1.
Genetic testing is often used in treating certain lung cancers to determine how well a cancer will respond to a particular drug or combination of drugs.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Genetic testing is indeed commonly utilized in the treatment of certain lung cancers to assess the likelihood of a positive response to specific drugs or drug combinations. By analyzing the genetic makeup of the cancer cells, medical professionals can identify genetic mutations or alterations that may affect the cancer's behavior and response to treatment. This information helps in tailoring personalized treatment plans for patients, optimizing the chances of successful outcomes.
2.
Ultrasound is used in conjunction with CVS and amniocentesis for needle placement.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Ultrasound is commonly used in conjunction with CVS (chorionic villus sampling) and amniocentesis procedures for needle placement. These procedures involve obtaining samples of fetal cells or amniotic fluid for genetic testing. Ultrasound imaging helps guide the needle to the correct location, ensuring accuracy and minimizing risks. Therefore, the statement "Ultrasound is used in conjunction with CVS and amniocentesis for needle placement" is true.
3.
Most states have laws addressing the reliability and accuracy of genetic testing.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement claims that most states have laws addressing the reliability and accuracy of genetic testing. However, the correct answer is False, indicating that the statement is incorrect. This suggests that there may be some states that do not have laws specifically addressing the reliability and accuracy of genetic testing.
4.
AIH raises more ethical and legal issues than does AID.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
AIH (Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare) raises more ethical and legal issues than AID (Artificial Intelligence in Development). This is because AIH involves the use of AI technology in healthcare settings, which raises concerns regarding patient privacy, data security, and liability in case of medical errors. On the other hand, AID refers to the use of AI in various development fields, such as agriculture or infrastructure, which may have fewer direct ethical and legal implications compared to healthcare. Therefore, the statement that AIH raises more ethical and legal issues than AID is false.
5.
Frozen sperm is commonly used for artificial insemination.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Frozen sperm is commonly used for artificial insemination because freezing sperm allows it to be stored for longer periods of time while maintaining its viability. This is beneficial for various reasons, such as allowing for the transportation of sperm over long distances and providing a backup supply in case the male partner is unavailable at the time of insemination. Additionally, freezing sperm can also help in cases where the male partner has a low sperm count or poor sperm quality, as it allows for the selection of the best quality sperm for insemination.
6.
In 2004, what organization was formed to complete the encoding of genes?
Correct Answer
B. The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium
Explanation
The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium was formed in 2004 to complete the encoding of genes. This organization played a crucial role in the Human Genome Project, which aimed to sequence and map all the genes of the human genome. By completing the encoding of genes, the consortium contributed to a better understanding of human genetics and paved the way for advancements in medicine and biotechnology.
7.
The encoding of genes will allow:
Correct Answer
D. A and B
Explanation
The encoding of genes allows for the investigation of ways to prevent or cure diseases because by understanding the genetic makeup of individuals, scientists can study the genes associated with various diseases and develop targeted treatments or preventive measures. Additionally, it enables individuals to trace their origins by analyzing their genetic markers and comparing them to different populations around the world. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.
8.
Genetic testing is used for the following reason(s):
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Genetic testing is used for carrier screening to identify individuals who carry genes for certain genetic disorders and may pass them on to their children. It is also used for prenatal diagnostic testing to detect genetic abnormalities in a fetus during pregnancy. Additionally, genetic testing can be used for presymptom testing to identify genetic markers associated with certain diseases before any symptoms appear. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as genetic testing can be utilized for all these reasons.
9.
Chorionic villus sampling is:
Correct Answer
A. A test used to detect genetic defects.
Explanation
Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test that involves taking a sample of cells from the placenta to detect genetic defects in the fetus. It is typically done between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy and can provide information about chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, as well as other genetic conditions. This test is often recommended for women who have an increased risk of having a baby with a genetic disorder based on their age, family history, or previous pregnancy outcomes.
10.
The Uniform Parentage Act:
Correct Answer
C. Determines the parents of children.
Explanation
The Uniform Parentage Act is a law that determines the legal parents of children. It outlines the criteria and procedures for establishing parentage, such as genetic testing, adoption, or gestational agreements. This act helps to ensure that children have legal rights, including financial support, inheritance, and access to medical history, from both of their parents. It also provides a framework for resolving disputes regarding parentage, such as custody and visitation rights. By determining the parents of children, the Uniform Parentage Act plays a crucial role in protecting the best interests of the child.
