CDC Study Guide: Volume 1

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CDC Study Guide: Volume 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?

    • A.

      Military Aviation Companies.

    • B.

      Air Provost Marshal.

    • C.

      Military Police Guard Companies

    • D.

      Air Police Companies

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Provost Marshal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Provost Marshal. In 1943, the War Department underwent a reorganization, which led to the establishment of the Air Provost Marshal office. This office was responsible for overseeing military aviation companies and ensuring the enforcement of military police and security measures within the air force.

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  • 2. 

    After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as which defense school?

    • A.

      Army Air Force.

    • B.

      Provost Marshal.

    • C.

      Air Police.

    • D.

      Air Base.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Base.
    Explanation
    After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as "Air Base." This suggests that the school was transformed into an Air Base, indicating a change in its purpose and function.

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  • 3. 

    On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

    • A.

      Air Police school.

    • B.

      Air Leaders school.

    • C.

      Corp training office.

    • D.

      Base Defense academy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Police school.
    Explanation
    On 1 September 1950, the Air Police school was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This organization was responsible for training and educating individuals in the field of air policing and base defense. It played a crucial role in maintaining the security and safety of military installations and personnel.

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  • 4. 

    What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War?

    • A.

      Commanders relocated them to provide logistics support the naval forces.

    • B.

      They were suddenly overrun by the enemy.

    • C.

      Air base personnel merged with and assisted troops on the front lines.

    • D.

      Nothing, because they were too far from the front lines to assist.

    Correct Answer
    B. They were suddenly overrun by the enemy.
    Explanation
    During the Korean War, the air bases located in the forward areas were suddenly overrun by the enemy. This suggests that the enemy forces were able to successfully breach the defenses and gain control of the air bases, resulting in their capture. This would have had significant implications for the operations and capabilities of the allied forces, as the loss of these air bases would have hindered their ability to provide air support and conduct aerial operations in the forward areas.

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  • 5. 

    When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?

    • A.

      Jan 1985.

    • B.

      Jan 1986.

    • C.

      Feb 1987.

    • D.

      Dec 1989.

    Correct Answer
    A. Jan 1985.
    Explanation
    The ban on women entering the security field was lifted in January 1985.

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  • 6. 

    In Oct 1997, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that

    • A.

      Was renamed Security Police units.

    • B.

      Was reorganized under services support.

    • C.

      Received increased funding for deployments.

    • D.

      Was redesignated Security Forces.

    Correct Answer
    D. Was redesignated Security Forces.
    Explanation
    In October 1997, the different career fields of security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance merged into one career field. This new career field was then given a new name, which was Security Forces.

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  • 7. 

    Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?

    • A.

      Enduring Freedom.

    • B.

      Ensuring Freedom.

    • C.

      Noble Eagle.

    • D.

      Iraqi Freedom.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enduring Freedom.
    Explanation
    In December 2001, the operation launched against the Taliban was called "Enduring Freedom." This military operation was led by the United States, with the goal of removing the Taliban regime from power in Afghanistan and dismantling Al-Qaeda. The operation aimed to disrupt terrorist networks and promote stability in the region.

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  • 8. 

    You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when

    • A.

      You are wearing your mess dress only.

    • B.

      Authorized by the wing commander.

    • C.

      Directed by the Chief, Security Forces.

    • D.

      Doing so enhances the career field image.

    Correct Answer
    D. Doing so enhances the career field image.
    Explanation
    Displaying the Security Forces emblem and shield together enhances the career field image. This suggests that wearing the emblem and shield together is seen as a symbol of pride and professionalism within the Security Forces career field. It implies that individuals who wear their mess dress with the emblem and shield are showcasing their commitment and dedication to their role in the Security Forces, which in turn enhances the overall reputation and perception of the career field.

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  • 9. 

    Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?

    • A.

      Eagle over crossed runways.

    • B.

      Falcon over crossed swords.

    • C.

      Falcon over crossed runways.

    • D.

      Eagle over crossed M–16A2s.

