CDC 4c051 Volume 4 Pre-test

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  • 1/65 Questions

    What do long-term goals suggest for the patient?

    • A natural exchange of ideas
    • Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
    • Shows they are invested over a period of time
    • Establishes rapport between patient and counselor
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About This Quiz

CDC 4C051

Mental Health Journeyman

Volume 4. Treatment planning, psychotherapeutic interventions, and case management

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    Who is the greatest influences in our lives besides family?

    • Peers

    • Clergy

    • Supervisors

    • Commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Peers
    Explanation
    Peers are the individuals who have a significant impact on our lives besides family. They are our friends, classmates, or colleagues who influence our thoughts, behaviors, and decisions. Peers play a crucial role in shaping our personalities, providing emotional support, and influencing our choices. They can introduce us to new ideas, perspectives, and experiences, helping us grow and develop as individuals. Our interactions with peers can greatly influence our values, beliefs, and overall development, making them one of the greatest influences in our lives.

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  • 3. 

    What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs represents an individual who has reached his or her maximum potential?

    • Self-esteem and love

    • Self-actualization

    • Security needs

    • Affiliation

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-actualization
    Explanation
    Self-actualization represents the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. It refers to the fulfillment of an individual's full potential and the desire to become the best version of oneself. At this level, individuals are motivated by personal growth, self-discovery, and the pursuit of their passions and talents. They have achieved a sense of self-fulfillment and are focused on personal development rather than external validation or material needs.

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  • 4. 

    What action much occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?

    • Create clear boundaries

    • Improve soical fuctioning

    • Implement adaptive defenses

    • Recognize failure to terminate treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Create clear boundaries
    Explanation
    To discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship, it is important to create clear boundaries. This means establishing and maintaining a professional relationship with defined limits and expectations. By setting clear boundaries, both the therapist and the client can understand and respect the professional nature of their relationship, preventing any potential harm or ethical issues that may arise from personal contact or involvement outside the therapeutic setting.

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  • 5. 

    What is one of the most self-deafing beliefs for a beginning counselor

    • We must be perfect

    • We must undertand silence

    • We lose ourselves in our patients

    • We are not honest about our limitations

    Correct Answer
    A. We must be perfect
    Explanation
    The belief that "we must be perfect" is one of the most self-defeating beliefs for a beginning counselor. This belief sets unrealistic expectations and puts unnecessary pressure on the counselor to always have the right answers and solutions. It can lead to feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt, hindering the counselor's ability to effectively help their clients. Recognizing and accepting that perfection is unattainable allows the counselor to focus on continuous learning, growth, and building a genuine connection with their clients.

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  • 6. 

    What is always considered a primary concer when you discuss group participation?

    • Confidentiality

    • Apprehension

    • Anxiety

    • Dread

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality
    Explanation
    When discussing group participation, confidentiality is always considered a primary concern. This means that the information shared within the group should be kept private and not disclosed to others without permission. This is important to create a safe and trusting environment where individuals feel comfortable sharing their thoughts, feelings, and experiences. By ensuring confidentiality, participants can freely express themselves without fear of judgment or negative consequences, allowing for more open and productive discussions.

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  • 7. 

    What do short-term goals provide for the patient?

    • Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment

    • Establishes a natural exchange of ideas

    • Hope invested over a period of time

    • Establishes rapport

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
    Explanation
    Short-term goals provide the patient with acute relief or feelings of accomplishment. These goals are designed to be achieved within a short period of time, allowing the patient to experience immediate relief or a sense of achievement. This can help boost their morale and motivation, providing them with a positive outlook on their progress and overall treatment. By setting and achieving these short-term goals, the patient can experience a sense of relief and accomplishment, which can further enhance their overall well-being and recovery process.

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  • 8. 

    If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this is recognized as a

    • Weakness

    • Strength

    • Failure

    • Risk

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength
    Explanation
    If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this can be recognized as a strength. It shows that the patient has the determination and perseverance to try and find a solution to their problem. Despite facing failure, they have not given up and have shown resilience in their efforts. This attribute can be seen as a positive characteristic and a strength in their personality.

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  • 9. 

