CPSGT Practice Quiz 2020 Aasm

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1. Please select the logo of Visa in the given image.
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CPSGT Practice Quiz 2020 Aasm - Quiz

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2. EEG is brain activity.

Explanation

The given statement is true because EEG (Electroencephalography) is a technique used to measure and record the electrical activity of the brain. It involves placing electrodes on the scalp to detect and amplify the electrical signals produced by the brain's neurons. EEG is commonly used in medical and research settings to study brain function, diagnose neurological disorders, and monitor brain activity during sleep or anesthesia. Therefore, it can be concluded that EEG is indeed a measure of brain activity.

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3. EMG activity is muscle movement

Explanation

EMG stands for electromyography, which is a technique used to measure and record the electrical activity produced by muscles. This electrical activity is generated during muscle contraction and is directly related to muscle movement. Therefore, it is correct to say that EMG activity is muscle movement.

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4. What are the 3 AC inputs in PSG?

Explanation

EEG- electroencephalogram evaluates electrical activity in the brain, EOG - electro - oculogram records eyem ovements, EMG - electromyogram records muscle movements.

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5. EOG activity is eye movement.

Explanation

EOG activity refers to the measurement of eye movements. It is used to study various aspects of eye movement, such as saccades, fixations, and smooth pursuit. By measuring the electrical activity around the eyes, researchers can gain insights into how the eyes move and track objects. Therefore, the statement that EOG activity is eye movement is true.

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6. The ground electrode is placed at T4. 

Explanation

The ground electrode is placed at Fpz, no electrodes will be read without it.

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7. What MSLT montage is required by the AASM?

Explanation

The AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) requires the MSLT (Multiple Sleep Latency Test) montage to include EEG (electroencephalogram), EOG (electrooculogram), Chin EMG (electromyogram), and EKG (electrocardiogram). These are the necessary channels to monitor brain activity, eye movements, chin muscle activity, and heart function during the test. This combination of measurements helps in assessing sleep disorders and determining sleep latency.

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8. An apnea must have a decrease of airflow of at least 90% for at least 10 seconds. 

Explanation

An apnea is a temporary cessation of breathing, and it is defined as a decrease in airflow of at least 90% for a minimum duration of 10 seconds. This means that during an apnea episode, the airflow is significantly reduced, resulting in a pause in breathing for at least 10 seconds. Therefore, the statement is true.

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9. Where is the nasian located?

Explanation

The nasian is located between the forehead and nose. This is the area where the bridge of the nose meets the forehead.

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10. Parasomnias can make you sleep walk, have sleep terrors, or engage in sleep sex. 

Explanation

They are characterized by abnormal and unnatural behaviors, movements and dreams in connection with sleep.

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11. Sleep paralysis may occur with narcolepsy. 

Explanation

Beware the sleep paralysis demon

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12. Pain medications like codeine, oxy, and meth, do not increase central apneas. 

Explanation

THEY ABSOLUTELY DO - REMEMBER THIS. Pain meds INCREASE central apneas. They also increase TST, but decrease SWS and REM.

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13. How many nap opportunities are there during the MSLT?

Explanation

The patients are typically given nap opportunities at 2 hour intervals

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14. What is the most stable electrode for PSG?

Explanation

Gold is the most stable, but most expensive. Silver Chloride is the next most stable, but constantly has to be rechlorided.

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15. What is the "10-20" system?

Explanation

The "10-20" system is a standard method used to describe the location of scalp electrodes. This system is commonly used in electroencephalography (EEG) to ensure consistent and accurate electrode placement across different individuals. The system divides the scalp into regions based on percentages of specific anatomical landmarks, such as the nasion (the midpoint between the forehead and the bridge of the nose) and the inion (the external occipital protuberance at the back of the head). The "10-20" system allows for precise and standardized electrode placement, which is essential for accurate interpretation of EEG data.

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16. Hallucinations never occur during Narcolepsy. 

Explanation

They may occur.

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17. The hypoxic drive occurs at high altitudes. 

Explanation

Under normal conditions, the response to hypoxia is virtually non existent. hypoxia is vital at extreme altitudes or in certain disease processes.

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18. When is HSAT testing INAPPROPRIATE?

Explanation

HSAT testing is inappropriate in all the mentioned conditions. Central sleep apnea, neuromuscular disorders, other sleep disorders (narcolepsy, parasomnias, PLMD), pediatrics, and cardio-pulmonary comorbidities can all affect the accuracy and reliability of the results obtained from HSAT testing. Therefore, it is not recommended to use HSAT testing in these cases.

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19. Marijuana - an illicit substance - can incrase sleep efficiency. 

Explanation

It can also increase SWS , decrease SOL, REM, and eyemovements.

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20. Odd numbered electrode positions are only on the LEFT side of the head. 

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that odd numbered electrode positions are indeed only on the left side of the head. This means that the electrodes are placed in a specific pattern, with odd numbers being assigned to the left side and even numbers being assigned to the right side. This pattern helps in accurately measuring and recording brain activity during various medical procedures or tests.

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21. What is Respiration?

Explanation

The correct answer is the exchange of gases (CO2 & O2) at the alveolar capillary level of the lung. Respiration refers to the process of exchanging gases between the body and the environment. In the lungs, oxygen from the inhaled air enters the bloodstream through the alveoli, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, is removed from the bloodstream and exhaled. This exchange of gases occurs at the alveolar capillary level, where oxygen is taken up by red blood cells and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli to be exhaled.

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22. What is ventilation?

Explanation

Breathe in! Breathe out! Thats ventilation!

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23. The circadian clock regulates the timing of sleep.

Explanation

The circadian clock is an internal biological clock that regulates various physiological processes, including sleep-wake cycles. It helps to regulate the timing of sleep by signaling the body to feel sleepy at night and awake during the day. This internal clock is influenced by external cues such as light and darkness, helping to synchronize our sleep patterns with the natural day-night cycle. Therefore, the statement "The circadian clock regulates the timing of sleep" is true.

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24. You associate an arousal with a scored movement if there is < 0.5 sec between the end of one event, and the onset of another event, regardless of which is first. 

Explanation

If there is less than 0.5 seconds between the end of one event and the onset of another event, regardless of which event occurs first, an arousal is associated with a scored movement. Therefore, the statement is true.

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25. During Theta activity, it is normal for adults to feel drowsy. 

Explanation

During Theta activity, the brain is in a state of deep relaxation and is associated with drowsiness. This brainwave pattern is commonly observed during meditation, hypnosis, and deep sleep. Therefore, it is normal for adults to feel drowsy during Theta activity.

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26. Thermocouples measure airflow by detecting the rate of temperature change. 

Explanation

Thermocouples are temperature sensors that work based on the principle of the Seebeck effect. They consist of two different metals joined together, and when there is a temperature difference between the junctions, a voltage is generated. By measuring this voltage, the rate of temperature change can be determined. Therefore, it is true that thermocouples can measure airflow by detecting the rate of temperature change.

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27. Ventrical fibrillation is the most dangerous cardiac disturbance. 

Explanation

Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening cardiac rhythm disturbance characterized by rapid and chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart. This condition prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood to the body, leading to a lack of oxygen supply to vital organs. Without immediate medical intervention, ventricular fibrillation can result in cardiac arrest and death. Therefore, it is considered the most dangerous cardiac disturbance.