11.
Screening for PKU, a congenital disease, is a type of __________________ genetic screening and testing.
Correct Answer
mandatory
Explanation
Screening for PKU, a congenital disease, is a type of mandatory genetic screening and testing. This means that it is required or compulsory for individuals to undergo this screening in order to identify if they have the genetic condition. The term "mandatory" implies that there are regulations or guidelines in place that make it obligatory for individuals to participate in this screening process.
12.
____________________________ can identify the size and gestational age and detect some fetal anomalies.
Correct Answer
Ultrasound
Explanation
Ultrasound is a medical imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. It is commonly used during pregnancy to monitor the growth and development of the fetus. Ultrasound can accurately determine the size and gestational age of the fetus, allowing healthcare professionals to track its progress. Additionally, ultrasound can detect certain fetal anomalies or abnormalities, providing valuable information for prenatal care and potential interventions.
13.
"In vitro"fertilization is also called ______________________________________ .
Correct Answer
fertilization in glass
Explanation
"In vitro" fertilization is a medical procedure where an egg is fertilized by sperm outside the body, typically in a laboratory dish or glass container. The term "in vitro" is derived from Latin and means "in glass." Therefore, "fertilization in glass" is an appropriate alternative name for this procedure.
14.
A test that screens for genetic flaws among embryos fertilized through IVF is called __________________________________________ .
Correct Answer
preimplantation genetic diagnosis
Explanation
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis is a test that screens for genetic flaws in embryos fertilized through in vitro fertilization (IVF). This test allows parents to identify any genetic abnormalities before the embryos are implanted in the uterus, thus helping them make informed decisions about their reproductive choices. By analyzing the genetic material of the embryos, preimplantation genetic diagnosis can detect conditions such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and Huntington's disease, among others. This test plays a crucial role in ensuring the health and well-being of future children and has become an integral part of assisted reproductive technology.
15.
__________________ are single cells that can regenerate and turn themselves into several types of specialized cells.
Correct Answer
Stem cells
Explanation
Stem cells are single cells that have the unique ability to regenerate and differentiate into various types of specialized cells. This means that they can transform themselves into different cell types, such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or blood cells, depending on the specific needs of the body. This regenerative capacity makes stem cells a valuable resource for medical research and potential treatments for a wide range of diseases and conditions.
16.
The _________________________________ adopted a measure to prohibit all forms of human cloning in August 2005.
Correct Answer
General Assembly of the United Nations
Explanation
The General Assembly of the United Nations adopted a measure to prohibit all forms of human cloning in August 2005. The General Assembly is the main deliberative, policymaking, and representative organ of the United Nations, consisting of all 193 member states. As a global platform for discussion and decision-making, the General Assembly plays a crucial role in addressing important issues, such as human cloning, and establishing international norms and regulations. By adopting this measure, the General Assembly demonstrated its commitment to ensuring the ethical and responsible use of scientific advancements and protecting human rights.
17.
There is no universal consensus on the time of viability.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because there is indeed no universal consensus on the time of viability. Viability refers to the point in a pregnancy when the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. However, the exact gestational age at which this occurs can vary depending on various factors such as the development of medical technology, the health of the mother and the fetus, and the availability of specialized neonatal care. Therefore, different medical professionals and organizations may have different opinions on the specific timeframe for viability.
18.
Quickeningis the term used to describe the feeling of life.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Quickening is indeed the term used to describe the feeling of life. It refers to the first movements of the fetus felt by a pregnant woman, usually occurring around the 16th to 25th week of pregnancy. This term is commonly used in medical and obstetric contexts to describe this specific sensation. Therefore, the statement "Quickening is the term used to describe the feeling of life" is true.
19.
Physicians cannot refuse to perform an abortion.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Physicians can refuse to perform an abortion based on their personal beliefs or moral objections. This is often protected under the principle of conscientious objection, which allows healthcare professionals to abstain from participating in procedures that go against their deeply held beliefs. While there may be legal and ethical considerations, physicians ultimately have the right to refuse to perform an abortion. Therefore, the statement that physicians cannot refuse to perform an abortion is false.
