can result in thermal stress, as it is detectable as heat. This means that prolonged or excessive exposure to infrared radiation can cause an increase in body temperature, leading to thermal stress.

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  • 49. 

    Which biological effects can be associated with an overexposure to infrared radiation?

    • A.

      Phytosensitivity

    • B.

      Lens yellowing

    • C.

      Corneal burn

    • D.

      Flash burn

    Correct Answer
    C. Corneal burn
    Explanation
    Overexposure to infrared radiation can cause a corneal burn. Infrared radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation that is not visible to the human eye but can still cause damage to the cornea, the clear front surface of the eye. When the cornea is exposed to excessive amounts of infrared radiation, it can lead to a burn, resulting in pain, redness, and potential vision problems. This highlights the importance of protecting the eyes from overexposure to infrared radiation, such as by wearing appropriate eye protection in environments where this type of radiation is present.

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  • 50. 

    Which infrared radiation control options can be associated with the principle of shielding?

    • A.

      Protective clothing

    • B.

      Interlocking doors

    • C.

      Blocking filters

    • D.

      Canopies

    Correct Answer
    A. Protective clothing
    Explanation
    Protective clothing can be associated with the principle of shielding because it acts as a barrier between the wearer and infrared radiation. By wearing protective clothing, individuals can shield themselves from the harmful effects of infrared radiation. This can include clothing made from materials that have high reflectivity or absorption properties for infrared radiation, preventing it from penetrating through to the skin. Thus, protective clothing acts as a shield against infrared radiation, providing a layer of protection for the wearer.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 03, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Stewie
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