    During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

    • Initial intake

    • Relapse planning

    • Establishing goals

    • Crisis completion

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial intake
    Explanation
    Termination or discharge planning begins during the initial intake stage of treatment. This is the first stage where the client's information is gathered, and an assessment is conducted to determine their needs and goals. During this stage, the treatment team starts discussing and planning for the eventual termination or discharge of the client from the program. It involves creating a comprehensive plan that ensures a smooth transition and continued support for the client after they complete the treatment.

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  • 10. 

    Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

    • Patient

    • Counselor

    • Supervisor

    • Patient and counselor

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient and counselor
    Explanation
    The patient and counselor should be devising the treatment plan together because the treatment plan should be a collaborative effort between the patient and the counselor. The patient's input and preferences are crucial in developing a plan that is tailored to their specific needs and goals. Additionally, the counselor's expertise and guidance are essential in ensuring that the treatment plan is evidence-based and effective. By working together, the patient and counselor can create a comprehensive and personalized treatment plan that maximizes the chances of successful outcomes.

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  • 11. 

    What level of Maslow's hierachy of needs is developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others

    • Self-esteem and love

    • Physiological needs

    • Security needs

    • Affiliation

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-esteem and love
    Explanation
    Self-esteem and love are the levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that are developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others. Self-esteem refers to the need for self-worth, self-confidence, and a sense of achievement. It is the need to feel respected and valued by others. Love, on the other hand, refers to the need for affection, belongingness, and acceptance from others. It involves forming meaningful relationships and feeling a sense of belonging in a social group. Both self-esteem and love are higher-level needs that come after fulfilling physiological and security needs.

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  • 12. 

    It is well decumented that treatment outcomes are based upton the patient's

    • Motivation

    • Judgment

    • Support

    • Insight

    Correct Answer
    A. Motivation
    Explanation
    Motivation plays a crucial role in treatment outcomes. A patient's level of motivation can determine their willingness to actively participate in their treatment plan, adhere to medication or therapy, and make necessary lifestyle changes. Motivated patients are more likely to take responsibility for their own health, follow medical advice, and engage in behaviors that promote recovery. On the other hand, lack of motivation can hinder progress and lead to poor treatment outcomes. Therefore, motivation is a key factor that influences the success of any treatment approach.

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  • 13. 

    Reconstructiong a comprehensive detailing of the patient's substance use history helps

    • Terminate ongoing self-care

    • Verify the required support system

    • Predict ongoing self-care outcomes

    • Determine triggers that may lead to a relapse

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine triggers that may lead to a relapse
    Explanation
    By reconstructing a comprehensive detailing of the patient's substance use history, healthcare professionals can determine the triggers that may lead to a relapse. This information is crucial in developing an effective treatment plan and preventing future relapses. Understanding the specific factors or situations that may cause the patient to revert to substance use allows healthcare providers to implement strategies to avoid or cope with these triggers. By identifying and addressing these triggers, the patient's chances of maintaining ongoing self-care and achieving positive outcomes are increased.

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  • 14. 

    As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    A minimum of three strengths and weaknesses should be identified for each patient. This ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's abilities and limitations. Identifying only one strength and weakness may not provide enough information to understand the patient's overall condition, while identifying two may still leave out important aspects. By identifying three strengths and weaknesses, healthcare professionals can have a more holistic understanding of the patient's situation and tailor their treatment and care accordingly.

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  • 15. 

    What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

    • Treatment plan

    • Relapse prevention plan

    • Psychometric examination

    • Goals and objective identification

    Correct Answer
    A. Treatment plan
    Explanation
    A treatment plan is considered the overall management strategy for treating people. It involves creating a comprehensive and individualized plan that outlines the specific interventions, therapies, and goals for the person receiving treatment. The treatment plan is developed based on a thorough assessment of the individual's needs, strengths, and preferences, and it serves as a roadmap for guiding the treatment process and ensuring that the person receives the most effective and appropriate care.

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  • 16. 

    What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?

    • Open-ended

    • Close-ended

    • Psychotherapeutic

    • Psychoeducational

    Correct Answer
    A. Open-ended
    Explanation
    Open-ended groups are designed to allow patients to join and finish at different times. Unlike close-ended groups that have a fixed number of sessions and a specific start and end date, open-ended groups have a more flexible structure. This allows individuals to join the group at any time and leave when they feel ready, without disrupting the continuity of the group process. Open-ended groups are often used in settings where ongoing support and exploration are needed, such as in therapy or support groups.