20.
A spouse must be informed in abortion procedures.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
In most cases, a spouse does not need to be informed in abortion procedures. The decision to have an abortion is a personal one, and it is ultimately up to the individual seeking the procedure to decide who they want to involve in the process. While some individuals may choose to inform their spouse, it is not a legal requirement in most places. The right to privacy and autonomy in reproductive choices is typically respected, allowing individuals to make decisions about their own bodies without the involvement or consent of their spouse.
21.
The fertilized ovum is referred to as an embryo.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The fertilized ovum is not referred to as an embryo. After fertilization, the ovum becomes a zygote, which then undergoes several stages of development before it becomes an embryo. The embryo stage begins after the zygote has implanted into the uterine wall and has started to develop the basic structures of the body. Therefore, the statement is false.
22.
The approved method of abortion if pregnancy is less than 7 weeks from the last menstruation is called:
Correct Answer
A. Suction abortion or curettage.
Explanation
The approved method of abortion if pregnancy is less than 7 weeks from the last menstruation is suction abortion or curettage. This method involves using suction to remove the contents of the uterus. It is a common and safe procedure performed in the early stages of pregnancy. Dilatation and extraction is a different method used for later stages of pregnancy. RU489 is not a recognized method of abortion, and hysterotomy is a surgical procedure similar to a cesarean section, which is not typically used for abortion.
23.
The U.S. Supreme Court through Roe v Wade has determined all but one of the following is true:
Correct Answer
D. States must provide abortions to pregnant women on Medicaid.
24.
In 2006, the U.S. Supreme Court in Ayotte v Planned Parenthood of Northern New England ruled unconstitutional the lawthat:
Correct Answer
C. Required parental notification 48 hours before an abortion to a minor.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the law requiring parental notification 48 hours before an abortion to a minor was ruled unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in Ayotte v Planned Parenthood of Northern New England in 2006. This means that the court determined that it violated the Constitution and therefore could not be enforced.
25.
Factors to consider when identifying abortion issues include:
Correct Answer
D. A and C
Explanation
When identifying abortion issues, factors such as economics, culture, and religion are important to consider. These factors can greatly influence a person's decision regarding abortion, as they may have financial constraints, cultural beliefs, or religious values that impact their stance on the issue. Additionally, the age and health of the client are also crucial factors to take into account. The combination of these factors, A and C, helps in understanding the complexities surrounding abortion and the various considerations that individuals may have.
26.
Name the five theories of when life begins.
Correct Answer
Conception, when brain begins to function, quickening, viability, and birth.
Explanation
The given answer lists the five theories of when life begins: conception, when the brain begins to function, quickening, viability, and birth. Each theory represents a different perspective on when a fetus can be considered alive. Conception is the moment of fertilization when a new individual is formed. The brain beginning to function signifies the development of consciousness. Quickening refers to the first movements felt by the mother. Viability is the point at which a fetus can survive outside the womb. Birth is the moment when the baby is fully separated from the mother's body.
27.
The Patient Self-Determination Act is law in all states.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The Patient Self-Determination Act is a federal law that applies to all states in the United States. This law requires healthcare providers to inform patients about their rights to make decisions regarding their medical treatment, including the right to refuse treatment or to create advance directives. It also ensures that healthcare providers document and honor these decisions. Therefore, the statement that the Patient Self-Determination Act is law in all states is true.
28.
A durable power of attorney for health care cannot be revoked once in effect.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
A durable power of attorney for health care can be revoked once it is in effect. This type of power of attorney allows an individual to appoint someone else to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become unable to do so. However, the person who granted the power of attorney has the right to revoke it at any time as long as they are mentally competent. Therefore, the statement that a durable power of attorney for health care cannot be revoked once in effect is false.
29.