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28. Where is the inian located?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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29. What 2 anatomical landmarks are used for essential EEG electrode positioning?

Explanation

The correct answer is the nasian and inian. These two anatomical landmarks are commonly used for essential EEG electrode positioning. The nasian refers to the nasion, which is the depression between the forehead and the bridge of the nose. The inian refers to the inion, which is the external occipital protuberance at the back of the skull. These landmarks help in accurately placing the EEG electrodes on the scalp for recording brain activity.

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30. What are the 5 sleep stages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Stage W, Stage R, Stage N3, Stage N2, Stage N1. These are the five sleep stages according to the standard classification system. Stage W refers to the wakefulness stage, where the person is fully awake. Stage R is the rapid eye movement (REM) stage, characterized by rapid eye movements and vivid dreaming. Stage N3 is the deep sleep stage, also known as slow-wave sleep. Stage N2 is a lighter stage of sleep, and Stage N1 is the transition between wakefulness and sleep.

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31. What is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) and what does it do?

Explanation

The Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) is a small region in the hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythms, which are the body's internal clock that regulates sleep and wake cycles. It acts as the pacemaker for the sleep/wake cycle, coordinating the timing of various physiological and behavioral processes throughout the day. This region helps synchronize the body's functions with the external environment, such as light and darkness, to maintain a regular sleep schedule.

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32. Even numbered electrode positions are only on the LEFT side of the head. 

Explanation

Even numbered electrode positions are only on the RIGHT side of the head.

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33. Unequal electrode impedance is the most common form of impedance.

Explanation

The more equal the better!

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34. Is insomnia a sign or a symptom?

Explanation

Insomnia can be considered both a sign and a symptom of a sleep disorder. As a sign, it indicates the presence of insomnia and serves as an observable indication of the condition. On the other hand, as a symptom, insomnia is experienced by the individual and is a subjective manifestation of the sleep disorder. Therefore, insomnia can be seen as both a sign and a symptom, depending on the context in which it is being discussed.

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35. Biocalibrations are done to test the patients signals, as well as to get a baseline for the PSG.

Explanation

Any channels not working should be fixed at this point.

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36. Beta Blockers like Propanolol can increase REM fragmentation and dream recall/nightmare frequency. 

Explanation

Other beta blockers with the same effects are Atenolol, metoprolol, lipophyllic (think the OLOLS)

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37. What is the ground electrode, and why is it important?

Explanation

The ground electrode is an important component in medical settings as it serves multiple purposes. Firstly, it is a 3 prong plug that is typically placed at Fpz (a specific location on the head) to ensure proper grounding. This helps protect the patient from any stray current that could potentially shock them. Additionally, the ground electrode must be on for the electrodes to be read accurately, ensuring accurate readings and measurements. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for the importance of the ground electrode.

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38. Delta activity is only seen in Stage N2 Sleep.

Explanation

Delta is seen in Stage 3 - Deep sleep. It is only normal if seen in an adult patient in a deep sleep. if it is seen any other time, it would indicate a brain dysfunction.

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39. What frequency is Theta activity?

Explanation

Theta activity refers to a specific frequency range of brain waves that occur during certain states of consciousness, such as deep relaxation or meditation. The correct answer, 4 Hz - 7 Hz, falls within this frequency range and is commonly associated with the theta state. This frequency range is also associated with increased creativity, intuition, and access to subconscious information.

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40. Which sleep stage do you spend the last third of your night in?

Explanation

The correct answer is Stage R. Stage R, also known as REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, is the stage of sleep where most dreaming occurs. It typically happens in the last third of the night and is characterized by rapid eye movements, increased brain activity, and muscle paralysis. During this stage, the brain is highly active, and the body experiences increased heart rate and irregular breathing. REM sleep is essential for memory consolidation, learning, and emotional processing.

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41. PSG calibrations only need to be completed at the beginning of the study. 

Explanation

Calibrations need to be done at the beginning and end of every study to verify the signals.

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42. Arousal and PLM are associated if start 0.5 sec before or after. 

Explanation

This statement suggests that there is a relationship between arousal and periodic leg movements (PLM) if they occur within a 0.5 second window before or after each other. In other words, if there is a change in arousal level, it is likely to be accompanied by PLM within this specific time frame.

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43. If you have a creepy crawly feeling while awake or falling asleep, you have _____ . - Acronym in CAPS

Explanation

RLS stands for Restless Leg Syndrome. Restless Leg Syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs, often described as a creepy crawly feeling. This sensation typically occurs when a person is awake or trying to fall asleep, leading to an irresistible urge to move the legs. RLS can cause discomfort and disrupt sleep, making it difficult to relax and get restful sleep.

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44. Absent effort throughout the entire period of absent airflow is a _____ apnea.

Explanation

In this question, the correct answer is "central." The question is asking for the type of apnea that occurs when there is an absence of effort throughout the entire period of absent airflow. Central apnea is characterized by a lack of respiratory effort, where the brain fails to send the necessary signals to the muscles that control breathing. This is different from obstructive apnea, which is caused by a physical blockage of the airway.

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45. What LFF settings are recommended for EEG/EOG activity by the AASM? 

Explanation

The AASM recommends using a low-frequency filter (LFF) setting of 0.3 Hz to remove slow wave artifacts and a high-frequency filter (HFF) setting of 35 Hz to eliminate high-frequency noise. This combination allows for accurate analysis and interpretation of EEG/EOG activity.

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46. What reasons should PLMS should not be scored?

Explanation

The reasons why PLMS should not be scored include if they are isolated, aperiodic movements, if they are followed by respiratory events, and if there is muscle activity during REM. Additionally, PLMS should not be scored if there are less than 5 events per hour. Therefore, all of the above reasons should be considered for not scoring PLMS.

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47. What is the MSLT primarily used for?

Explanation

The Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) is primarily used for patients with suspected narcolepsy and for patients who are super sleepy. The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day and is used to evaluate excessive daytime sleepiness and to diagnose narcolepsy. It is also used for patients who are excessively sleepy to determine the cause of their sleepiness. Therefore, options A and C are correct as they both mention the primary uses of the MSLT.

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48. What is hypercapnea?

Explanation

Hypercapnea refers to increased levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the bloodstream. This condition can occur due to various factors such as hypoventilation, impaired lung function, or respiratory disorders. When there is an excess of CO2 in the body, it can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, and increased heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increased levels of CO2."

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49. What does the (RAS) Reticular Activating System do?

Explanation

The (RAS) Reticular Activating System relays signals and aids in maintaining consciousness. It is responsible for filtering and relaying important sensory information to the brain, allowing us to stay alert and aware of our surroundings. Additionally, it helps regulate our sleep-wake cycle and plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall level of consciousness.

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50. Thermistors use nasal and oral sensors to detect a change in temperature. 

Explanation

Thermistors are temperature sensors that use a special type of resistor made from semiconductor materials. They work by measuring changes in electrical resistance as the temperature changes. They do not use nasal and oral sensors, as mentioned in the statement. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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51. What frequency is Alpha activity?

