Communications - Electronics Journeyman CDC 2EX5X Test 3
Test 3 of Multiple Choice on Volumes 1-3 of Career Development Course 2EX5X
- 1.
What type of Air Force Specialty Code identifies the authorized manning position to which you're assigned and reflects the job you are currently performing?
- A.
Duty
- B.
Control
- C.
Primary
- D.
Alternate
Correct Answer
A. DutyExplanation
The correct answer is "Duty" because the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) is a system used by the United States Air Force to identify the specific job and skill set of its personnel. The AFSC assigned to an individual reflects the job they are currently performing and the authorized manning position to which they are assigned. Therefore, "Duty" best aligns with the concept of identifying the authorized manning position and reflecting the job being performed.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many primary Air Force Specialt Codes are in the Communications-Electronics career field?
- A.
Seven
- B.
Eight
- C.
Nine
- D.
Ten
Correct Answer
B. EightExplanation
There are eight primary Air Force Specialty Codes in the Communications-Electronics career field.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What are the 3 components of Air Force On the Job Training?
- A.
Job knowledge, job proficiency, and job experience
- B.
Task knowledge, task performance, and job experience
- C.
Career development courses, qualification training packages, and job training
- D.
Career field education and training plan, job qualification standards, and AF Form 623
Correct Answer
A. Job knowledge, job proficiency, and job experienceExplanation
The correct answer is job knowledge, job proficiency, and job experience. In order to effectively train individuals in the Air Force, it is important to focus on these three components. Job knowledge refers to the understanding and comprehension of the tasks and responsibilities associated with a particular job. Job proficiency involves the ability to perform these tasks with skill and expertise. Job experience is gained through hands-on practice and exposure to real-life situations, allowing individuals to apply their knowledge and proficiency in a practical setting. By emphasizing these components, the Air Force ensures that its personnel are well-prepared and capable in their respective roles.Rate this question:
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- 4.
With the exception of Strips for Exceptional Performers promotes and Air Reserve Component personnel, when do personnel who are selected for promotions to SSgt enter 7 level upgrade training?
- A.
1 January
- B.
1 April
- C.
1 June
- D.
1 September
Correct Answer
D. 1 SeptemberExplanation
Personnel who are selected for promotions to SSgt enter 7 level upgrade training on 1 September, with the exception of Strips for Exceptional Performers promotes and Air Reserve Component personnel.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What assigned maintenance responsibility provides an experienced managerial and technical perspective to the maintenance activity by advising and assisting the chief of maintenance?
- A.
Branch chief
- B.
Unit Commander
- C.
Maintenance Supervisor
- D.
Maintenance Superintendent
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance SuperintendentExplanation
The Maintenance Superintendent is responsible for providing an experienced managerial and technical perspective to the maintenance activity. They advise and assist the chief of maintenance in making decisions and ensuring that maintenance operations are carried out effectively. This role requires a high level of expertise and knowledge in maintenance practices, as well as strong leadership and management skills. The Maintenance Superintendent plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance activities are carried out efficiently and in accordance with established standards and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What serves as a unique identifier for tracking maintenance actions for an epuipment malfunction?
- A.
Work unit code
- B.
How Malfunction
- C.
When discovered
- D.
Job Control Number
Correct Answer
D. Job Control NumberExplanation
A Job Control Number serves as a unique identifier for tracking maintenance actions for an equipment malfunction. It helps in organizing and keeping a record of all the tasks and actions taken to resolve the malfunction. By assigning a specific number to each job, it becomes easier to track its progress, monitor the status, and ensure that all necessary actions are completed. This helps in efficient maintenance management and ensures that all equipment malfunctions are addressed in a timely and systematic manner.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following condition do we use for not mission capable maintenance?
- A.
When systems and equipment are not capable of preforming any of their assigned missions b/c of unit level maintenance requirements
- B.
When systems and equipment are not capable of preforming any of their assigned missions b/c of maintenance work stoppage due to a supply shortage
- C.