Quinlan and Schiavo cases are examples of difficulties that can occur when clients' wishes are not expressly identified in writing and/or when medical professionals disagree with family members.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because the Quinlan and Schiavo cases are well-known examples of the challenges that can arise when a client's wishes are not clearly documented and medical professionals have conflicting opinions with family members. In these cases, legal battles ensued as the clients' wishes were not explicitly stated, leading to prolonged and difficult decision-making processes. This highlights the importance of having written documentation, such as advanced directives or living wills, to ensure that an individual's wishes are respected and followed in such situations.
30.
The Uniform Determination of Death Act identifies medical standards for writing living will documents.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The Uniform Determination of Death Act does not specifically address the writing of living will documents. This act primarily focuses on defining and determining death, providing standards for the determination of death, and clarifying the legal status of individuals who are declared dead. It does not directly relate to the creation or writing of living will documents, which are typically governed by separate laws and regulations. Therefore, the statement is false.
31.
Health care professionals are bound to abide by the wishes of their clients within legal parameters.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Health care professionals are required to respect and honor the decisions and choices made by their clients as long as they fall within the legal boundaries. This means that health care professionals must prioritize the autonomy and self-determination of their clients when it comes to their healthcare decisions. They should provide necessary information and guidance to help clients make informed choices, but ultimately, the client's wishes should be respected and followed.
32.
A person must be competent to sign a power of attorney.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
To sign a power of attorney, a person must possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and understanding to make informed decisions and act in their best interest. This competence ensures that the person granting the power of attorney fully understands the legal implications and consequences of their actions. Without competency, the power of attorney may not be valid or enforceable. Therefore, it is true that a person must be competent to sign a power of attorney.
33.
The durable power of attorney for health care:
Correct Answer
C. Allows a medical proxy to make health care decisions for another.
Explanation
The durable power of attorney for health care allows a designated person, known as a medical proxy, to make health care decisions on behalf of another individual. This legal document grants the proxy the authority to make medical choices when the individual is unable to do so themselves. It is important to note that this power of attorney may not be recognized in all states.
34.
Living wills and/or physician's directives:
Correct Answer
D. All the above
Explanation
Living wills and/or physician's directives provide clients with the ability to have control over their choices in dying. They may dictate whether or not extraordinary measures should be taken to preserve life and should be made accessible to healthcare providers and family members. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."
35.
Euthanasia:
Correct Answer
D. A and B
Explanation
The correct answer is A and B. Euthanasia literally means "good death" and has come to refer to an action that takes the life of another. This implies that euthanasia involves intentionally causing the death of someone, which can be seen as morally and ethically controversial. Additionally, the statement that euthanasia is a personal choice that does not affect healthcare providers suggests that healthcare providers are not directly involved in the decision-making process of euthanasia.
36.
An individual's choices in dying:
Correct Answer
A. Are influenced by culture, religious beliefs, legal ramifications.
Explanation
An individual's choices in dying are influenced by various factors such as culture, religious beliefs, and legal ramifications. Cultural norms and values play a significant role in shaping one's perspective on death and dying, as different cultures have diverse practices and rituals surrounding end-of-life decisions. Religious beliefs also play a crucial role, as they often provide guidance and moral frameworks for making decisions about dying. Additionally, legal ramifications, such as laws regarding euthanasia or advance directives, can impact an individual's choices in dying. Therefore, it is essential to consider these factors when discussing end-of-life decisions.
37.
It is important to have a legally recognized definition of death because _______________________________________________.
Correct Answer
of organ transplantation considerations
Explanation
Having a legally recognized definition of death is important because it helps in addressing organ transplantation considerations. This definition ensures that organs are only procured from individuals who are truly deceased, preventing any ethical or legal issues. It also helps in determining the eligibility of potential organ donors and ensures that the process is fair and transparent. Additionally, a clear definition of death allows for the proper allocation of organs, maximizing the chances of successful transplantation and saving more lives.
38.
Financial loss and loss of relationships are feared most by those who are dying.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement suggests that financial loss and loss of relationships are the most feared by those who are dying. However, without any supporting evidence or context, it is difficult to make a definitive statement about what individuals fear the most when facing death. Fear and concerns may vary greatly from person to person based on their personal experiences, values, and beliefs. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that financial loss and loss of relationships are universally feared the most by those who are dying.
39.