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  • 17. 

    What is the leading cause of relapse?

    • Loneliness

    • Boredom

    • Stress

    • Peers

    Correct Answer
    A. Boredom
    Explanation
    Boredom can be considered as the leading cause of relapse because when individuals are bored, they may seek out activities or substances that provide temporary relief or excitement. This can include turning to old habits or addictions that they previously relied on to alleviate boredom. Boredom can also lead to feelings of dissatisfaction and restlessness, making individuals more susceptible to relapse. Therefore, addressing and finding healthy ways to cope with boredom is crucial in maintaining long-term recovery.

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  • 18. 

    In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events throught imagery?

    • Relaxtion training

    • Desensitization proper

    • Hierarchy construction

    • Graded participant model

    Correct Answer
    A. Desensitization proper
    Explanation
    Desensitization proper is the stage of behavior therapy where the patient is guided through a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking events, starting from the least anxiety-provoking and gradually progressing to more challenging events. This process is often done using imagery, where the patient visualizes themselves in these situations. The goal is to help the patient gradually overcome their fears and anxieties by exposing them to these events in a controlled and supportive environment. Relaxation training, hierarchy construction, and graded participant model are not specifically related to this stage of behavior therapy.

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  • 19. 

    When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?

    • Bullet

    • Narrative

    • Subjective

    • Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP)
    Explanation
    The overview for staffing is provided in the format of a subjective/objective assessment plan (SOAP). This format allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the case, considering both subjective information (such as patient history and symptoms) and objective data (such as lab results and physical examination findings). By using SOAP, healthcare professionals can present a well-rounded overview that includes all relevant information and facilitates effective decision-making in staffing.

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  • 20. 

    What is considered the very basic of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

    • Self-esteem and love

    • Physiological needs

    • Security needs

    • Affiliation

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological needs
    Explanation
    Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a theory that suggests that individuals have different levels of needs, and these needs must be fulfilled in a specific order. At the very basic level of the hierarchy are physiological needs, which include basic requirements for survival such as food, water, shelter, and sleep. These needs must be met before an individual can progress to higher levels of needs such as safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. Therefore, physiological needs are considered the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

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  • 21. 

    Conflict can be beneficial if used as a tool in group if it is used to do all of the following except

    • Promote self-esteem

    • Encourage a patient to be more self-suffiecient

    • Encourage a patient to use conflict resolution techniques

    • Polarize group members

    Correct Answer
    A. Polarize group members
    Explanation
    Conflict can be beneficial if used as a tool in a group because it promotes self-esteem by allowing individuals to express their opinions and ideas. It encourages a patient to be more self-sufficient by fostering independence and problem-solving skills. It also encourages a patient to use conflict resolution techniques, which helps in resolving conflicts effectively. However, polarizing group members is not a beneficial use of conflict as it creates divisions and hinders collaboration and cooperation within the group.

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  • 22. 

    Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?

    • Contraindication

    • Termination

    • Relapse

    • Benefit

    Correct Answer
    A. Contraindication
    Explanation
    The term "contraindication" refers to a medical condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or intervention inadvisable or potentially harmful. In the context of group participation, an extremely shy patient may be considered a contraindication because their shyness may hinder their ability to actively engage and benefit from group activities. This suggests that group participation may not be suitable or beneficial for this individual due to their extreme shyness.

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  • 23. 

    Who chairs the treatment team (TT) meetings?

    • Alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM)

    • Certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC)

    • Patient's commander

    • Flight surgeon

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM). This individual is responsible for overseeing the treatment team meetings in the alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program. They play a crucial role in coordinating and managing the treatment process for patients with substance abuse issues.

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  • 24. 

    In trategic family theraphy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sende'r self-image?

    • Disqualification

    • Disconfirmation

    • Congruent communication

    • Incongruent communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconfirmation
    Explanation
    Disconfirmation in strategic family therapy refers to the act of denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements in order to protect the sender's self-image. This means that when someone makes a negative comment, disconfirmation involves dismissing or disregarding it, refusing to acknowledge its validity. By doing so, the sender's self-esteem and self-image are protected, as their hurtful or demeaning statements are not given any importance or credibility.

