1.
Which of the following can aid a mobile user in finding the nearest coffee shop?(Select the best answer.)
Correct Answer
C. GPS
Explanation
GPS: global positioning system(a system by which signals are sent from satellites to a special device, used to show the position of a person or thing on the surface of the earth very accurately) : GSM : Global System For Mobile Communication : iOS : iPhone Operating System
2.
A user wants to stop his tablet from shifting horizontally when he turns it. Whichof the following should you enable?
Correct Answer
A. Lock Rotation
Explanation
Enable Lock Rotation on Apple devices. On Android devices disable Autorotate.
The Accelerometer is a term used by Apple to describe the
hardware/software that controls the three axes of movement. The Gyroscope is
another term used by Apple to describe the device that measures the additional
three movements (pitch, roll, and yaw) of newer Apple devices. Screen calibration
is used to reset the device that measures the three axes
3.
What kind of display would an iPad2 use?
Correct Answer
B. Multitouch
Explanation
The correct answer is "Multitouch." The iPad2 would use a multitouch display, which allows users to interact with the screen using multiple fingers simultaneously. This technology enables various gestures such as pinch-to-zoom, swipe, and rotate, providing a more intuitive and versatile user experience compared to traditional single-touch displays.
4.
A user is having difficulty tapping on icons. What should you do to help theuser? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Clean the display.
D. Initiate a soft reset.
Explanation
To help the user having difficulty tapping on icons, cleaning the display is a good solution as it may remove any dirt or smudges that could be interfering with the touch sensitivity. Initiating a soft reset is also a good option as it can resolve any temporary software issues that may be affecting the touch functionality. Both of these actions can potentially improve the user's ability to tap on icons effectively.
5.
What are two common operating systems used by mobile devices? (Select thetwo best answers.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. IOS
D. Android OS
Explanation
Choose 2 compulsary 2 answers
6.
What type of CPU do mobile devices use?
Correct Answer
C. ARM
Explanation
PhenomII : Phenom II is a family of AMD's multi-core 45 nm processors using the AMD K10 micro architecture, succeeding the original Phenom. Advanced Micro Devices : ARM : Advanced RISC Machine : Corei7 : General Microprocessors used for Desktop & Laptop
7.
Which OS is considered to be closed-source?
Correct Answer
D. IOS
Explanation
iOS is considered to be a closed-source operating system. This means that the source code of iOS is not freely available to the public, and only Apple has access to it. Closed-source systems are typically more secure as the source code is kept private, but it also limits the ability of users and developers to modify or customize the operating system.
8.
What are a couple of differences between a tablet computer and a laptop?(Select the two best answers.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tablets have little or no field serviceable parts.
D. Tablets use flash memory as the hard drive.
Explanation
Tablets have little or no field serviceable parts, meaning that they are not designed to be easily repaired or have their components replaced. This is in contrast to laptops, which often have easily accessible and replaceable parts. Additionally, tablets use flash memory as the hard drive, while laptops typically use traditional hard drives. Flash memory is faster and more durable than traditional hard drives, making it a common choice for tablets.
9.
Which of the following are valid Wi-Fi troubleshooting methods? (Select the twobest answers.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Power cycle the device.
D. Make sure the device is within range.
Explanation
Power cycling the device is a valid Wi-Fi troubleshooting method because it can help resolve temporary connectivity issues by resetting the device's network settings. Making sure the device is within range is also a valid method as Wi-Fi signals have limited range, and being out of range can cause connection problems. Restarting Bluetooth, using a static IP, and renaming the SSID are not valid Wi-Fi troubleshooting methods as they are unrelated to Wi-Fi connectivity issues.
10.
Which of the following connections requires a username, password, and SMTPserver? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. POP3 connection
E. IMAP connection
Explanation
The POP3 and IMAP connections require a username, password, and SMTP server. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) are both email retrieval protocols that require authentication with a username and password to access the email server. Additionally, both protocols require an SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) server for sending emails. Therefore, these two options are the best answers.
11.
What is the most common connection method when synchronizing data from a
mobile device to a PC?