Explanation

Alpha activity refers to the brain waves that occur when a person is in a relaxed but awake state. These brain waves have a frequency range of 8 Hz to 13 Hz. This frequency range is associated with a calm and relaxed mental state, often observed during meditation or when a person is daydreaming.

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52. ____% of sleep is spent in Stage R - REM

Explanation

During sleep, the human sleep cycle consists of different stages, one of which is REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep. REM sleep is characterized by rapid eye movements, vivid dreams, and increased brain activity. The given answer options suggest that a certain percentage of sleep time is spent in REM sleep. The options "20" and "25" indicate that either 20% or 25% of sleep time is spent in REM sleep. The option "last third of the night" suggests that REM sleep is more likely to occur during the final portion of a night's sleep.

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53. Continued or increased inspiratory effort throughout the entire period of absent airflow is _____ apnea. 

Explanation

Obstructive apnea refers to a condition where there is a complete or partial blockage of the airway, leading to a cessation or reduction in airflow during breathing. In this type of apnea, the individual continues to make an increased effort to inhale, but no airflow occurs. This can result in snoring, gasping, or choking sounds as the body tries to overcome the obstruction and resume normal breathing.

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54. How many categories did the International Classification of Sleep Disorders break down the 85 sleep disorders into?

Explanation

The International Classification of Sleep Disorders broke down the 85 sleep disorders into 7 categories.

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55. What frequency is Beta activity?

Explanation

Beta activity refers to the brainwaves that occur at a frequency of greater than 13 Hz. This frequency range is associated with alertness, focus, and active thinking. It is often observed during periods of concentration, problem-solving, and cognitive tasks.

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56. What is hypoxia?

Explanation

Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a decrease in the levels of oxygen (O2) in the body. This can occur due to various reasons such as high altitudes, lung diseases, or respiratory problems. When there is a decrease in the levels of oxygen, it can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, dizziness, and even loss of consciousness. Therefore, the answer "Decreased levels of O2" accurately describes hypoxia as it highlights the main characteristic of this condition.

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57. The MWT is terminated at sleep onset or after 40 minutes in bed with no sleep. 

Explanation

Although the patient is given 4-5 different nap opportunities, their goal is to see if the patient can stay awake in under stimulating circumstances. Think semi truck drivers. This testing is also a good indicator for patients who have treated narcolepsy.

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58. Pediatric patients always have Alpha waves.

Explanation

The statement is false. Alpha waves are not exclusive to pediatric patients. Alpha waves are a type of brain wave that occur in the frequency range of 8-13 Hz and can be observed in individuals of all ages, not just pediatric patients.

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59. When scoring respiratory events for pediatrics, you need 2 skipped breaths for scoring. 

Explanation

When scoring respiratory events for pediatrics, it is true that you need 2 skipped breaths for scoring. This means that if a child skips two breaths during a respiratory event, it is considered significant and should be scored accordingly. This scoring system helps healthcare professionals assess the severity and frequency of respiratory events in pediatric patients.

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60. What is a notch filter (60 Hz filter) used for?

Explanation

A notch filter, also known as a 60 Hz filter, is used to remove noise specifically from electrical sources without affecting other frequencies. This type of filter is commonly used in applications where electrical interference or hum at the 60 Hz frequency needs to be eliminated, such as in audio systems or power supplies. By selectively attenuating the noise at this specific frequency, the notch filter allows for cleaner and clearer signals to be transmitted or processed.

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61. What is respiration?

Explanation

The aftermath of ventilation - the actual chemical exchange

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62. What must be included in HSAT Level 3 testing for it to be validated?

Explanation

To validate HSAT Level 3 testing, it is necessary to include airflow and effort channels. These parameters are crucial in monitoring and evaluating the respiratory function of the individual undergoing the test. Airflow channels measure the flow of air in and out of the respiratory system, providing insights into any breathing abnormalities. Effort channels, on the other hand, measure the effort exerted during breathing, helping to identify any respiratory muscle weakness or inefficiency. Including both airflow and effort channels ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's respiratory function, making the HSAT Level 3 testing more accurate and reliable.

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63. A _____ belt is an elastic belt used for effort. It contains a zigzagging/coiled wire that is sewn in and is designed to expand and contract with respiratory efforts. CAPS, ACRONYM

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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64. Benzodiazepines will reduce K-Complex frequency.

Explanation

They also reduce SOL and WASO, and increase TST and apnea frequency and durations.

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65. PONs is critical for initiating REM sleep. 

Explanation

The PONs is located on the brain steam - small and ball shaped. It sends signals to the spinal cord causing temporary paralysis.

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66. Leg movements should be scored if preceeding OR following an apnea or hypopnea.

Explanation

They should NOT be scored if following an apnea or hypopnea.

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67. Absent effort in the initial portion of the event, followed by resumption of effort in the second portion of the event is a _____ apnea. 

Explanation

The term "mixed" in the context of this question refers to a type of apnea where there is a combination of both absent effort in the initial portion of the event and resumption of effort in the second portion of the event. In other words, during a mixed apnea, there is a period of no breathing effort followed by a period of resumed breathing effort.

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68. How many events would a patient needs for a diagnosis of severe sleep apnea?

Explanation

To diagnose severe sleep apnea, a patient would need to experience more than 30 events. This means that the patient would need to have more than 30 episodes of breathing pauses or shallow breathing during sleep, known as apneas or hypopneas. These events are typically measured using a sleep study, which monitors the patient's breathing patterns and oxygen levels during sleep. If the patient experiences fewer than 30 events, they may be diagnosed with a milder form of sleep apnea or another sleep disorder.

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69. What do PSG amplifier filters and settings do?

Explanation

PSG amplifier filters and settings allow the interpreter to accentuate normal activity and clean up or eliminate garbage. This means that the filters and settings can enhance the clarity of the signals related to normal activity while removing any unwanted or irrelevant signals, improving the overall quality of the interpretation.

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70. What does sensitivity control? (Think volume in a radio)

Explanation

The sensitivity control adjusts the size of the activity being displayed. This means that by increasing or decreasing the sensitivity, the displayed activity can be made larger or smaller. It does not control the frequency or speed of the activity being displayed, nor does it control the volume of a car radio.

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71. Alpha activity disappears when the eyes are open in Beta.

Explanation

Alpha activity refers to a specific brain wave pattern that occurs when a person is in a relaxed and wakeful state with closed eyes. When the eyes are open, the brain transitions into a more active state known as beta activity. Therefore, it is true that alpha activity disappears when the eyes are open in beta.

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72. What is the manual titration levels for adults?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 apneas, 3 hypopneas, 5 RERAS, 3 snoring. This answer suggests that the manual titration levels for adults include a certain number of apneas, hypopneas, RERAS (Respiratory Effort-Related Arousals), and snoring events. These events are used to assess the severity of sleep-disordered breathing and determine the appropriate treatment for the individual.

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73. What is the manual titration levels for pediatrics?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 apneas, 1 hypopnea, 3 RERAS, 1 snoring. This answer is likely correct because it follows a pattern of increasing numbers for each type of event (apneas, hypopneas, RERAS, snoring), and the numbers are not too high or too low. This suggests that it is a reasonable manual titration level for pediatrics. However, without further context or information about the specific guidelines or standards for pediatric titration, it is difficult to provide a definitive explanation.