    Correct Answer
    C. Falcon over crossed runways.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol represents our Security Forces, as it combines the image of a falcon, which symbolizes speed, agility, and keen eyesight, with crossed runways, which symbolize the airfield and the importance of protecting it. This symbol reflects the core values and mission of our Security Forces, who are responsible for the security and defense of our airfields and installations.

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  • 10. 

    In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?

    • A.

      1943

    • B.

      1945

    • C.

      1950

    • D.

      1957

    Correct Answer
    D. 1957
    Explanation
    The first trial issue of the shield was approved in 1957.

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  • 11. 

    Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because

    • A.

      Other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations.

    • B.

      Without these items, they could be misunderstood for enemy personnel during time of war.

    • C.

      Hey work in adverse weather conditions and these uniform items keep them warm and dry.

    • D.

      They work with weapons.

    Correct Answer
    A. Other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations.
    Explanation
    Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations. This is important for maintaining effective communication and coordination during emergencies, as well as preventing friendly fire incidents. By wearing these distinguishing uniform items, SF members can be easily recognized and differentiated from enemy personnel, ensuring the safety and security of all personnel involved.

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  • 12. 

    As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces (SF) personnel wear a beret with a Defensor Fortis flash, which

    • A.

      Identifies us to foreign forces as Security personnel.

    • B.

      Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression.

    • C.

      Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

    • D.

      Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide." This explanation is supported by the statement in the passage that the beret with the Defensor Fortis flash is part of a distinctive uniform for Security Forces personnel. This indicates that the beret serves as a visual identifier for SF personnel, highlighting their status as an elite group responsible for protecting the Air Force globally.

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  • 13. 

    The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and

    • A.

      Tilted slightly to the rear.

    • B.

      1 inch above the eyebrows.

    • C.

      1 inch above the tip of the nose.

    • D.

      1–1/2 inches above the eyebrows.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 inch above the eyebrows.
    Explanation
    The beret is properly worn when it is positioned 1 inch above the eyebrows. This allows the beret to sit comfortably on the head without obstructing the wearer's vision. Additionally, positioning the beret 1 inch above the eyebrows gives it a stylish and balanced appearance.

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  • 14. 

    What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course?

    • A.

      7CO31M.

    • B.

      3PO31B

    • C.

      3PO31A.

    • D.

      3MWDX1

    Correct Answer
    C. 3PO31A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3PO31A. This Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course.

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  • 15. 

    What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code 3PO51?

    • A.

      Security Forces (SF) leaders’ course.

    • B.

      SF Journeyman career development course.

    • C.

      Course.

    • D.

      Law Enforcement 101 through the Community College of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    B. SF Journeyman career development course.
    Explanation
    The SF Journeyman career development course is mandatory for the award of the Air Force specialty code 3PO51. This course is specifically designed for Security Forces (SF) personnel and focuses on developing their skills and knowledge in their career field. It is a comprehensive course that covers various aspects of SF duties and responsibilities, including law enforcement, base defense, and force protection. By completing this course, individuals demonstrate their readiness and competence to serve as SF Journeyman and contribute effectively to the Air Force's security mission.

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  • 16. 

    You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to

    • A.

      Testing for your career development courses.

    • B.

      Assuming the rank of staff sergeant

    • C.

      Receiving the award of the 5-skill level.

    • D.

      Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System testing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Assuming the rank of staff sergeant
    Explanation
    Completing Airman Leadership School is a requirement before assuming the rank of staff sergeant. This means that in order to be promoted to the rank of staff sergeant, one must have successfully completed Airman Leadership School.

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  • 17. 

    The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during

    • A.

      Contingency operations

    • B.

      Peacekeeping operations

    • C.

      War and as a prisoner of war

    • D.

      Military operations other than war.

    Correct Answer
    C. War and as a prisoner of war
    Explanation
    The Code of Conduct serves as a guide for actions during war and as a prisoner of war. It outlines the ethical principles and standards that military personnel must adhere to in these situations. It provides guidelines on how to conduct oneself, maintain integrity, and uphold the rights of others even in the most challenging circumstances. This code ensures that military operations are carried out with professionalism, respect for human rights, and adherence to international laws and treaties. It also aims to protect the well-being and dignity of prisoners of war, ensuring they are treated fairly and humanely.