Correct Answer
C. USB
Explanation
The most common connection method when synchronizing data from a mobile device to a PC is USB. USB (Universal Serial Bus) allows for a fast and reliable connection between the two devices, enabling the transfer of data such as files, photos, and videos. It is widely supported by both mobile devices and PCs, making it a convenient and widely used method for data synchronization.
12.
Which technology would you use if you want to connect a headset to yourmobile phone?
Correct Answer
A. Bluetooth
Explanation
Bluetooth is the correct answer because it is a wireless technology that allows devices to connect and communicate with each other over short distances. It is commonly used to connect headsets to mobile phones, allowing users to make hands-free calls or listen to audio wirelessly. GSM is a mobile network technology, Wi-Fi is used for wireless internet connectivity, and Exchange is a server software for email and messaging.
13.
Which of the following allows other mobile devices to share your mobile device’s
Internet connection?
Correct Answer
D. Wi-Fi tethering
Explanation
IMAP: Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a communications protocol for email retrieval and storage developed by Mark Crispin in 1986 at Stanford University . Wify tehtering : Wi-Fi tethering allows a mobile device to share its Internet connection with other Wi-Fi capable devices. Internet pass-through is when the mobile device connects to a PC to share the PC’s Internet connection. Locator applications are used to find lost or stolen mobile devices through GPS. IMAP is another e-mail protocol similar to POP3.
14.
What would a user need to synchronize contacts from an iPad to a PC?
Correct Answer
C. ITunes
Explanation
PC users need iTunes to synchronize contacts and other data from an iPad to
a PC. There are many Android sync programs, but they do not work on Apple
devices. Google Play is a place to get applications and other items. ActiveSync
is the older Microsoft sync program used to synchronize Windows CE and
Mobile to PCs.
15.
You want to prevent a person from accessing your phone while you step away from your desk. What should you do?
Correct Answer
C. Configure a screen lock.
Explanation
To prevent unauthorized access to your phone while you step away from your desk, configuring a screen lock is the most effective solution. A screen lock adds an extra layer of security by requiring a password, PIN, pattern, or biometric authentication (such as fingerprint or face recognition) to unlock the device. This ensures that even if someone gains physical access to your phone, they won't be able to access your personal data without the correct credentials. Remote backup, remote wipe programs, and locator applications are useful for different purposes, but they do not directly address the issue of preventing access to your phone in your absence.
16.
What does the iOS Simple Passcode allow a person to enter?
Correct Answer
C. 4-digit passcode
Explanation
The iOS Simple Passcode allows a person to enter a 4-digit passcode. This passcode is used as a security measure to unlock the device and protect the user's personal information. It is a quick and convenient way to secure the device without the need for a longer or more complex passcode.
17.
Which of the following is used by BitLocker to provide an encryption key and to protect data?
Correct Answer
A. TPM
Explanation
TPM: On computers that have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 1.2, BitLocker uses the enhanced security capabilities of the TPM to help ensure that your data is accessible only if the computer's boot components appear unaltered and the encrypted disk is located in the original computer.TKIP:TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol included as part of the IEEE 802.11i standard for wireless LANs (WLANs). It was designed to provide more secure encryption than the notoriously weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), the original WLAN security protocol. TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products :
18.
How would you secure a smartphone and its data?
Correct Answer
A. Passcode lock Remote wipe
Explanation
Securing a smartphone and its data can be done by implementing a passcode lock and enabling the remote wipe feature. A passcode lock adds an extra layer of security by requiring a password or PIN to access the device, preventing unauthorized access. Remote wipe allows the user to remotely erase all the data on the smartphone in case it is lost or stolen, ensuring that sensitive information does not fall into the wrong hands. By combining these two measures, the smartphone and its data can be effectively protected from unauthorized access and potential data breaches.
19.
Your customer has a computer (called comp_science that has been infected by a worm. The worm has...
Correct Answer
D. Disconnect the network cable from the computer
Explanation
Disconnecting the network cable from the infected computer is the correct answer because it will effectively isolate the computer from the network. By disconnecting the network cable, the worm will not be able to spread further or communicate with other devices on the network. This will prevent any potential damage or unauthorized access caused by the worm.