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  • 25. 

    How many visit for evaluation are civilian employees authorized freee of charge at the base substace abuse clinic?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    Civilian employees are authorized one free visit for evaluation at the base substance abuse clinic. This suggests that they are allowed to have one appointment without incurring any charges for the assessment of their substance abuse issues.

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  • 26. 

    Goals should not be

    • Realistic

    • Optimistic

    • Descriptive

    • Behavioral

    Correct Answer
    A. Optimistic
    Explanation
    Goals should not be optimistic because setting overly ambitious or unrealistic goals can lead to disappointment and frustration if they are not achieved. It is important to set goals that are challenging but still attainable, as this provides motivation and a sense of accomplishment when they are accomplished. Being too optimistic can also lead to complacency and a lack of effort, as individuals may believe that success will come easily without putting in the necessary work. Therefore, it is recommended to set goals that are realistic and achievable.

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  • 27. 

    What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?

    • Denying the problem exists

    • Sharing hir or her emotions with others

    • Employing soung insight and judgement

    • Distracting hir or her attention from the problem

    Correct Answer
    A. Employing soung insight and judgement
    Explanation
    Employing sound insight and judgment is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity. This means that the patient needs to have a clear understanding of the situation and be able to make wise decisions based on that understanding. By using their insight, they can assess the problem accurately and make informed choices. Sound judgment allows them to evaluate the available options and select the most suitable one. This combination of insight and judgment enables the patient to navigate through challenging situations effectively.

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  • 28. 

    Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his or her feelings regarding morality, responsiblity, and accountability?

    • Reality therapy

    • Gestalt therapy

    • Behavior therapy

    • Trasactional analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reality therapy
    Explanation
    Reality therapy is a therapeutic approach that focuses on the present moment and encourages individuals to take responsibility for their actions and choices. It emphasizes the importance of personal accountability and moral values. In reality therapy, the therapist takes an active role by challenging the client's thoughts and behaviors and may disclose their own feelings and perspectives to promote self-awareness and growth. This approach aims to help individuals make more effective choices and take control of their lives.

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  • 29. 

    What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?

    • Lame

    • Phony

    • Phobic

    • Impasse

    Correct Answer
    A. Lame
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "lame". In Gestalt therapy, the five layers of neurosis are phony, phobic, impasse, implosive, and explosive. "Lame" is not one of these layers and therefore is not considered one of the layers of neurosis in Gestalt therapy.

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  • 30. 

    How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?

    • 6 to 8

    • 8 to 10

    • 10 to 12

    • 12 to 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 to 10
    Explanation
    One facilitator can effectively manage a group of 8 to 10 participants. This number allows the facilitator to provide individual attention and support to each participant while also ensuring that the group dynamics are balanced and manageable. With fewer than 8 participants, there may not be enough diversity and interaction within the group. On the other hand, if the group exceeds 10 participants, it may become challenging for the facilitator to give sufficient attention to each individual and maintain control over the group discussions and activities. Therefore, 8 to 10 participants is considered an optimal range for effective facilitation.

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  • 31. 

    Which group usually is structued in narute and time-liimited for a specific number of sessions, and typically has a closed membership?

    • Psychotherapeutic

    • Educational

    • Support

    • Social

    Correct Answer
    A. Educational
    Explanation
    An educational group is usually structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions. It typically has a closed membership, meaning that the group is composed of individuals who are specifically selected or invited to participate. This type of group is focused on providing education, information, and skill-building in a specific area or topic.

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  • 32. 

    During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subside?

    • Conflict and controversy

    • Working and cohesion

    • Termination

    • Initiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Working and cohesion
    Explanation
    The "birthing" process of merging personalities subsides during the working and cohesion stage of group development. This stage is characterized by increased cooperation, unity, and productivity among group members. By this stage, conflicts and controversies have been resolved, and the group has established a sense of trust and shared goals. The focus is now on effectively working together and maintaining the group's cohesiveness to achieve their objectives.

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  • 33. 