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74. What LFF settings are recommended by the AASM for EMG activity?

Explanation

The AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) recommends a low frequency filter (LFF) setting of 10 Hz and a high frequency filter (HFF) setting of 100 Hz for EMG (electromyography) activity. This means that any signals below 10 Hz or above 100 Hz will be filtered out or attenuated. This specific LFF and HFF setting range is suggested to effectively capture and analyze EMG activity during sleep studies or other related procedures.

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75. Hypercapnea is increased levels of ___ . CAPS

Explanation

Hypercapnea is a medical condition characterized by abnormally high levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. This can occur due to various reasons such as hypoventilation, lung diseases, or impaired gas exchange. Elevated CO2 levels can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, headaches, and even respiratory failure in severe cases. Monitoring and managing CO2 levels are crucial in treating hypercapnea and underlying conditions.

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76. What is an indicator that a sleep stage is N1 or Stage R?

Explanation

An indicator that a sleep stage is N1 or Stage R is a low chin EMG. EMG stands for electromyogram, which measures muscle activity. During N1 sleep stage or Stage R (REM sleep), the muscles are typically relaxed, leading to a low level of muscle activity. Therefore, a low chin EMG reading would suggest that the sleep stage is either N1 or Stage R.

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77. How many total electrodes are there placed on the body during a PSG?

Explanation

During a PSG (Polysomnography), a total of 26 electrodes are placed on the body. These electrodes are used to monitor and record various physiological activities such as brain waves, eye movements, muscle activity, heart rate, and breathing patterns. Additionally, there is also a ground electrode that is placed to ensure proper electrical grounding and minimize interference. Therefore, the total number of electrodes placed on the body during a PSG is 26 + ground.

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78. What is Ventilation?

Explanation

Ventilation refers to the act of air entering and exiting the lungs. It involves the process of inhaling oxygen and exhaling carbon dioxide. This exchange of gases is essential for maintaining proper oxygen levels in the body and removing waste gases. Ventilation is facilitated by the contraction and relaxation of respiratory muscles, which enable the movement of air in and out of the lungs.

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79. How many sleep disorders exist?

Explanation

There are over 85 sleep disorders that have been identified and classified by experts in the field. These disorders can range from insomnia and sleep apnea to narcolepsy and restless leg syndrome. Each disorder has its own unique symptoms and treatment options. It is important to consult a sleep clinician to accurately diagnose and treat any sleep disorder that an individual may be experiencing.

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80. Central Disorders of Hypersomnolence is also known as ___________?

Explanation

Narcolepsy is a neurological disorder with an extreme tendency to fall asleep at any time with abnormal REM sleep. It can result in the loss of muscle tone and can be initiated by strong emotions.

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81. Hypoxia is decreased levels of _____ . CAPS

Explanation

Hypoxia is a condition characterized by decreased levels of oxygen (O2) in the body. This can occur due to various reasons such as high altitudes, lung diseases, or impaired oxygen delivery to the tissues. In hypoxia, the body's cells and tissues do not receive an adequate amount of oxygen, which can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, fatigue, and confusion. Therefore, the correct answer is O2.

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82. Match the following

Explanation

basic understanding of this cardiac cycle is necessary before discussing abnormal heart rhythms

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83. The measure of the ability or tendancy to fall asleep is measured by conducting the _____ - acronym in caps

Explanation

The MSLT (Multiple Sleep Latency Test) is a measure of the ability or tendency to fall asleep. It is conducted by monitoring a person's sleep patterns and recording the time it takes for them to fall asleep in a controlled environment. This test is commonly used to diagnose sleep disorders such as narcolepsy and assess the effectiveness of treatment options.

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84. Stage N3 has the LOWEST threshold of wake during the night.

Explanation

The statement is false because Stage N3, also known as deep sleep or slow-wave sleep, has the highest threshold of wake during the night. This stage is characterized by the lowest brain activity and it is difficult to wake someone up during this stage.

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85. What do HFF's do?

Explanation

A high-pass filter (HFF) is a type of electronic filter that allows frequencies above a certain cut-off frequency to pass through while attenuating frequencies below the cut-off. In this case, the answer states that HFFs allow all frequencies below the cut-off to pass unchanged, which means that the filter does not affect or attenuate those frequencies.

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86. What is a differential amplifier?

Explanation

A differential amplifier is used to produce and measure the voltage difference between two signals of each input. This voltage difference is then amplified and displayed as a channel of EEG activity.

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87. A hypopnea can be scored if it is >/= 5% oxygen desat or the event is associated with an arousal. 

Explanation

There must be a >/= 3% desaturation to score a hypopnea. Additionally, all criteria must be met to score a hypopnea.

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88. Match the following neutransmitters
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89. What are the 4 DC inputs recorded in PSG?

Explanation

respiration can also typically be AC

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90. Babies only have Stage 3 and REM sleep. 

Explanation

Babies only have Stage 3 and REM sleep because their sleep patterns are different from adults. Stage 3 sleep, also known as deep sleep, is crucial for growth and development in infants. During this stage, the body repairs and regenerates tissues, strengthens the immune system, and releases growth hormones. REM sleep, on the other hand, is important for brain development and cognitive function. It is characterized by rapid eye movements and vivid dreaming. These two stages of sleep are essential for the healthy development of babies.

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91. What do LFF/LLF's ( High Pass Filters) do?

Explanation

High Pass Filters (HPF) are designed to allow all frequencies above the cut-off frequency to pass through unchanged. This means that any signal with a frequency higher than the cut-off frequency will not be attenuated or filtered out. However, frequencies below the cut-off will be attenuated or blocked, effectively reducing their amplitude or removing them from the signal. In other words, the HPF allows high-frequency components to pass through while attenuating or blocking low-frequency components.

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92. The hypothalamus is responsible for REM sleep. 

Explanation

The hypothalamus is part of the RAS. it controls NREM sleep. it may be the region responsible for keeping track of our sleep debt.

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93. Hypercapnic/hypoxic response can have what effects?

Explanation

this can result in lower desaturations and longer respiratory events

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94. What HFF settings are recommended by AASM for ECG/EKG activity?

Explanation

The AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) recommends using a high-frequency filter (HFF) setting of 500 Hz for ECG/EKG activity. This setting helps to remove noise and interference from the signal. Additionally, a low-frequency filter (LFF) setting of 200 Hz is recommended to eliminate baseline wander and other low-frequency artifacts. Using these specific HFF settings ensures that the ECG/EKG recordings are clear and accurate.

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95. What frequency is Delta activity?

Explanation

Delta activity refers to the brain waves that are associated with deep sleep and unconsciousness. These brain waves have a frequency range of 0.5 Hz to 4 Hz, which means they oscillate at a rate of 2 to 4 cycles per second. This frequency range is characteristic of the slowest and highest amplitude brain waves, indicating a state of deep relaxation and rest.

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96. What is the main activity seen in younger (pediatric) patients?

Explanation

Theta brainwaves are commonly observed in younger (pediatric) patients. Theta activity is associated with deep relaxation, daydreaming, and the early stages of sleep. It is also seen during creative and imaginative activities, as well as during periods of focused attention. In younger patients, theta waves may be more prevalent due to their developing brains and higher levels of imagination and creativity. Therefore, theta is the main activity seen in younger patients.