When systems and equipment are capable of preforming any of their assigned missions b/c of unit level maintenance requirements
- D.
When systems and equipment are capable of preforming any of their assigned missions b/c of maintenance work stoppage due to a supply shortage
Correct Answer
A. When systems and equipment are not capable of preforming any of their assigned missions b/c of unit level maintenance requirementsExplanation
The correct answer states that "When systems and equipment are not capable of performing any of their assigned missions because of unit level maintenance requirements." This means that the systems and equipment are unable to carry out their assigned tasks due to maintenance needs at the unit level. This condition indicates that the maintenance requirements are preventing the systems and equipment from being mission capable.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What term has an expandability, recoverability, reparability code (ERRC) of XD (x) of XF (x)?
- A.
Due-out
- B.
Awaiting parts
- C.
Due in from maintenance
- D.
Equipment inoperative for parts
Correct Answer
C. Due in from maintenanceExplanation
The term "Due in from maintenance" has an expandability, recoverability, reparability code (ERRC) of XD (x) of XF (x). This means that the equipment is expected to return from maintenance and be ready for use again.Rate this question:
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- 9.
If a system is to co-exist with an air force local area network/metropolitan area network/wide area network infrastructure, what is required before the system is integrated with the network?
- A.
Unit commander approval
- B.
Certification of networthiness
- C.
A satisfactory quality assurance inspection
- D.
System records incorporated
Correct Answer
B. Certification of networthinessExplanation
Before a system can be integrated with an air force network infrastructure, it is required to undergo certification of networthiness. This process ensures that the system meets specific security and functional requirements, and is capable of operating securely within the network. Certification of networthiness helps to ensure the overall integrity and reliability of the network, as well as the safety and security of the information transmitted through it.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What communications standardization and evaluation program evaluation provides the unit commander, chief of maintenance and supervisors with factual, objective assessments of a sections ability to meet its mission requirements?
- A.
Special
- B.
Technical
- C.
Personnel
- D.
Managerial
Correct Answer
D. ManagerialExplanation
The correct answer is "Managerial." The managerial evaluation program provides the unit commander, chief of maintenance, and supervisors with factual and objective assessments of a section's ability to meet its mission requirements. This evaluation focuses on the management aspect of communication standardization and ensures that the section is effectively meeting its goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What category of maintenance enables the chief of maintenance to coordinate and direct the maintenance effort with either a separated maintenance staff or a consolidated maintenance staff?
- A.
Category I
- B.
Category II
- C.
Category III
- D.
Category IV
Correct Answer
B. Category IIExplanation
Category II maintenance enables the chief of maintenance to coordinate and direct the maintenance effort with either a separated maintenance staff or a consolidated maintenance staff. This means that the chief of maintenance has the flexibility to choose between having separate teams for different tasks or consolidating all maintenance tasks under one team. This category allows for efficient coordination and direction of the maintenance effort based on the specific needs and resources of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What purpose of modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
- A.
Spectrum conversion
- B.
Channel allocation
- C.
Ease of Radiation
- D.
Companding
Correct Answer
C. Ease of RadiationExplanation
The purpose of modulation that involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances is ease of radiation. Modulating low frequency signals allows for the efficient use of the available bandwidth, making it easier to transmit the signals over long distances without significant loss or interference. This modulation technique helps in reducing the power requirements for transmission and improves the overall efficiency of the communication system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
- A.
Amplitude of the modulating signal
- B.
Frequency of the modulating signal
- C.
Amplitude of the carrier signal
- D.
Frequency of the carrier signal
Correct Answer
B. Frequency of the modulating signalExplanation
The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. In amplitude modulation, the modulating signal affects the amplitude of the carrier signal, resulting in the creation of sidebands. The frequency of the modulating signal determines the distance between these sidebands, with higher frequencies leading to closer spacing and lower frequencies resulting in wider spacing. Therefore, the frequency of the modulating signal directly influences the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A 10 kHz modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 30 kHz. What is the modulation index?
- A.