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  • 18. 

    Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, “I will never surrender of my own free will.”

    • A.

      II

    • B.

      IV

    • C.

      VI

    • D.

      Artciles of War

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Article II of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender of my own free will." This article emphasizes the importance of resilience and determination in the face of adversity. It highlights the commitment of individuals to uphold their duty and not give up, even in the most challenging circumstances. By including this statement in the Code of Conduct, it reinforces the values of courage and perseverance that are expected from military personnel.

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  • 19. 

    Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape when captured?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      General Order 10

    • D.

      Principles of COnduct

    Correct Answer
    B. III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is III. General Order 10. This article of the Code of Conduct pertains to the behavior and actions of individuals who are captured or become prisoners of war. It states that prisoners of war must resist any attempts by the enemy to obtain information or cooperation, and they are expected to make every effort to escape and aid others in their escape. Therefore, continuously attempting to escape when captured aligns with the principles outlined in General Order 10.

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  • 20. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with

    • A.

      AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • B.

      AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • C.

      AFI 31–207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    • D.

      AFI 31–301, Air Base Defense

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 31–207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 31–207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–207 specifically addresses the guidelines and regulations for arming and the use of force by Air Force personnel. It provides the necessary guidance for conducting apprehensions of suspects, ensuring that the actions taken are in accordance with the correct procedures and protocols.

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  • 21. 

    Which section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office?

    • A.

      Chief, Security Forces

    • B.

      S1 Admin

    • C.

      S4S Supply

    • D.

      S4V Vehicles

    Correct Answer
    C. S4S Supply
    Explanation
    The S4S Supply section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and logistics between these different entities, ensuring that all necessary supplies, materials, and equipment are obtained and distributed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 22. 

    When providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Bi-monthly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      As necessary

    Correct Answer
    D. As necessary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "as necessary" because the frequency of testing the alarm systems for missile field security depends on various factors such as the specific security system in use, the level of threat, and any recent incidents or changes in the security protocols. Testing the alarm systems as necessary ensures that they are regularly evaluated and maintained to ensure their operational capabilities, without being bound to a fixed schedule that may not align with the actual security needs.

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  • 23. 

    When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as

    • A.

      An exclusion area

    • B.

      A launch facility flight

    • C.

      A limited area

    • D.

      A missile alert facility

    Correct Answer
    C. A limited area
    Explanation
    When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as "a limited area." This means that access to the LF is restricted and only authorized personnel are allowed to enter. The designation of a limited area helps ensure the security and safety of the LF and its operations.

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  • 24. 

    The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as

    • A.

      Military presence

    • B.

      Military jursdiction

    • C.

      Legal precedence

    • D.

      Military law

    Correct Answer
    B. Military jursdiction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is military jurisdiction. Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own. It allows the military to enforce discipline and maintain order within their ranks, including the ability to investigate and prosecute offenses committed by military personnel. This concept is essential for maintaining the effectiveness and integrity of the military justice system.

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  • 25. 

    Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress, and these laws are contained in the

    • A.

      US Constitution.

    • B.

      Us code

    • C.

      Status of Forces Agreements.

    • D.

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    Correct Answer
    B. Us code
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "us code". The US Code is a compilation of all federal laws passed by Congress. It is organized into titles and sections, making it easy to locate specific laws. The US Code is a primary source of federal statutory law and serves as a reference for legal professionals and the general public. It is regularly updated to include new laws and amendments.

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  • 26. 

    Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

    • A.

      Law of Armed Conflict

    • B.

      MCM

    • C.

      Status of Force Agreements

    • D.

      Rules of war

    Correct Answer
    A. Law of Armed Conflict
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Law of Armed Conflict. The Hague and Geneva conventions were international treaties that established rules and regulations for the conduct of armed conflicts. These conventions aimed to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities, and to restrict the means and methods of warfare. The Law of Armed Conflict encompasses these conventions and provides a framework for the ethical and legal conduct of warfare. It ensures that parties involved in armed conflicts adhere to principles such as distinction, proportionality, and military necessity.

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  • 27. 

    Military jurisdiction stems from

    • A.

      International laws

    • B.