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97. What HFF settings are recommended by AASM for EMG activity?

Explanation

The AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) recommends using HFF (high-frequency filter) settings of 500 Hz for EMG (electromyography) activity. Additionally, a LFF (low-frequency filter) setting of 200 Hz is recommended. These settings help to accurately capture and analyze the EMG activity during sleep studies.

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98. What is the minimum and maximum IPAP for pediatrics < 12 years old?

Explanation

The correct answer is 8 cm H20 / 10 cm H20. This means that the minimum Inspiratory Positive Airway Pressure (IPAP) for pediatrics under 12 years old is 8 cm H20, while the maximum IPAP is 10 cm H20. IPAP is a measure of the pressure applied during inhalation to help keep the airways open and improve breathing. It is important to note that this answer may vary depending on the specific guidelines or protocols followed in different healthcare settings.

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99. What are some examples of Sleep Disordered Breathing (SDB)?

Explanation

The examples provided in the question are all related to sleep disorders or abnormal breathing during sleep. Sleep Disordered Breathing (SDB) refers to a group of conditions characterized by disruptions in normal breathing patterns during sleep. Abnormal breathing patterns, such as pauses in breathing or shallow breathing, are common symptoms of SDB. OSA, or Obstructive Sleep Apnea, is a specific type of SDB where the airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to pauses in breathing. Snoring is another common symptom of SDB, often associated with OSA.

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100. What effects do wake promoting agents like Modafinil (Alertec -Canada, Provigil - US) have on a PSG?

Explanation

Wake promoting agents like Modafinil (Alertec - Canada, Provigil - US) have multiple effects on a PSG (polysomnography) test. They can decrease sleepiness scores, meaning they help to reduce feelings of drowsiness and increase alertness. They also decrease SOL (sleep onset latency), which refers to the time it takes to fall asleep. Additionally, they decrease wake time, meaning they help to decrease the amount of time spent awake during sleep. Lastly, these agents do not cause any changes to sleep architecture, meaning they do not alter the overall structure or pattern of sleep stages. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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101. In what sleep stage do parasomnias take place?

Explanation

Parasomnias, which are abnormal behaviors or experiences during sleep, typically occur during Stage N3 of sleep. This stage is also known as slow-wave sleep or deep sleep, and it is characterized by slow brain waves and deep relaxation. Parasomnias can include sleepwalking, night terrors, and sleep talking, among others. During Stage N3, it is common for individuals to experience these types of sleep disturbances.

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102. If your legs move involuntarily while asleep, you have _____ . Acronym in CAPS

Explanation

PLMS stands for Periodic Limb Movement Syndrome. This condition is characterized by involuntary leg movements during sleep. These movements can range from simple twitches to more complex and repetitive movements. PLMS can disrupt sleep and lead to daytime fatigue and sleepiness. It is often associated with restless legs syndrome (RLS), a condition characterized by uncomfortable sensations in the legs and an irresistible urge to move them. Treatment options for PLMS may include medications, lifestyle changes, and addressing any underlying medical conditions contributing to the symptoms.

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103. If your legs move while asleep, and can be associated with RLS and other movement disorders, you have _____ - Acronym in CAPS

Explanation

PLMD stands for Periodic Limb Movement Disorder. This disorder is characterized by involuntary and repetitive movements of the legs during sleep. These movements can range from subtle twitches to more pronounced jerking motions. PLMD is often associated with Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS), a condition that causes uncomfortable sensations in the legs and an overwhelming urge to move them. Both PLMD and RLS can disrupt sleep and lead to daytime fatigue and other related symptoms.

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104. _____ has an extra beat, every 2nd beat. 

Explanation

https://www.google.com/search?q=bigeminy&rlz=1C1CHWL_enCA627CA627&sxsrf=ALeKk03fxvkBUGZcvWbd8gm0ZgzmpFWkJw:1582830319065&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwil9KC3tvLnAhWzFzQIHQqQARgQ_AUoAXoECA4QAw&biw=1920&bih=975#imgrc=i3DsN_lJvWgiZM

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105. _____ has an extra beat every 3rd beat

Explanation

https://www.google.com/search?q=trigeminy&rlz=1C1CHWL_enCA627CA627&sxsrf=ALeKk00XuITT6XvlEVmRbzYKgxMsQxoQDA:1582830408290&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwib4-bhtvLnAhVtJzQIHTgUDssQ_AUoAXoECA4QAw&biw=1920&bih=975#imgrc=cnI0uNCjJgWxbM

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106. How many channels must be included in HSAT Level  testing to be validated?

Explanation

They MUST include airflow and effort

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107. What is the minimum and maximum IPAP for adults?

Explanation

The minimum and maximum IPAP for adults is 8 cm H2O and 30 cm H2O respectively.

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108. Please select the Arousal scoring rules as per the AASM for NREM: 

Explanation

According to the AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) scoring rules for NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep, to classify an event as an arousal, it must meet the following criteria: there should be an abrupt shift in EEG frequency (such as Alpha, Theta, or frequencies greater than 16Hz), the shift should last at least 3 seconds, and there should be at least 10 seconds of stable sleep before and after the change. Therefore, the given answer correctly includes all the necessary criteria for scoring arousal in NREM sleep according to AASM guidelines.

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109. What neurotransmitters control the REM stage (ON Only)?

Explanation

Acetylcholine is the correct answer because it is the primary neurotransmitter that controls the REM stage of sleep. During REM sleep, the brain is highly active and acetylcholine plays a crucial role in regulating this state. It is responsible for promoting the activation of various brain regions, including the hippocampus and cortex, which are involved in memory consolidation and dreaming. Acetylcholine also helps to suppress muscle activity during REM sleep, ensuring that the body remains still and immobile. Serotonin and noradrenaline are involved in other aspects of sleep regulation but do not specifically control the REM stage.

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110. Respiratory medications like Ventolin have severe effects on sleep. 

Explanation

There are no changes in sleep, however, you may see an increased heart rate. It is suggested to not take 30 minutes before bedtime.

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111. What is the Thalamus?

Explanation

The thalamus is a relay station in the brain that receives sensory information from various parts of the body and sends it to the appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex for further processing. It is also responsible for generating many of the brain rhythms during N Rem sleep, which is a stage of sleep characterized by rapid eye movement. Therefore, options A and B are both correct as they accurately describe the functions of the thalamus.

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112. What HFF settings are recommended by the AASM for EEG/EOG activity?

Explanation

The AASM recommends using a high-frequency filter (HFF) setting of 500 Hz for EEG/EOG activity. This means that any signals above 500 Hz will be filtered out. Additionally, a low-frequency filter (LFF) setting of 200 Hz is recommended. This means that any signals below 200 Hz will be filtered out. These settings are important for obtaining accurate and reliable EEG/EOG recordings, as they help to eliminate unwanted noise and artifacts from the signal.

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113. What types of medications can increase Beta activity?

Explanation

Xanax and Valium are medications that can increase beta activity. These drugs belong to the class of benzodiazepines, which are known to have a stimulating effect on the brain's beta waves. Beta waves are associated with alertness, concentration, and active thinking. Xanax and Valium work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which helps to regulate the excitability of neurons in the brain. By increasing the activity of beta waves, these medications can potentially improve cognitive function and promote wakefulness. Rispordal and Pentasa, on the other hand, are not known to have any direct effect on beta activity.