20.
You have determined that the USB controller is malfunctioning. What should you do first to...
Correct Answer
B. Use the Windows Device Manager
Explanation
The correct answer is to use the Windows Device Manager. The Windows Device Manager is a tool that allows you to manage and troubleshoot hardware devices connected to your computer. In this case, since the USB controller is malfunctioning, using the Windows Device Manager would be the first step to diagnose and potentially fix the issue. It allows you to view and manage the USB controller, update drivers, disable or enable the device, and check for any error messages or conflicts that may be causing the malfunction.
21.
Your computer's laptop's LCD is being scratched by the keyboard when the lid is closed....
Correct Answer
B. Clean with a wet cloth
Explanation
Cleaning the LCD with a wet cloth is the correct answer because using a wet cloth can help remove any dirt or debris that may be causing the scratches. However, it is important to use a soft, non-abrasive cloth and to ensure that it is only slightly damp, as excessive moisture can damage the screen.
22.
Which command should you use to fid out the intergrity of a hard drive?
Correct Answer
D. CHKDSK
Explanation
CHKDSK is the correct command to use in order to check the integrity of a hard drive. CHKDSK stands for "Check Disk" and it is a command-line utility in Windows that scans the file system and file system metadata of a disk for errors and fixes them if possible. It also checks for bad sectors and attempts to recover any readable information. By running CHKDSK, you can ensure the integrity and health of your hard drive.
23.
Which of the following printer failures is described as a condition in which the internal feed
Correct Answer
B. Paper jam
Explanation
A paper jam is a printer failure that occurs when paper gets stuck inside the printer and cannot be properly fed through the printing mechanism. This can happen due to various reasons, such as misaligned paper, too much paper being fed at once, or foreign objects obstructing the paper path. When a paper jam occurs, the printer is unable to continue printing until the jammed paper is removed, causing a disruption in the printing process.
24.
You are upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. What is the best tool to use...
Correct Answer
C. Easy Transfer
Explanation
Easy Transfer is the best tool to use when upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. This tool allows users to transfer files, settings, and user accounts from one computer to another. It simplifies the migration process and ensures that important data is not lost during the upgrade. Easy Transfer is specifically designed to facilitate the transition between different versions of Windows, making it the most suitable option for this scenario.
25.
You work at a PC bench and receive a laptop that has a dim display. You confirm that it is...
Correct Answer
B. LCD Inverter
Explanation
The correct answer is LCD Inverter. The LCD Inverter is responsible for providing power to the backlight of the LCD panel, which in turn illuminates the display. If the laptop has a dim display, it indicates a problem with the LCD Inverter, as it is not supplying enough power to the backlight. This can be resolved by replacing the faulty LCD Inverter.
26.
Which of the following answers can be the cause of a blue screen error?
Correct Answer
B. Bad device driver
Explanation
A bad device driver can be the cause of a blue screen error. Device drivers are software programs that allow the operating system to communicate with hardware devices. If a device driver is poorly designed or incompatible with the operating system, it can cause system instability and lead to a blue screen error. This error occurs when the operating system encounters a critical error that it cannot recover from, resulting in a blue screen being displayed on the computer screen.
27.
You are setting up a SOHO wireless network. Which of the following provides the best security?
Correct Answer
A. Enable SSID and configure WPA2
Explanation
Enabling SSID and configuring WPA2 provides the best security for a SOHO wireless network. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier, which is the name of the wireless network. Enabling it allows devices to easily identify and connect to the network. WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is a security protocol that encrypts the data transmitted over the network, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to access and intercept the information. By combining both the enablement of SSID and the configuration of WPA2, the network is not only easily identifiable but also protected with strong encryption, ensuring the highest level of security for the SOHO wireless network.
28.
Which of the following utilities enables a Windows 7 user to edit a file offline, and then...
Correct Answer
A. Sync Center
Explanation
Sync Center is the correct answer because it is a utility in Windows 7 that allows users to synchronize files between their computer and other devices or network locations. It enables users to edit files offline and then automatically sync the changes when they reconnect to the network. This allows for seamless collaboration and ensures that the most up-to-date version of the file is always available. The other options listed do not provide the same functionality as Sync Center.