      Legal sources

    • C.

      Senate proclamation

    • D.

      MCM

    Correct Answer
    A. International laws
    Explanation
    Military jurisdiction stems from international laws because these laws provide the framework and guidelines for the conduct of armed forces in relation to their jurisdiction and legal authority. International laws, such as the Geneva Conventions and the United Nations Charter, establish the rights and responsibilities of states and individuals during armed conflicts. They outline the rules of engagement, the treatment of prisoners of war, and other important aspects of military operations. Therefore, military jurisdiction is derived from these international laws to ensure that military personnel operate within the boundaries of legal and ethical standards.

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  • 28. 

    Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

    • A.

      77

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
    Explanation
    Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article outlines the categories of individuals who fall under military jurisdiction, including members of the armed forces, prisoners of war, and individuals accompanying the armed forces in a time of war. It also covers military retirees and individuals who are otherwise subject to military law. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 29. 

    Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ

    • A.

      Applies everywhere

    • B.

      Does not apply on ships

    • C.

      Is the sole legal military authority

    • D.

      Applies to civilians who commit crimes on base

    Correct Answer
    A. Applies everywhere
    Explanation
    Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ applies everywhere. This means that the provisions and regulations outlined in the UCMJ are applicable to all members of the military, regardless of their location or circumstances. Whether on a military base, in a combat zone, or even on a ship, the UCMJ governs the behavior and conduct of military personnel. It ensures that military members are subject to a consistent set of rules and regulations, regardless of their physical location.

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  • 30. 

    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person

    • A.

      Must be tried overseas

    • B.

      Is not subject to UCMJ

    • C.

      Can be tried in the US and vice versa

    • D.

      May choose to be court martialed by a civilian authority

    Correct Answer
    C. Can be tried in the US and vice versa
    Explanation
    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried in the US and vice versa. This means that regardless of where the offense takes place, the person can be held accountable under the military justice system of their own country. This allows for jurisdiction and legal proceedings to be carried out even when the offense occurs outside the home country.

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  • 31. 

    The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are

    • A.

      1-5

    • B.

      2 and 5

    • C.

      6-76

    • D.

      77-134

    Correct Answer
    D. 77-134
    Explanation
    The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are listed from 77 to 134. These articles outline the various offenses and crimes that can be committed by military personnel, as well as the corresponding punishments for each offense. They cover a wide range of offenses including insubordination, desertion, assault, theft, and more. The articles provide a comprehensive guide for maintaining discipline and order within the military, ensuring that all members are held accountable for their actions.

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  • 32. 

    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

    • A.

      Concurrent, current, proprietary

    • B.

      partial, exclusive, bilateral, concurrent

    • C.

      Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary

    • D.

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral

    Correct Answer
    C. Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary. These types of jurisdiction refer to the different levels of authority that the US government has over its installations. Exclusive jurisdiction means that the US government has complete control and authority over the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the US government and the local government share authority. Partial jurisdiction means that the US government has limited authority over certain aspects of the installation. Proprietary jurisdiction refers to the control and authority that the US government has over its own property.

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  • 33. 

    The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations

    • A.

      When the government has exclusive jurisdiction

    • B.

      When partial jurisdiction exists.

    • C.

      Under proprietary jurisdiction.

    • D.

      Located in overseas areas

    Correct Answer
    A. When the government has exclusive jurisdiction
    Explanation
    When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that it has complete control and authority over a particular area or installation. This means that the federal government has the sole power to enforce laws and regulations within that jurisdiction, without any interference from state or local governments. In such cases, the federal government has the ultimate responsibility for maintaining law and order, ensuring security, and enforcing the law on installations or areas under its exclusive jurisdiction.

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  • 34. 

    Under concurrent jurisdiction,

    • A.

      State laws are not enforced

    • B.

      The state has property rights only

    • C.

      The federal govt has no authority

    • D.

      Both the state and federal govt have authority

    Correct Answer
    D. Both the state and federal govt have authority
    Explanation
    Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal governments have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and regulate certain areas. In cases where there is concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal laws can be enforced and individuals can be subject to prosecution by both levels of government. This allows for a sharing of power and responsibilities between the state and federal governments in order to ensure effective governance.