5
- B.
0.5
- C.
0.3
- D.
3
Correct Answer
D. 3Explanation
The modulation index is a measure of the extent to which a carrier signal is modulated by a modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 10 kHz and is causing a deviation of 30 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the frequency of the modulating signal. In this case, 30 kHz divided by 10 kHz equals 3. Therefore, the modulation index is 3.Rate this question:
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- 15.
By using 8-PSK, instead of binary phase shift keying, information capacity is increased
- A.
Twice
- B.
Three times
- C.
Four times
- D.
Five times
Correct Answer
B. Three timesExplanation
By using 8-PSK (8-Phase Shift Keying) instead of binary phase shift keying, the information capacity is increased three times. This is because 8-PSK allows for 8 different phase shifts, while binary phase shift keying only allows for 2. With more phase shifts, more information can be encoded and transmitted, resulting in a higher information capacity.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What part of the pulse code modulation process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
- A.
Sampling
- B.
Rectifying
- C.
Oscillating
- D.
Band limiting
Correct Answer
A. SamplingExplanation
Sampling is the part of the pulse code modulation process that converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal. In this process, the continuous signal is sampled at regular intervals, and each sample represents the amplitude of the signal at that particular time. By converting the continuous signal into a discrete time signal, it becomes easier to process and transmit the signal digitally. Sampling is essential in pulse code modulation as it allows for the accurate representation and reconstruction of the original signal.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead cost of data transmissions?
- A.
Communicates in parallel format
- B.
Blocks many characters together for transmission
- C.
Eliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent
- D.
Equipment to support synchronous transmission is far less expensive
Correct Answer
B. Blocks many characters together for transmissionExplanation
Synchronous transmission reduces the overhead cost of data transmissions by blocking many characters together for transmission. This means that multiple characters are sent together as a single unit, which reduces the number of control bits needed for each character. By eliminating the need for additional control bits, more message data can be sent, resulting in a more efficient and cost-effective transmission process. Additionally, blocking characters together allows for faster and more streamlined communication, further reducing overhead costs.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98% effective in detecting errors?
- A.
Checksum and cyclic redundancy check
- B.
Longitude redundancy check and checksum
- C.
Cyclic redundancy and vertical redundancy check
- D.
Vertical redundancy and longitudinal redundancy check
Correct Answer
D. Vertical redundancy and longitudinal redundancy checkExplanation
Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98% effective in detecting errors. VRC involves adding a parity bit to each character or byte of data to check for errors. LRC involves adding a parity bit to each block of data to check for errors. By using both methods, errors can be detected with a high level of accuracy, making this combination highly effective in error detection.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable?
- A.
The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables present security risks
- B.
Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable
- C.
Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables
- D.
Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cables
Correct Answer
C. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cablesExplanation
Fiber optic cables are not affected by electromagnetic fields. This is an advantage because electromagnetic interference can disrupt the signal transmission in other types of cables, such as coaxial cables. Fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, so they are immune to electromagnetic interference, making them more reliable for long-distance and high-speed communication.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What type of buffer allows the fiber optic cable to be twisted or pulled with stress on the fiber?
- A.
Ribbon
- B.
Composite
- C.
Tight tube
- D.
Loose tube
Correct Answer
D. Loose tubeExplanation
A loose tube buffer is designed to allow the fiber optic cable to be twisted or pulled with stress on the fiber. It consists of a protective tube loosely surrounding the fiber, providing flexibility and protection against external forces. This design allows for easy installation and maintenance, making it suitable for applications where the cable may be subjected to bending or pulling forces.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Propagation of light as seen by Snell's law is known as
- A.
Total internal reflection
- B.
Refraction of light
- C.
Light wavelengths
- D.
Rays of incidence
Correct Answer
A. Total internal reflectionExplanation
Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index, and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle. In this case, instead of refracting, the light is completely reflected back into the medium it originated from. This phenomenon is known as total internal reflection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What type of fiber is the least efficient, with the highest dispersion and has a core diameter of 30 µm to over 800 µm?