29.
19. Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista?
Correct Answer
B. Aero
Explanation
Aero is the correct answer because it is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista. Aero was introduced in Windows Vista and it featured a sleek and modern design with transparent window borders, animated effects, and a new taskbar. It provided users with a visually appealing and user-friendly interface for navigating and interacting with the operating system.
30.
What is the minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7?
Correct Answer
C. 2GB
Explanation
The minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7 is 2GB. This is because 64-bit operating systems require more memory to run efficiently compared to 32-bit systems. With 2GB of memory, the system will have enough resources to handle the demands of running Windows 7 and any associated programs without experiencing significant slowdowns or performance issues.
31.
13. What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation ofWindows Vista Home Basic?
Correct Answer
B. 15GB
Explanation
The minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic is 15GB. This is because the operating system requires a certain amount of space to install and function properly. Having at least 15GB of free space ensures that there is enough room for the installation process and any additional files or updates that may be required.
32.
You have been told to use the /FIXBOOT switch to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7machine. Which command does this switch work with?
Correct Answer
B. BOOTREC
Explanation
The /FIXBOOT switch is used with the BOOTREC command to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7 machine. The BOOTREC command is a Windows Recovery Environment tool that can fix various boot-related issues. By using the /FIXBOOT switch with the BOOTREC command, you can repair or replace the boot sector, which is essential for the computer to start up properly.
33.
14. You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run System FileChecker. What do you do to make System File Checker automatically repair your systemfiles if repair is needed?
Correct Answer
D. Run SFC /SCANNOW
Explanation
Running "SFC /SCANNOW" command in Windows XP will initiate the System File Checker tool to scan the system files for any corruption or errors. If any issues are found, the tool will automatically attempt to repair the corrupted files. Therefore, running "SFC /SCANNOW" will make the System File Checker automatically repair the system files if repair is needed.
34.
Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the operatingsystem boots?
Correct Answer
B. Primary partition
Explanation
The primary partition is specifically the partition from which the operating system boots. This is because the primary partition contains the necessary boot files and the operating system itself. The active partition, on the other hand, is the partition that the computer boots from initially, but it may not necessarily contain the operating system. The extended partition and logical partition are used for creating additional partitions within a primary partition, but they are not directly involved in the boot process.
35.
19. Which of the following switches can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a completedirectory tree?
Correct Answer
B. /MIR
Explanation
The /MIR switch can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a complete directory tree. This switch will copy all files and subdirectories, including empty ones, and will also delete any files and subdirectories in the destination that do not exist in the source. It essentially creates an exact replica of the source directory in the destination directory.
36.
Which editions of Windows 7 can create a HomeGroup? (Choose four.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows 7 Professional
D. Windows 7 Enterprise
E. Windows 7 Ultimate
Explanation
Windows 7 Home Premium, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Enterprise, and Windows 7 Ultimate can create a HomeGroup.
37.
As an administrator, you need to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan arollout of Windows 7. Which tool can be used for this purpose?
Correct Answer
B. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
Explanation
The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit is the tool that can be used by an administrator to get an inventory of computers on the network and plan a rollout of Windows 7. This tool provides a comprehensive inventory of hardware, software, and device compatibility information, which helps in assessing the readiness of the network for a Windows 7 deployment. It also provides recommendations and reports to aid in the planning process. UDMT, USMT, and MigWiz are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not provide the same level of functionality as the MAP Toolkit.
38.
Which utility is shown in the following screen shot?
Correct Answer
C. Windows Anytime Upgrade
Explanation
The utility shown in the screenshot is Windows Anytime Upgrade.
39.
Which feature allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system?
Correct Answer
D. ReadyBoost
Explanation
ReadyBoost is the feature that allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system. ReadyBoost works by using the flash memory on the SD card as a cache, which can improve the system's performance by providing faster access to frequently used data. By utilizing the additional memory provided by the SD card, ReadyBoost can reduce the reliance on the slower hard drive for accessing data, resulting in faster overall system performance.