A person's age does not influence the reaction to death.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement "A person's age does not influence the reaction to death" is not true. Age can have a significant impact on how individuals react to death. Younger individuals may struggle to understand or process the concept of death, while older individuals may have experienced loss more frequently and have developed coping mechanisms. Additionally, cultural and religious beliefs surrounding death can also vary based on age and influence one's reaction.
40.
Persons who are dying all experience the same psychological experiences.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because every person's experience of dying is unique and can vary greatly. Factors such as individual beliefs, values, and personal experiences can influence the psychological experiences of dying. Additionally, the circumstances surrounding the dying process, such as the presence of pain or the level of support, can also impact the psychological experiences of individuals. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that all dying persons have the same psychological experiences.
41.
Fear is often a traumatic psychological aspect of dying.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Fear is often a traumatic psychological aspect of dying. This means that when individuals are faced with the prospect of death, they may experience fear as a result of the unknown or the potential pain and suffering associated with dying. This fear can be overwhelming and have a significant impact on an individual's mental well-being during the dying process. Therefore, the statement "Fear is often a traumatic psychological aspect of dying" is true.
42.
It is best not to try to contradict the “denial” stage of grief.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In the "denial" stage of grief, individuals tend to refuse to accept the reality of a loss or a traumatic event. Trying to contradict this stage can be counterproductive as it may hinder the individual's process of coming to terms with their emotions and accepting the situation. It is important to allow individuals to experience and express their denial as part of their grieving process, providing them with support and understanding instead of trying to contradict or dismiss their feelings.
43.
Medications given to those who are suffering and are dying:
Correct Answer
A. Help to relieve pain
Explanation
The medications given to those who are suffering and dying help to relieve pain. This implies that these medications are primarily focused on alleviating the physical discomfort experienced by individuals in such situations. They may not necessarily aid in providing rest and sleep, treating depression, or targeting specific disease conditions. The main purpose of these medications is to provide relief from pain, which is a common symptom experienced by individuals who are suffering or nearing the end of their lives.
44.
Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief:
Correct Answer
C. Are identified as denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
Explanation
Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief are identified as denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. This means that when individuals experience grief, they may go through these stages in the order described by Kübler-Ross. It is important to understand these stages as they can help individuals recognize and navigate their emotions during the grieving process. By acknowledging and addressing each stage, individuals can work towards accepting their loss and finding healing.
45.
Hospice:
Correct Answer
D. All the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All the above." Hospice care refers to a type of care that focuses on providing support and comfort to individuals who are terminally ill. It can be provided in various settings, including specialized facilities or the patient's own home. Hospice care aims to enhance the quality of life for patients and their families, and it typically discourages interventions such as CPR, intravenous therapy, nasogastric tubes, and antibiotics, as the focus is on providing comfort rather than curative treatment.
46.
Name the one state that has a Death with Dignity Act (Physician-Assisted Suicide):
Correct Answer
D. Oregon
Explanation
Oregon is the correct answer because it is the only state that has a Death with Dignity Act, which allows terminally ill patients to request and receive medication to hasten their death. Washington, California, and Florida do not have such legislation in place.
47.
The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act allows individuals to:
Correct Answer
B. Make a gift of all or any part of their body for transplantation, science, or therapy.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Make a gift of all or any part of their body for transplantation, science, or therapy." The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act is a law that allows individuals to donate their organs, tissues, and other body parts for transplantation, medical research, or educational purposes. This act has been adopted by all 50 states in the United States, making it possible for individuals to make this gift in any state. It does not pertain to writing a Death with Dignity Document or determining monetary gifts after death.
48.
A common definition of grief work is summarized by the acronym “TEAR.” Identify.
Correct Answer
T = To accept the reality of the loss; E = Experience the pain of the loss; A = Adjust to the environment of what was lost; R = Reinvest in the new reality.
49.
Identify the relatives of the deceased and their order of priority who may consent to an autopsy.
Correct Answer
Surviving spouse; any child of the deceased who is 18 years of age or older; any one of the parents of the deceased; any adult sibling of the deceased.
Explanation
The relatives of the deceased who may consent to an autopsy in order of priority are the surviving spouse, any child of the deceased who is 18 years of age or older, any one of the parents of the deceased, and any adult sibling of the deceased.