- A.
Single-mode step-index fiber
- B.
Single-mode graded-index fiber
- C.
Multimode step-index fiber
- D.
Multimode graded-index fiber
Correct Answer
C. Multimode step-index fiberExplanation
Multimode step-index fiber is the least efficient type of fiber because it has the highest dispersion and a larger core diameter. The larger core diameter allows for multiple modes or paths for light to travel through, causing signal degradation and dispersion. This results in a lower bandwidth and shorter transmission distances compared to other fiber types.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from a circuit?
- A.
Remove power from the circuit
- B.
Short both sides of the resistor
- C.
Isolate both sides of the resistor
- D.
Disconnect one side of the resistor
Correct Answer
D. Disconnect one side of the resistorExplanation
To electrically isolate a resistor from a circuit during a resistance measurement, one side of the resistor is disconnected. This is done to prevent any current flow through the resistor and ensure accurate measurement of its resistance. By disconnecting one side of the resistor, it is effectively removed from the circuit, allowing the resistance to be measured without any interference from the rest of the circuit.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In which type of circuit would you measure the AC component of an output voltage where both AC and DC voltage levels exist?
- A.
Filter
- B.
Resonant
- C.
Amplifier
- D.
Differential
Correct Answer
C. AmplifierExplanation
In an amplifier circuit, you can measure the AC component of an output voltage where both AC and DC voltage levels exist. Amplifiers are electronic devices that increase the amplitude of a signal, allowing the AC component to be amplified while the DC component remains unchanged. This makes an amplifier circuit suitable for measuring the AC component in such a scenario.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When you use the Fluke 8025A, which voltage range do you use to measure 50 volts DC?
- A.
Volts AC
- B.
Volts DC
- C.
Millivolts AC
- D.
Millivolts DC
Correct Answer
B. Volts DCExplanation
When using the Fluke 8025A, the voltage range that should be used to measure 50 volts DC is Volts DC. This means that the instrument should be set to measure direct current voltage in the range that corresponds to 50 volts.Rate this question:
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- 26.
With what values do we measure insulation resistance?
- A.
Amps or megamps
- B.
Millivolts or volts
- C.
Ohms or megaohms
- D.
Milliwatts or watts
Correct Answer
C. Ohms or megaohmsExplanation
Insulation resistance is a measure of how well an insulating material can resist the flow of electrical current. It is measured in ohms or megaohms, as these units represent the resistance to the flow of current. Amps or megamps measure the actual current flowing through a circuit, while millivolts or volts measure the voltage across a circuit. Milliwatts or watts measure the power or energy dissipated in a circuit. Therefore, the correct values to measure insulation resistance are ohms or megaohms.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of megohmeter do you use on paper insulated conductor cable?
- A.
500 volt
- B.
1000 volts
- C.
1500 volts
- D.
2500 volts
Correct Answer
A. 500 voltExplanation
A megohmeter is a device used to measure the resistance of insulation in electrical conductors. When testing paper insulated conductor cables, a lower voltage is typically used to prevent damage to the insulation. The 500 volt megohmeter is the most suitable option for testing paper insulated conductor cables because it provides a sufficient voltage to measure the insulation resistance without risking any damage. Higher voltages, such as 1000, 1500, or 2500 volts, could potentially cause harm to the paper insulation and should be avoided.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, weather there is a signal output or not?
- A.
Auto
- B.
Norm
- C.
External
- D.
Source
Correct Answer
A. AutoExplanation
The correct answer is "Auto" because in this mode, the oscilloscope continuously triggers and displays a trace on the screen regardless of whether there is a signal output or not. It automatically adjusts the triggering parameters to maintain a stable display, making it useful for capturing intermittent or low-amplitude signals.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
- A.
Current probe
- B.
Passive 1:1 probe
- C.
Active (FET) probe
- D.