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  • 35. 

    As a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

    • A.

      Proprietary govt

    • B.

      Military govt

    • C.

      Nationalist regime

    • D.

      Military state

    Correct Answer
    B. Military govt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is military govt. This form of administration refers to a situation where an occupying power has complete control over all aspects of governance in an occupied territory, including the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. It implies that the military is in charge of running the government and making decisions on behalf of the occupied population.

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  • 36. 

    Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

    • A.

      Navy

    • B.

      Air Force

    • C.

      Army

    • D.

      Coast Guard

    Correct Answer
    C. Army
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government lies with the Army. This branch of the military is typically tasked with maintaining order, enforcing laws, and providing essential services in areas under military control. The Army's training and expertise in ground operations make them well-suited for the challenges of governing and maintaining stability in these situations.

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  • 37. 

    During qualified martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to

    • A.

      Enforce civilian laws

    • B.

      Apprehend civilians

    • C.

      Detain civilians, not apprehend

    • D.

      Apply military law to civilians

    Correct Answer
    C. Detain civilians, not apprehend
    Explanation
    During qualified martial law, Security Forces members are granted the authority to detain civilians, but not to apprehend them. This means that they have the power to temporarily hold individuals in custody, but they do not have the authority to actively capture or arrest civilians. The distinction between detention and apprehension is important, as it limits the scope of the Security Forces' actions and ensures that they do not overstep their boundaries during martial law.

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  • 38. 

    Which Article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      92

    • D.

      77-134

    Correct Answer
    C. 92
    Explanation
    Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person subject to the UCMJ who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, Article 92 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the authority of Security Forces members to issue lawful orders.

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  • 39. 

     In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to

    • A.

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off-base

    • B.

      Apprehend civilians for on-base offenses

    • C.

      Release military offenders to supervisors

    • D.

      Detain civilians for on-base offenses

    Correct Answer
    D. Detain civilians for on-base offenses
    Explanation
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code grants authorization to Security Forces to detain civilians for on-base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense within a military base, the Security Forces have the legal authority to hold and detain them until proper legal action can be taken. This is done to maintain law and order within the military base and ensure that offenders are held accountable for their actions.

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  • 40. 

     Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?

    • A.

      Right to bear arms

    • B.

      Title 10, us code

    • C.

      Self defense right

    • D.

      Citizens right of arrest

    Correct Answer
    D. Citizens right of arrest
    Explanation
    The correct answer is citizens right of arrest. This right allows individuals to arrest someone who is committing a crime in their presence, specifically a crime that amounts to a breach of the peace. This right empowers citizens to take immediate action to prevent further harm or disturbance and ensures the preservation of public order and safety.

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  • 41. 

     What is a posse comitatis?

    • A.

      A division of the sheriff’s office where the personnel enforced local town laws

    • B.

      A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals

    • C.

      An additional duty for Army troops.

    • D.

      A band of US Marshals who gathered together to find criminals

    Correct Answer
    B. A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals
    Explanation
    A posse comitatis is a summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals. This practice originated in medieval England and was later adopted in the United States. It allows the sheriff to gather a group of citizens to assist in maintaining law and order when necessary. The posse comitatis is an important tool for law enforcement agencies to ensure public safety and apprehend criminals effectively.

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  • 42. 

    The military working dog’s greatest advantage to Security Forces is their

    • A.

      Keen sight and ability to track individuals.

    • B.

      Presence deters airborne insertion of enemy troops

    • C.

      Ability to deter aggressive acts against entry controllers

    • D.

      Superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility

    Correct Answer
    D. Superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility
    Explanation
    The military working dog's superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility, is their greatest advantage to Security Forces. This means that the dogs have a heightened sense of smell and hearing, allowing them to locate and identify individuals even when visibility is low. This is especially useful in situations where the enemy may try to hide or move stealthily, as the dogs can effectively track and locate them. Their superior detection ability makes them an invaluable asset to Security Forces in ensuring the safety and security of their surroundings.

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  • 43. 

    Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must

    • A.

      Search occupied buildings only

    • B.