    Whihc fo the following agaencies did the AF join forces wiht to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for section of personnel who sreve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?

    • Internation certification reciprocity consortium/ alcohol and orthr drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA)

    • Air force substance abuse counselor cerfification borad (AF SACCB)

    • Alcohola nd drug abuse prevent and treatment (ADAPT)

    • Air force medical support agency (AFMSA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Internation certification reciprocity consortium/ alcohol and orthr drugs of abuse (ICRC/AODA)
    Explanation
    The AF joined forces with the International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and Other Drugs of Abuse (ICRC/AODA) to conform to the DOD directive. This partnership was established to establish standardized criteria for the selection of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors.

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  • 34. 

    The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the

    • Monopolist

    • Silent patient

    • Schizoid patient

    • Passive-aggressive patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Schizoid patient
    Explanation
    The schizoid patient is likely to become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group because they tend to be withdrawn, detached, and disinterested in social interactions. This makes them an easy target for manipulation and bullying by the aggressive narcissist, who may see their passive nature as an opportunity to assert dominance and control. The schizoid patient's lack of assertiveness and preference for solitude may make it difficult for them to defend themselves against the aggressive narcissist's tactics.

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  • 35. 

    Eavey goal mush have at least how many objectives?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Every goal must have at least one objective. Objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound targets that help to achieve the overall goal. Without objectives, a goal lacks clarity and direction, making it difficult to determine progress or success. Therefore, it is essential for every goal to have at least one objective.

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  • 36. 

    What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characteized by the need for frinedship, love, and a sense of belonging?

    • Self-esteem and love

    • Physiological needs

    • Security needs

    • Affiliation

    Correct Answer
    A. Affiliation
    Explanation
    Affiliation refers to the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging, which is a characteristic of the level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. This level focuses on social connections and relationships, highlighting the importance of feeling connected to others and being a part of a community. It encompasses the need to form meaningful relationships and have a sense of belongingness, which contributes to one's overall well-being and satisfaction.

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  • 37. 

    During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively beigin goal setting

    • Intitial disclosure

    • Termination of care

    • In-depth exploriation

    • Commitment to action

    Correct Answer
    A. In-depth exploriation
    Explanation
    During the in-depth exploration stage, the patient will gain a deeper understanding of their primary problem by delving into its underlying causes and exploring it from various angles. This stage allows the patient to gain insight and clarity, which is essential for effective goal setting. It involves thorough examination and analysis of the issue at hand, enabling the patient to identify patterns, triggers, and potential solutions. This stage is crucial in the therapeutic process as it sets the foundation for the subsequent commitment to action and ultimately leads to positive change and growth.

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  • 38. 

    What is not one of the core compnents of ase management?

    • Peer support

    • Family support

    • Recreational support

    • Crisis response services

    Correct Answer
    A. Recreational support
    Explanation
    Recreational support is not one of the core components of case management. Case management typically focuses on providing peer support, family support, and crisis response services to individuals. Recreational support, on the other hand, is not considered a fundamental aspect of case management and may not be included in the core services provided.

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  • 39. 

    Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient?

    • Clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill

    • Ability to cope with adversity, both personal and eveironmental

    • Personal barries (i.e., poor self image or self-deafing attitudes)

    • Relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives

    Correct Answer
    A. Relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships in their lives." This is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient. The other options, clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill, ability to cope with adversity, both personal and environmental, and personal barriers (i.e., poor self-image or self-defeating attitudes), are all areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship.

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  • 40. 

    During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in group?

    • Conflic and controversy

    • Initiation

    • Termination

    • Beginning

    Correct Answer
    A. Beginning
    Explanation
    Establishing the basic ground rules for participation in a group should be done at the beginning stage of the group process. This is because it sets the foundation for how the group will function and ensures that all members are aware of and agree to the expectations and guidelines for participation. By establishing these ground rules early on, it helps to create a positive and productive group dynamic, promotes effective communication, and minimizes potential conflicts and misunderstandings later in the group process.

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  • 41. 