Passive divider, 10:1 probe
Correct Answer
A. Current probeExplanation
A current probe is a type of test probe that does not need to make physical contact with the circuit under test. Instead, it uses magnetic induction to measure the current flowing through a conductor without interrupting the circuit. This is particularly useful when measuring high-frequency or high-voltage circuits, as it eliminates the need for direct electrical contact, reducing the risk of damage or interference.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
- A.
Sequential
- B.
Repetitive
- C.
Real-time
- D.
Random
Correct Answer
C. Real-timeExplanation
A digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) normally uses real-time sampling on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals. Real-time sampling allows the DSO to capture and display the waveform accurately, as it samples the signal continuously and at a high enough rate to capture all the important details. This is crucial for capturing transient or infrequent events accurately, as sequential or repetitive sampling may miss important information. Random sampling is not typically used in DSOs as it does not provide consistent and reliable results.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What pattern simulator section of the bit error test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
- A.
PRN generator
- B.
PRN comparator
- C.
48-bit transmitter only
- D.
48-bit register and 8-bit word display
Correct Answer
C. 48-bit transmitter onlyExplanation
The correct answer is "48-bit transmitter only". This pattern simulator section of the bit error test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern. It does not include a PRN generator or comparator, nor does it have a register or word display. Therefore, the only option that fits the given description is the "48-bit transmitter only".Rate this question:
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- 32.
On the bit error rate test set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to?
- A.
Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern
- B.
Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations
- C.
Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern
- D.
Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations
Correct Answer
B. Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operationsExplanation
The 25-pin connectors are designed to simplify the connection of test equipment to the modem under test. Additionally, they are designed to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations. This means that the connectors not only make it easier to connect the equipment but also enable the necessary communication between the test equipment and the modem for proper modem operations.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the variable range of signals output from the HP3325B synthesizer/function generator?
- A.
1mV to 10V peak to peak
- B.
1mV to 10 V peak
- C.
1V to 10V peak to peak
- D.
1V to 10V peak
Correct Answer
A. 1mV to 10V peak to peakExplanation
The variable range of signals output from the HP3325B synthesizer/function generator is 1mV to 10V peak to peak. This means that the output signal can vary from a minimum of 1 millivolt to a maximum of 10 volts, measured from the highest point to the lowest point of the waveform. The peak to peak measurement is used to describe the full range of the signal, encompassing both the positive and negative peaks.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the?
- A.
Ratio of decibels relative to 1milliwatt standard
- B.
Ratio of decibels relative to 1megawatt standard
- C.
Actual power level expressed in milliwatts
- D.
Actual power level expressed in megawatts
Correct Answer
A. Ratio of decibels relative to 1milliwatt standardExplanation
A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the ratio of decibels relative to the 1 milliwatt standard. This means that the power level is measured and expressed in decibels (dB) compared to the reference power level of 1 milliwatt. The dBm unit is commonly used in telecommunications and signal strength measurements to provide a standardized and easily interpretable representation of power levels.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which measurement is not made with a spectrum analyzer?
- A.
Frequency stability
- B.
Peak-peak voltage
- C.
Amplitude modulation
- D.
Subcarrier oscillator output
Correct Answer
B. Peak-peak voltageExplanation
A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure and display the frequency spectrum of a signal. It is primarily used to analyze the frequency content of a signal and identify its components. Frequency stability, amplitude modulation, and subcarrier oscillator output are all measurements that can be made using a spectrum analyzer. However, peak-peak voltage is not typically measured directly using a spectrum analyzer. It is a measurement of the difference between the maximum and minimum voltage levels in a signal, which can be measured using an oscilloscope or a voltmeter.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which measurement do you make with a spectrum analyzer?
- A.
Subcarrier oscillator outputs
- B.
Transducer output voltage
- C.
Time between two events
- D.
Pulse width
Correct Answer
A. Subcarrier oscillator outputsExplanation
A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure the frequency spectrum of a signal. It analyzes the different frequencies present in a signal and displays them graphically. Subcarrier oscillator outputs refer to the frequencies generated by an oscillator used in subcarrier systems, such as in television broadcasting or wireless communication. Therefore, measuring subcarrier oscillator outputs is a valid measurement that can be made using a spectrum analyzer.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which electronic counter measurement counts the number of bits in a pulse train?