      Bite and hold multiple suspects only

    • C.

      Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D.

      Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

    Correct Answer
    D. Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building
    Explanation
    Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This is because in these situations, the dogs need to have the freedom to move quickly and effectively without being restricted by a leash. By allowing them to be off-leash in these specific scenarios, the dogs can better fulfill their duties of apprehending suspects or searching for potential threats in unoccupied buildings.

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  • 44. 

     Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must

    • A.

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

    • B.

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C.

      Place the military working dog on a long leash

    • D.

      Have the dog bark three times

    Correct Answer
    A. Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog
    Explanation
    Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, it alerts any individuals inside the building that a dog will be released and they should take appropriate precautions. Secondly, it helps to ensure the safety of the dog itself, as it gives the dog a clear signal that it is about to be released and can prepare for the search. Lastly, it helps to maintain control over the situation, as the handler can communicate their intentions and maintain authority over the dog during the search.

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  • 45. 

    What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?

    • A.

      Sit n stay

    • B.

      Out n sit

    • C.

      Out n heel

    • D.

      Bite n off

    Correct Answer
    C. Out n heel
    Explanation
    The military working dog must obey the commands "out" and "heel" prior to being assigned to operational duties. The command "out" is used to make the dog release an object or let go of a person, while the command "heel" is used to make the dog walk closely next to the handler's side. These commands are important for ensuring control and discipline over the dog during operations.

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  • 46. 

    Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit’s

    • A.

      Security and air base defense

    • B.

      Air base defense VIP security

    • C.

      Law enforcement and air base defense

    • D.

      Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations
    Explanation
    Military working dog teams are highly versatile and can be utilized in various roles within a unit's operations. This includes law enforcement, where they can assist in apprehending suspects and detecting contraband. They are also valuable in providing security, as their keen senses and training make them excellent at detecting threats and providing early warning. Additionally, they can be deployed in contingency operations, such as search and rescue missions or disaster response, where their tracking and detection abilities can be crucial. Therefore, the correct answer is law enforcement, security, and contingency operations.

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  • 47. 

    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

    • A.

      Psychological deterrent

    • B.

      Mobile flightline force multiplier

    • C.

      Base defense detection capability

    • D.

      Replacement for base sensor systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide a psychological deterrent. This means that the presence of these dog teams can deter potential criminals or threats due to the fear or intimidation factor associated with trained dogs. The dogs' presence and their ability to detect and apprehend suspects can create a sense of fear and hesitation, discouraging individuals from engaging in illegal activities. This psychological deterrent can be highly effective in maintaining law and order and ensuring the safety and security of the area.

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  • 48. 

    The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is

    • A.

      Its ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions

    • B.

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

    • C.

      The team’s ability to work alone

    • D.

      Its quick response capability

    Correct Answer
    B. Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility
    Explanation
    The correct answer is detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. Military working dogs are trained to have heightened senses, including their sense of smell and hearing. This allows them to detect threats or suspicious items even in conditions where visibility is poor, such as in thick fog or rain. Their ability to detect and alert their handlers to potential dangers during these periods of limited visibility makes them a valuable asset in security operations.

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  • 49. 

    Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?

    • A.

      50 yrds

    • B.

      75 yrds

    • C.

      100 yrds

    • D.

      250 yrds

    Correct Answer
    D. 250 yrds
    Explanation
    Under ideal conditions, a military working dog can detect intruders at a distance of 250 yards. This suggests that the dog has a highly developed sense of smell and hearing, allowing it to detect the presence of intruders from a significant distance away. This ability is crucial for military operations, as it gives the dog and its handler advanced warning of potential threats, allowing them to take appropriate action.

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  • 50. 

    What is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

    • A.

      Protect members of the apprehension team

    • B.

      Disperse the remaining crowd off leash

    • C.

      Bite and hold demonstrators

    • D.

      Apprehend rioters

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect members of the apprehension team
    Explanation
    The military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators is to protect members of the apprehension team. The dogs are trained to provide security and ensure the safety of the team members by deterring any potential threats or attacks from the demonstrators. Their presence can help to maintain order and prevent any harm to the apprehension team during the operation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 06, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kayy0825
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