    What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues

    • Removing members from group

    • Addings members to group

    • Absenteeism

    • Drop-outs

    Correct Answer
    A. Drop-outs
    Explanation
    As a group continues for a longer period of time, it is common for some members to drop out. This could be due to various reasons such as lack of interest, conflicts within the group, or personal commitments. Drop-outs can disrupt the dynamics of the group and impact its overall effectiveness. It is important for the group to address any issues that may lead to drop-outs and create a supportive and inclusive environment to minimize this problem.

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  • 42. 

    How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain cerification during each three-year cerfication?

    • 30

    • 40

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    To retain certification during each three-year certification period, 60 continuing education units (CEUs) are required. This means that individuals must complete 60 hours of approved educational activities or courses within the three-year period to maintain their certification. It is important to continuously update and enhance one's knowledge and skills in order to stay current in the field and provide quality services.

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  • 43. 

    In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encourged to take control of his or her internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses?

    • Relaxation training

    • Desensitization proper

    • Hierarchy construction

    • Graded participant model

    Correct Answer
    A. Relaxation training
    Explanation
    In relaxation training, the patient is encouraged to take control of their internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses. This stage of behavior therapy focuses on teaching the patient various relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and meditation, to help them manage and reduce their anxiety. By learning and practicing these techniques, the patient gains the ability to control their physiological responses and effectively reduce anxiety when faced with anxiety-provoking situations.

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  • 44. 

    Which one of the 12 core functions is described as relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the client?

    • Referral

    • Consultaion

    • Client education

    • Case management

    Correct Answer
    A. Consultaion
    Explanation
    Consultation is the correct answer because it involves the process of seeking advice or guidance from in-house staff or outside professionals to ensure that the client receives comprehensive and quality care. This core function allows for collaboration and communication between different professionals involved in the client's care to provide the best possible treatment and support.

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  • 45. 

    Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?

    • Affective

    • Cognitive

    • Relational

    • Behavioral

    Correct Answer
    A. Relational
    Explanation
    The relational determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic. This is because relationships play a crucial role in an individual's recovery process. Relational factors can include conflicts, lack of support, or unhealthy dynamics within relationships, which can significantly impact a person's ability to maintain their recovery and increase the risk of relapse. Addressing and improving relational issues can be challenging, as it often involves working on communication skills, boundary setting, and fostering healthy connections with others.

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  • 46. 

    What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?

    • Attrition

    • Absenteeism

    • Noncompliance

    • Inadequate progress

    Correct Answer
    A. Absenteeism
    Explanation
    Absence from treatment sessions, or absenteeism, is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan. While attrition, noncompliance, and inadequate progress are all potential problems that may arise during treatment and should be addressed in the plan, absenteeism refers to a different issue altogether. Absenteeism refers to the act of being absent or not attending treatment sessions, which is not mentioned as a potential problem to be addressed in the given options.

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  • 47. 

    What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?

    • Emotional intelligence

    • Intelligence quotient

    • Affective quotient

    • Common sense

    Correct Answer
    A. Emotional intelligence
    Explanation
    Emotional intelligence refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual. It involves the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the ability to recognize and understand the emotions of others. This includes skills such as empathy, self-awareness, and emotional regulation. Emotional intelligence plays a crucial role in interpersonal relationships, decision-making, and overall well-being.

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  • 48. 

    Which cognitive distortion is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities (everything is either all good or all bad)?

    • Perfectionism

    • Catastrophizing

    • Overgeneralizaiton

    • Dichotomous thinking

    Correct Answer
    A. Dichotomous thinking
    Explanation
    Dichotomous thinking is the cognitive distortion that is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities, where everything is either all good or all bad. This type of thinking does not allow for any shades of gray or middle ground, leading to a rigid and black-and-white perspective. People who engage in dichotomous thinking often struggle with seeing the complexity and nuances in situations, which can lead to distorted perceptions and judgments.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initail procedures for admission to a program?

    • Screening

    • Intake

    • Orientation

    • Reports and record keeping

    Correct Answer
    A. Intake
    Explanation
    Intake is the correct answer because it refers to the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program. This includes gathering necessary information from the client, conducting assessments, and determining eligibility for services. Intake is an important step in the treatment process as it helps in determining the appropriate level of care and developing an individualized treatment plan.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 20, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rubiom
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