- A.
Period
- B.
Scaling
- C.
Totalize
- D.
Time interval
Correct Answer
C. TotalizeExplanation
Totalize is the correct answer because it refers to the electronic counter measurement that counts the total number of bits in a pulse train. This measurement is commonly used in various applications, such as telecommunications and data transmission, to accurately determine the number of bits being transmitted or received in a given pulse train.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
- A.
Frequency, time, microwave, and reciprocal
- B.
Frequency, universal, microwave, and reciprocal
- C.
Frequency, universal, period, and reciprocal
- D.
Scaling, universal, microwave, and reciprocal
Correct Answer
B. Frequency, universal, microwave, and reciprocalExplanation
The correct answer is Frequency, universal, microwave, and reciprocal. These four classes of electronic counters are commonly used in various applications. Frequency counters are used to measure the frequency of a signal, universal counters can measure various parameters like frequency, period, time interval, and more, microwave counters are designed specifically for high-frequency signals, and reciprocal counters are used to measure the reciprocal of a signal's frequency. Each class serves a specific purpose in electronic counter technology.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which push button(s) would you select to get 125 ohms impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
- A.
None
- B.
75 ohms only
- C.
125 ohms only
- D.
50 and 75 ohms
Correct Answer
D. 50 and 75 ohmsExplanation
To get 125 ohms impedance on the time domain reflectometer, the user needs to select the push buttons for 50 and 75 ohms. This combination will result in a total impedance of 125 ohms. Selecting none, 75 ohms only, or 125 ohms only will not yield the desired impedance value.Rate this question:
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- 40.
While using a time domain reflectometer (TDR), what cable fault causes delays in pulses of propagation velocity making accurate measurements difficult?
- A.
Short
- B.
Open
- C.
Grounded
- D.
Moisture in cables
Correct Answer
D. Moisture in cablesExplanation
Moisture in cables can cause delays in the pulses of propagation velocity while using a time domain reflectometer (TDR). This is because moisture can affect the electrical properties of the cable, leading to changes in the signal transmission. These changes can result in inaccurate measurements, making it difficult to accurately determine the location and nature of the cable fault.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What do we call the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer?
- A.
Reflection
- B.
Backscatter
- C.
Scatter coefficient
- D.
Reflection coefficient
Correct Answer
B. BackscatterExplanation
Backscatter refers to the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Why is it important to mark underground facilities, when the earth's surface is moved, removed, or displaced?
- A.
To minimize damage
- B.
To have a uniform color code
- C.
To maximize conservation of resources
- D.
To enforce American Public Works Association guidelines
Correct Answer
A. To minimize damageExplanation
It is important to mark underground facilities when the earth's surface is moved, removed, or displaced in order to minimize damage. By marking these facilities, such as gas lines or electrical cables, construction workers or excavators can avoid accidentally hitting or damaging them, which could lead to dangerous situations, service disruptions, or costly repairs. Marking underground facilities helps ensure the safety of both workers and the public, and prevents unnecessary damage to infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the three main functions of grounding?
- A.
Personal safety, equipment protection, noise reduction
- B.
Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emission safety
- C.
Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction
- D.
Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection
Correct Answer
A. Personal safety, equipment protection, noise reductionExplanation
Grounding serves three main functions: personal safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personal safety is achieved by providing a safe path for electrical current to flow in the event of a fault, preventing electric shock. Equipment protection is ensured by grounding, as it helps to dissipate excess electrical energy and divert it away from sensitive equipment, preventing damage from power surges or lightning strikes. Noise reduction is another function of grounding, as it helps to eliminate unwanted electrical noise or interference, ensuring the proper functioning of electronic devices.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Grounding resistance should be no higher than what value for a military C-E facility?
- A.
10 ohms
- B.
15 ohms
- C.
20 ohms
- D.