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114. Slowing is normal during Theta activity. 

Explanation

Theta activity is associated with a state of deep relaxation and creativity. During theta activity, the brainwaves slow down, which is considered normal. Therefore, the given statement that slowing is normal during theta activity is true.

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115. Alpha activity can typically be found in the _______ of the head. 

Explanation

Alpha activity refers to a type of brain wave activity that occurs during a relaxed and awake state. These waves are typically found in the posterior region of the head, which is commonly referred to as the "back" of the head. The repetition of "back, Back, BACK" in the answer emphasizes that the correct location for alpha activity is indeed the back of the head.

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116. How many events would a patient need for a diagnosis of mild sleep apnea?

Explanation

A patient would need less than 5 events to be diagnosed with mild sleep apnea. This means that if a patient experiences less than 5 instances of interrupted breathing during sleep, they would be classified as having mild sleep apnea.

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117. ____ % of sleep is spent in N1 - Non REM 1.

Explanation

The given answer states that 10% of sleep is spent in N1 - Non REM 1. This means that out of the total sleep duration, 10% of it is spent in the first stage of non-rapid eye movement sleep. N1 is the lightest stage of sleep where individuals are easily awakened and may experience muscle twitches.

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118. What is the maximum EPAP for adults?

Explanation

The maximum EPAP for adults is 4 cm H20. EPAP stands for expiratory positive airway pressure and is a setting on a positive airway pressure machine that helps keep the airways open during sleep. A higher EPAP can be uncomfortable for patients, so it is important to find the right level for each individual. In this case, the correct answer is 4 cm H20, indicating that this is the maximum pressure that should be used for adults.

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119. What is a Montage?

Explanation

A montage refers to the configuration of all the channels that you want to include in your study. It is the arrangement of electrodes or channels on the scalp or body to record specific brain activities or physiological signals. This configuration is important for obtaining accurate and relevant data during a study or experiment.

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120. Please select arousal scoring rules as per the AASM for REM:

Explanation

The AASM (American Academy of Sleep Medicine) guidelines for REM (Rapid Eye Movement) arousal scoring include specific criteria. One of the criteria is the requirement of at least a 1-second change in EMG (Electromyogram) activity. This indicates a significant change in muscle activity during REM sleep. Another criterion is the presence of an abrupt shift in EEG (Electroencephalogram) activity, which indicates a sudden change in brain wave patterns. These scoring rules help in identifying and quantifying arousals during REM sleep.

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121. What does the homeostatic mechanism do?

Explanation

The homeostatic mechanism refers to the body's ability to regulate and maintain a stable internal environment. In the context of sleep, it is responsible for regulating sleep intensity. This means that it helps to ensure that the quality and depth of sleep are maintained at an appropriate level. The homeostatic mechanism works in conjunction with other factors, such as the circadian rhythm, to regulate sleep-wake cycles and ensure that the body gets the right amount and quality of sleep needed for optimal functioning.

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122. ____ % of sleep is spent in Stage N2 - Non REM 3. 

Explanation

The given answer, 20%, suggests that during sleep, 20% of the time is spent in Stage N2 - Non REM 3. This stage is a part of non-rapid eye movement sleep and is characterized by the presence of both sleep spindles and K-complexes in the brainwave activity. It is a deeper stage of sleep compared to N1 and N2, but not as deep as N3 (also known as slow-wave sleep). This stage is important for consolidating memories, restoring energy, and promoting overall physical and mental health.

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123. Please select rules for scoring limb movements as per the AASM:

Explanation

The AASM scoring rules for limb movements state that a movement must have a duration of 0.5 - 10 seconds, with a minimum amplitude increase of 8 uV. Each movement is scored if it is part of a sequence of 4 movements. The scoring period should be a minimum of 5 seconds and a maximum of 90 seconds. These criteria must be met in order to accurately score limb movements according to the AASM guidelines.

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124. What channels MUST be included in HSAT level 3 testing? 

Explanation

HSAT level 3 testing requires the inclusion of channels that measure Effort and Airflow. These channels are essential for monitoring the respiratory effort and airflow during sleep. By measuring these parameters, the test can provide valuable information about the quality of sleep and potential sleep disorders. The inclusion of O2 Saturations and Heart rate channels may be useful for additional monitoring and analysis, but they are not mandatory for HSAT level 3 testing.

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125. Please select the 7 categories of sleep disorders, as identified by the ICSD3:

Explanation

The correct answer includes the 7 categories of sleep disorders as identified by the ICSD3. These categories are Insomnia, Parasomnias, Other, Circadian Rhythm Disorders, Sleep Related Breathing Disorders, Central Disorders of Hypersomnolence (Narcolepsy), and Sleep Related Movement Disorders.

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126. _____ have no P or QRS waves. HR has reached 300-600 bpm. no blood, no intervals. EXTREMELY IRREGULAR! BUT, still has electrical activity, and can be shocked! 

Explanation

Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia characterized by the rapid and chaotic contraction of the ventricles. In this condition, there are no discernible P or QRS waves on an electrocardiogram (ECG) due to the disorganized electrical activity in the ventricles. The heart rate can range from 300 to 600 beats per minute, and the rhythm is extremely irregular. Despite the absence of effective contractions and blood flow, there is still some electrical activity present, which allows for the possibility of restoring a normal rhythm through defibrillation.

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127. What are medication examples of Non- Benzodiazepines (the ZZZ'ds of sleep)?

Explanation

The correct answer includes Zopiclone (Imovane), Zaleplon (Sonata - USA), Zolpidem (Ambien - USA), and Eszopiclone (Lunesta). These medications are examples of non-benzodiazepines that are commonly used for sleep disorders. They work by targeting specific receptors in the brain to promote sleep and are often prescribed for short-term use to help with insomnia. Dexedrine, Valium, and Ativan are not examples of non-benzodiazepines and are used for different purposes such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and anxiety.

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128. Match the following

Explanation

The normal adult heart rate is 60- 100 bpm, and are counted using the R waves. If the SA node takes a break manager takes over, if manager takes a break, the extra staff take over and can cause many different rhythms.

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129. The major drive to breathe, the major stimulus to breathe, is called the __________________ . No caps. 1 space. 

Explanation

As CO2 increases and reaches the set point, inspiration is initiated to eliminate C02 and bring in 02.

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130. What does the peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consist of?

Explanation

Sensory neurons are receptors that inform the CNS of stimuli - think of being poked by a pin. Effectors are muscles and glands that take action - think knee jerk reaction.

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131. What 3 basic wave forms are included in an EKG waveform - including additional components?

Explanation

https://www.google.com/search?q=QRS+wave&rlz=1C1CHWL_enCA627CA627&sxsrf=ALeKk01U4F4hwwNs9s6hhD4c_6QdMnIS4A:1582829068876&tbm=isch&source=iu&ictx=1&fir=e1DK720GR0Ca-M%253A%252CXSyQcLNjax8UIM%252C_&vet=1&usg=AI4_-kTRyDwC3LxtF4g_VgE9eGo-hjUZ-g&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiMrI_jsfLnAhW0FjQIHYJ-D2cQ_h0wAHoECAkQBA#imgrc=1X3d3vHZHFbkLM

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132. The _______ is primarily effected by drugs that keep us awake, or make us sleepy.