40.
What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition ofWindows 7?
Correct Answer
D. 192GB
Explanation
The maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition of Windows 7 is 192GB. This means that the operating system can handle and utilize up to 192 gigabytes of RAM for improved performance and multitasking capabilities. Having a higher amount of RAM allows for smoother and faster operations, especially when running resource-intensive applications or performing complex tasks.
41.
What is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista?
Correct Answer
D. BOOTMGR
Explanation
BOOTMGR is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista. It is responsible for locating the operating system and loading it into memory. BOOTMGR is a crucial component of the Windows boot process and is essential for the system to start up successfully. It is responsible for initiating the Windows Boot Manager, which then loads the necessary files and drivers to start the operating system.
42.
Which Windows Vista feature allows you to recover from an accidental deletion or overwrite?
Correct Answer
D. Shadow Copy
Explanation
Shadow Copy is a Windows Vista feature that allows users to recover from accidental deletion or overwrite. It creates copies or snapshots of files and folders on a regular basis, allowing users to restore previous versions of their files if needed. This feature is especially useful in situations where important files are accidentally modified or deleted, providing a way to revert back to a previous state and recover the data.
43.
You are migrating one stand-alone machine from Windows XP to Window Vista. Which ofthe following tools should you consider for transferring user state data and application files?
Correct Answer
C. Windows Easy Transfer
Explanation
Windows Easy Transfer is the correct tool to consider for transferring user state data and application files when migrating from Windows XP to Windows Vista. Windows Easy Transfer is a utility provided by Microsoft that allows users to transfer files, folders, program settings, user accounts, and other data from one computer running Windows to another. It simplifies the migration process by providing a user-friendly interface and automating the transfer of data and settings.
44.
Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista?
Correct Answer
C. Public
Explanation
The Public network location in Windows Vista disables network discovery. This means that devices on the network cannot find or communicate with each other, providing a more secure environment for public networks such as those found in coffee shops or airports. In the Public network location, network sharing and file sharing are also turned off by default to prevent unauthorized access to files and resources.
45.
What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk?
Correct Answer
A. Automated System Recovery (ASR)
Explanation
Automated System Recovery (ASR) is the correct answer because it is a feature in Windows XP that allows users to create a recovery disk. This recovery disk can be used to restore the system to a previously saved state in case of system failure or other issues. ASR creates a backup of the system's critical files, system state, and disk configuration, making it an effective tool for recovering a Windows XP system.
46.
During what type of installation must a user be present to choose all options as they appear?
Correct Answer
A. Attended
Explanation
During an attended installation, a user must be present to choose all options as they appear. This means that the user is actively involved in the installation process and has the ability to make decisions and select the desired options at each step. This type of installation is typically used when customization or user input is required during the installation process.
47.
Which of the following is a replacement for RIS?
Correct Answer
C. WDS
Explanation
WDS is a replacement for RIS.
48.
Which of the following is/are performed by formatting the hard drive? (Choose four.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and marks the
areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors.
B. Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles
C. The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors.
D. Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location
of files
Explanation
Formatting the hard drive performs several tasks. Firstly, it scans the surface of the hard drive platter to identify and mark bad spots, designating the surrounding areas as bad sectors. Secondly, it lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles on the hard drive. These tracks are then split into smaller segments called sectors, each containing 512 bytes of data. Lastly, formatting creates a File Allocation Table (FAT) that stores information about the location of files on the hard drive.
49.
Windows XP includes a feature called a _________, which is a copy of your system configurationthat can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs.
Correct Answer
A. Restore point
Explanation
Windows XP includes a feature called a restore point, which is a copy of your system configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. This allows users to undo any changes made to the system settings or software installations and revert back to a stable state.
50.
Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or userinformation during setup. These files are also known as what?
Correct Answer
A. UDFs
Explanation
UDF: User-defined functions (frequently abbreviated as UDFs) let you code your own application logic for processing column values during an Impala query : DLL :Stands for "Dynamic Link Library." A DLL (.dll) file contains a library of functions and other information that can be accessed by a Windows program