25 ohms
Correct Answer
A. 10 ohmsExplanation
A grounding resistance of no higher than 10 ohms is required for a military C-E (Communications-Electronics) facility. This is because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure a reliable and effective grounding system, which is crucial for the safety and proper functioning of the facility's electrical and electronic equipment. A higher grounding resistance could result in increased risk of electrical hazards, such as electrical shocks and equipment damage, as well as potential interference with sensitive electronic signals. Therefore, maintaining a grounding resistance of 10 ohms or lower is essential for the optimal operation of a military C-E facility.Rate this question:
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- 45.
For reportable equipment, how deep should a grounding rod be driven when attaching a slice connection for lightning protection?
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
7 feet
Correct Answer
B. 3 feetExplanation
The grounding rod should be driven 3 feet deep when attaching a slice connection for lightning protection. This depth ensures that the rod is securely grounded and provides effective protection against lightning strikes. A deeper grounding rod helps to dissipate the electrical energy safely into the ground, reducing the risk of damage to the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What security discipline is used to deny access to classified and, in some instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanation within an inspectable space?
- A.
COMPUSEC
- B.
TEMPEST
- C.
COMSEC
- D.
EMSEC
Correct Answer
D. EMSECExplanation
EMSEC stands for Emanation Security, which is a security discipline used to deny access to classified and unclassified information and contain compromising emanation within an inspectable space. Emanation refers to unintentional signals or emissions that can be intercepted and used to gather information. EMSEC focuses on protecting against the interception of these emanations, such as electromagnetic radiation or acoustic signals, to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. It involves measures like shielding, filtering, and encryption to minimize the risk of compromising emanations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What equipment should be designated as RED?
- A.
Equipment processing encrypted, classified information
- B.
Equipment processing clear text, classified information
- C.
Equipment processing unencrypted, unclassified information
- D.
Equipment processing clear text, unclassified
Correct Answer
B. Equipment processing clear text, classified informationExplanation
The equipment processing clear text, classified information should be designated as RED because clear text refers to unencrypted information, while classified information refers to sensitive and confidential data that requires protection. Therefore, this equipment needs to handle and secure classified information that is transmitted in clear text format.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What identifies maintenance, software, hardware, security requirements, technical data, circuits, supplies, and required follow on support (i.e. maintenance)
- A.
Site survey
- B.
Technical solution
- C.
Certificate of operation
- D.
Project support agreement
Correct Answer
B. Technical solutionExplanation
A technical solution refers to a comprehensive plan that outlines the maintenance, software, hardware, security requirements, technical data, circuits, supplies, and required follow-on support needed for a project. It encompasses all the technical aspects and resources necessary to meet the project's objectives and ensure its smooth operation. This includes identifying the specific maintenance procedures, software and hardware components, security measures, and technical data that will be required. The technical solution is an essential document that guides the implementation and support of the project.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to preform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?
- A.
Table of Allowance 417
- B.
Document Register D04
- C.
Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment listings
- D.
Communication-Computer Systems Installation records
Correct Answer
A. Table of Allowance 417Explanation
The Table of Allowance 417 is the correct answer because it prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions. It provides a comprehensive list of equipment that is authorized for use in these missions, ensuring that the necessary resources are available for effective systems control. The other options, such as Document Register D04, Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment listings, and Communication-Computer Systems Installation records, do not specifically address the prescription of items and quantities of equipment for systems control missions.Rate this question:
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- 50.
At what frequency does PMEL provide the TMDE Master ID listing?
- A.
Every month
- B.
Every three months
- C.
Every six months
- D.
Every year
Correct Answer
B. Every three monthsExplanation
PMEL provides the TMDE Master ID listing every three months. This means that the listing is updated and released every quarter of the year. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that the information provided remains current and accurate. It also allows users to have access to the most recent TMDE Master ID listing on a regular basis, enabling them to make informed decisions and updates to their own records.Rate this question:
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Jul 30, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2010Quiz Created by
Radarlove
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