Explanation

The reticular activating system (RAS) is primarily affected by drugs that keep us awake or make us sleepy. The RAS is a network of neurons located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating wakefulness and arousal. Drugs that stimulate the RAS can increase alertness and keep us awake, while drugs that inhibit the RAS can induce sleepiness and drowsiness.

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133. _____ is a graphic waveform of CO2 in a given time consent. It provides the estimated tidal volume. _____ is used to record end tidal CO2. The measurement of CO2 changes during ventilation. We use an _____ to measure SPO2 using a finger probe. Whereas, a more invasive measurement, _____ , is taken during an ABG. -- NO CAPS IN ANSWER

Explanation

A capnograph is a graphic waveform of CO2 in a given time consent. It provides the estimated tidal volume. Capnography is used to record end tidal CO2. The measurement of CO2 changes during ventilation. We use an oximeter to measure SPO2 using a finger probe. Whereas, a more invasive measurement, sao2, is taken during an ABG.

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134. _____ are 2 PVC's together

Explanation

https://www.google.com/search?q=couplets+ventricular+arrhythmias&tbm=isch&ved=2ahUKEwjon5P8tvLnAhU8ATQIHeS1AZ0Q2-cCegQIABAA&oq=couplets+ventricular+arrhythmias&gs_l=img.3...4239.9600..9754...0.0..0.127.1865.23j1......0....1..gws-wiz-img.......0i67j0i8i30j0i24.H8zN7sBB6KQ&ei=fxNYXqjkILyC0PEP5OuG6Ak&bih=975&biw=1920&rlz=1C1CHWL_enCA627CA627#imgrc=nMgTFmYZG0zziM

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135. Dopaminergic Agents can have the following effects:

Explanation

Dopaminergic Agents like Mirapex and Requip are used to treat RLS and Parkinsons disease.

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136. Beta activity is typically recorded in the ________ or _____ of the head. 

Explanation

Beta activity is typically recorded in the center or front of the head.

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137. What is the equation needed to find sensitivity? - All caps, no spaces ____=_____/_____

Explanation

Sensitivity - S
uV input signal voltage - V
Amplitude - A

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138. This heart block looks pretty regular. The PR interval gets consistently longer with each beat longer than 0.20 sec. not that significant of a block. _____

Explanation

The given explanation suggests that the PR interval consistently gets longer with each beat, but it is not significantly long enough to indicate a significant blockage. This pattern is characteristic of a 1st Degree AV Block, where there is a delay in the conduction of electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles.

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139. What effects can caffeine have on sleep?

Explanation

Caffeine can have several negative effects on sleep. It can increase sleep onset latency (SOL), which means it takes longer to fall asleep. It can also increase wake after sleep onset (WASO), causing more frequent awakenings during the night. Caffeine can increase the amount of time spent in stage 1 sleep, which is the lightest stage of sleep. It can also increase sleep fragmentation, leading to a more disrupted and less restful sleep. Additionally, caffeine can increase leg movements during sleep. Overall, caffeine can decrease total sleep time (TST) and decrease the amount of REM sleep, which is important for restorative sleep.

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140. This block has P waves ALWAYS at the same rhythm at EXACTLY the same distance. The QRS has a random rhythm. Think of a marriage when its over <--------- no talking -----------> . This is _____ .

Explanation

The given description states that the P waves in this block always occur at the same rhythm and at exactly the same distance, while the QRS complex has a random rhythm. This pattern is compared to a marriage that is over and there is no communication between the partners. This description matches the characteristics of a 3rd Degree Block, also known as a complete heart block, where there is a complete dissociation between the atria and the ventricles. The atria and ventricles beat independently of each other, resulting in a random rhythm for the QRS complex.

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141. This heart block has a PR interval that gets longer, longer, longer, until it drops AT RANDOM. It can progress to a complete heart block. Keep in mind, medications, infection, hypoxemia, scar tissues from surgery can cause this. Not every QRS has a P wave. This is _____ . 

Explanation

This heart block is characterized by a PR interval that progressively lengthens until a beat is dropped at random. It can potentially progress to a complete heart block. Various factors such as medications, infection, hypoxemia, and scar tissues from surgery can contribute to this condition. In 2nd Degree Mobitz 2, not every QRS complex is preceded by a P wave.

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142. How do stimulants effect the following sleep functions:

Explanation

Medications like Dexedrine and Ritalin is under stimulants.

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143. What effects on sleep can anti depressants have?

Explanation

Anti depressants can have several effects on sleep. They can prolong REM latency, which means it takes longer for REM sleep to occur. They can also increase total NREM sleep, which is non-rapid eye movement sleep. Additionally, anti depressants can decrease total REM sleep, which is rapid eye movement sleep. They can also cause increased motor restlessness, such as periodic limb movement syndrome (PLMS) and bruxism. Another effect is an increase in REM density, which can result in "prozac eyes." Lastly, anti depressants can decrease total sleep time (TST) and increase sleep fragmentation.

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144. Please select examples of 'Other' Sleep disorders:

Explanation

The correct answer includes examples of 'Other' sleep disorders such as disorders that cannot be classified in the other 6 categories of the ICSD-3, overlapping of 2 disorders, medical or psychiatric conditions, alcoholism, and panic attacks. These examples are different types of sleep disorders that do not fit into specific categories or overlap with other disorders. They can be caused by various factors including underlying medical or psychiatric conditions, substance abuse, or specific symptoms like panic attacks.

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145. There are two types of PVC's. _____ looks alike, happening in the same place. _____ difference places from the heart/ventrical. 

Explanation

Unifocal PVCs refer to premature ventricular contractions that have the same appearance and occur in the same place in the heart. On the other hand, multifocal PVCs are premature ventricular contractions that have different appearances and occur in different places in the heart.

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146. An _____ is an absence of rhythm. A _____ is an abnormal rhythm. 

Explanation

Abnormal is a disturbance of impulse formation. Something may be wrong with the SA node. There is a distance of pulse induction, and can be too fast or too slow.

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147. This heart block has DROPPED its QRS. It gets longer, longer, longer until it drops. There is NO PATTERN. Missed QRS = dropped. This is _____ .

Explanation

In 2nd Degree Block Mobitz 1, there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. This pattern is characterized by a repeating cycle of lengthening PR intervals followed by a dropped QRS complex. Therefore, the given explanation aligns with the characteristics of 2nd Degree Block Mobitz 1, where the QRS complex is dropped after a progressive lengthening of the PR interval.

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148. ___ and ____ are 2 sleep related MOVEMENT disorders. 

Explanation

Restless Leg Syndrome (RLS) and Periodic Leg Movements (PLMs) are two sleep-related movement disorders. RLS is a condition characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs, usually accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. PLMs, on the other hand, refer to repetitive leg movements during sleep that can disrupt sleep patterns. Both conditions can cause discomfort and sleep disturbances, leading to daytime fatigue and other related symptoms.

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Please select the logo of Visa in the given image.
EEG is brain activity.
EMG activity is muscle movement
What are the 3 AC inputs in PSG?
EOG activity is eye movement.
The ground electrode is placed at T4. 
What MSLT montage is required by the AASM?
An apnea must have a decrease of airflow of at least 90% for at least...
Where is the nasian located?
Parasomnias can make you sleep walk, have sleep terrors, or engage in...
Sleep paralysis may occur with narcolepsy. 
Pain medications like codeine, oxy, and meth, do not increase central...
How many nap opportunities are there during the MSLT?
What is the most stable electrode for PSG?
What is the "10-20" system?
Hallucinations never occur during Narcolepsy. 
The hypoxic drive occurs at high altitudes. 
When is HSAT testing INAPPROPRIATE?
Marijuana - an illicit substance - can incrase sleep efficiency. 
Odd numbered electrode positions are only on the LEFT side of the...
What is Respiration?
What is ventilation?
The circadian clock regulates the timing of sleep.
You associate an arousal with a scored movement if there is < 0.5...
During Theta activity, it is normal for adults to feel drowsy. 
Thermocouples measure airflow by detecting the rate of temperature...
Ventrical fibrillation is the most dangerous cardiac...
Where is the inian located?
What 2 anatomical landmarks are used for essential EEG electrode...
What are the 5 sleep stages?
What is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) and what does it do?
Even numbered electrode positions are only on the LEFT side of the...
Unequal electrode impedance is the most common form of impedance.
Is insomnia a sign or a symptom?
Biocalibrations are done to test the patients signals, as well as to...
Beta Blockers like Propanolol can increase REM fragmentation and dream...
What is the ground electrode, and why is it important?
Delta activity is only seen in Stage N2 Sleep.
What frequency is Theta activity?
Which sleep stage do you spend the last third of your night in?
PSG calibrations only need to be completed at the beginning of the...
Arousal and PLM are associated if start 0.5 sec before or after. 
If you have a creepy crawly feeling while awake or falling asleep, you...
Absent effort throughout the entire period of absent airflow is...
What LFF settings are recommended for EEG/EOG activity by the...
What reasons should PLMS should not be scored?
What is the MSLT primarily used for?
What is hypercapnea?
What does the (RAS) Reticular Activating System do?
Thermistors use nasal and oral sensors to detect a change in...
What frequency is Alpha activity?
____% of sleep is spent in Stage R - REM
Continued or increased inspiratory effort throughout the entire period...
How many categories did the International Classification of Sleep...
What frequency is Beta activity?
What is hypoxia?
The MWT is terminated at sleep onset or after 40 minutes in bed with...
Pediatric patients always have Alpha waves.
When scoring respiratory events for pediatrics, you need 2 skipped...
What is a notch filter (60 Hz filter) used for?
What is respiration?
What must be included in HSAT Level 3 testing for it to be validated?
A _____ belt is an elastic belt used for effort. It contains a...
Benzodiazepines will reduce K-Complex frequency.
PONs is critical for initiating REM sleep. 
Leg movements should be scored if preceeding OR following an apnea or...
Absent effort in the initial portion of the event, followed by...
How many events would a patient needs for a diagnosis of severe sleep...
What do PSG amplifier filters and settings do?
What does sensitivity control? (Think volume in a radio)
Alpha activity disappears when the eyes are open in Beta.
What is the manual titration levels for adults?
What is the manual titration levels for pediatrics?
What LFF settings are recommended by the AASM for EMG activity?
Hypercapnea is increased levels of ___ . CAPS
What is an indicator that a sleep stage is N1 or Stage R?
How many total electrodes are there placed on the body during a PSG?
What is Ventilation?
How many sleep disorders exist?
Central Disorders of Hypersomnolence is also known as ___________?
Hypoxia is decreased levels of _____ . CAPS
Match the following
The measure of the ability or tendancy to fall asleep is measured by...
Stage N3 has the LOWEST threshold of wake during the night.
What do HFF's do?
What is a differential amplifier?
A hypopnea can be scored if it is >/= 5% oxygen desat or the event...
Match the following neutransmitters
What are the 4 DC inputs recorded in PSG?
Babies only have Stage 3 and REM sleep. 
What do LFF/LLF's ( High Pass Filters) do?
The hypothalamus is responsible for REM sleep. 
Hypercapnic/hypoxic response can have what effects?
What HFF settings are recommended by AASM for ECG/EKG activity?
What frequency is Delta activity?
What is the main activity seen in younger (pediatric) patients?
What HFF settings are recommended by AASM for EMG activity?
What is the minimum and maximum IPAP for pediatrics < 12 years old?
What are some examples of Sleep Disordered Breathing (SDB)?
What effects do wake promoting agents like Modafinil (Alertec -Canada,...
In what sleep stage do parasomnias take place?
If your legs move involuntarily while asleep, you have _____ ....
If your legs move while asleep, and can be associated with RLS and...
_____ has an extra beat, every 2nd beat. 
_____ has an extra beat every 3rd beat
How many channels must be included in HSAT Level  testing to be...
What is the minimum and maximum IPAP for adults?
Please select the Arousal scoring rules as per the AASM for...
What neurotransmitters control the REM stage (ON Only)?
Respiratory medications like Ventolin have severe effects on...
What is the Thalamus?
What HFF settings are recommended by the AASM for EEG/EOG activity?
What types of medications can increase Beta activity?
Slowing is normal during Theta activity. 
Alpha activity can typically be found in the _______ of the...
How many events would a patient need for a diagnosis of mild sleep...
____ % of sleep is spent in N1 - Non REM 1.
What is the maximum EPAP for adults?
What is a Montage?
Please select arousal scoring rules as per the AASM for REM:
What does the homeostatic mechanism do?
____ % of sleep is spent in Stage N2 - Non REM 3. 
Please select rules for scoring limb movements as per the AASM:
What channels MUST be included in HSAT level 3 testing? 
Please select the 7 categories of sleep disorders, as identified by...
_____ have no P or QRS waves. HR has reached 300-600 bpm. no blood, no...
What are medication examples of Non- Benzodiazepines (the ZZZ'ds...
Match the following
The major drive to breathe, the major stimulus to breathe, is called...
What does the peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consist of?
What 3 basic wave forms are included in an EKG waveform - including...
The _______ is primarily effected by drugs that keep us awake, or make...
_____ is a graphic waveform of CO2 in a given time consent. It...
_____ are 2 PVC's together
Dopaminergic Agents can have the following effects:
Beta activity is typically recorded in the ________ or _____ of the...
What is the equation needed to find sensitivity? - All caps, no spaces...
This heart block looks pretty regular. The PR interval gets...
What effects can caffeine have on sleep?
This block has P waves ALWAYS at the same rhythm at EXACTLY the same...
This heart block has a PR interval that gets longer, longer, longer,...
How do stimulants effect the following sleep functions:
What effects on sleep can anti depressants have?
Please select examples of 'Other' Sleep disorders:
There are two types of PVC's. _____ looks alike, happening in...
An _____ is an absence of rhythm. A _____ is an abnormal...
This heart block has DROPPED its QRS. It gets longer, longer, longer...
___ and ____ are 2 sleep related MOVEMENT disorders. 
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