1.Crack FMGE - Previous Questions
Practice tests for students preparing for screening test
- 1.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
- A.
Blood culture
- B.
Widal
- C.
Stool culture
- D.
Urine culture
Correct Answer
B. WidalExplanation
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by Widal test. The Widal test is a serological test that detects antibodies in the blood against the bacteria Salmonella typhi, which causes typhoid fever. After 15 days of fever, the body would have had enough time to produce detectable levels of antibodies against the bacteria. Blood culture, stool culture, and urine culture may also be used to diagnose typhoid, but they are more effective in the early stages of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine?
- A.
Leptospira
- B.
Listeria
- C.
Legionella
- D.
Mycoplasma
Correct Answer
A. LeptospiraExplanation
Leptospira is transmitted by rat urine. Leptospira is a type of bacteria that can cause a disease called leptospirosis. Rats are carriers of this bacteria and can excrete it in their urine. Humans can become infected with Leptospira by coming into contact with contaminated water or soil that has been contaminated with rat urine. This can happen through direct contact with the urine or through ingestion of contaminated food or water. Therefore, Leptospira is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 3.
AII the following are true about Listeria except:
- A.
Transmitted by contaminated milk
- B.
Gram negative bacteria
- C.
Causes abortion in pregnancy
- D.
Causes meningitis in neonates
Correct Answer
B. Gram negative bacteriaExplanation
Listeria is a gram-positive bacterium, not a gram-negative one. It is a foodborne pathogen that can cause serious infections, including meningitis in neonates and abortion in pregnant women. However, it is not transmitted through contaminated milk.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides:
- A.
It is gram positive bacilli
- B.
It is strictiy aerobic
- C.
It may cause peritonitis
- D.
Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment
Correct Answer
C. It may cause peritonitisExplanation
Bacteroides is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract. It is gram-negative bacilli, not gram-positive. It is anaerobic, which means it does not require oxygen to survive. Bacteroides can cause various infections, including peritonitis, which is an inflammation of the peritoneum. Therefore, the statement "It may cause peritonitis" is true. The presence of Bacteroides in a stool culture may indicate the need for treatment, especially if the patient is symptomatic.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except:
- A.
Bacillus cereus
- B.
Yersinia enterocolitica
- C.
Staphylococcus
- D.
Clostridium perfringens
Correct Answer
D. Clostridium perfringensExplanation
Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by Bacillus cereus, Yersinia enterocolitica, and Staphylococcus. Clostridium perfringens does not produce heat stable enterotoxin and therefore is not a cause of this type of food poisoning.Rate this question:
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- 6.
HIV virus contains:
- A.
Single stranded DNA
- B.
Single stranded RNA
- C.
Double stranded DNA
- D.
Double stranded RNA
Correct Answer
B. Single stranded RNAExplanation
The correct answer is single stranded RNA. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that contains a single stranded RNA genome. This RNA serves as the genetic material of the virus and is responsible for encoding the viral proteins necessary for replication and infection. HIV uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA once it enters the host cell. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome and serves as a template for the production of new viral RNA and proteins.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:
- A.
It is a DNA retrovirus
- B.
Contains reverse transcriptase
- C.
May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes
- D.
Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
Correct Answer
A. It is a DNA retrovirusExplanation
HIV is a RNA retrovirus, not a DNA retrovirus. Retroviruses, including HIV, have RNA as their genetic material and use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA into DNA once inside the host cell. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome. HIV primarily infects CD4 T-lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. As the disease progresses, HIV causes a significant reduction in the number of CD4 cells, weakening the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 8.
CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below:
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
200
- D.
150
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
CMV retinitis is a condition that affects the retina of the eye and is commonly seen in individuals with HIV. It occurs when the CD4 counts, which indicate the strength of the immune system, fall below a certain level. In this case, the correct answer is 50, indicating that CMV retinitis can develop when the CD4 counts drop below 50. This suggests that a severely compromised immune system increases the risk of developing CMV retinitis in HIV patients.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:
- A.
Infectious mononucleosis
- B.
Infectious mononucleosis
- C.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- D.
Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Correct Answer
B. Infectious mononucleosisExplanation
Epstein Barr virus is a known cause of infectious mononucleosis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Therefore, the correct answer is "Infectious mononucleosis" because it is listed twice as an option.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent:
- A.
Mucor
- B.
Aspergillus
- C.
Histoplasma
- D.
Candida
Correct Answer
B. AspergillusExplanation
The presence of narrow angled septate hyphae in corneal scraping suggests the likely etiologic agent to be Aspergillus. Aspergillus is a genus of fungi that commonly causes invasive fungal infections, including keratitis, which is an infection of the cornea. The narrow angled septate hyphae are characteristic of Aspergillus species. Mucor, Histoplasma, and Candida are not typically associated with the presence of narrow angled septate hyphae in corneal scrapings.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy:
- A.
Consists of lipid laden macrophages
- B.
Consists of macrophages filled with AFB
- C.
Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
- D.
Consists of activated lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. Consists of macropHages filled with AFBExplanation
In lepromatous leprosy, globi refer to the characteristic structures found in the skin lesions. These globi consist of macrophages that are filled with Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB), which are the causative bacteria of leprosy. This finding is significant in diagnosing lepromatous leprosy as it confirms the presence of AFB within the macrophages.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except:
- A.
Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria
- B.
Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virus
- C.
Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubella
- D.
Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection
Correct Answer
C. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubellaExplanation
The given answer is correct because the specific IgM antibodies are not used for detecting immunity against rubella, but rather for detecting acute infection. IgM antibodies are produced in response to a current or recent infection, indicating an active immune response. Therefore, the specific IgM antibodies test is not useful for determining immunity against rubella, but rather for diagnosing a current infection.Rate this question:
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- 13.
IL-1 produces:
- A.
T lymphocyte activation
- B.
Delayed wound healing
- C.
Increased pain perception
- D.
Decreased PMN release from bone marrow
Correct Answer
A. T lympHocyte activationExplanation
IL-1, or Interleukin-1, is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune response. It is known to stimulate the activation and proliferation of T lymphocytes, which are important immune cells involved in the adaptive immune response. Therefore, IL-1 can enhance the immune response by promoting T lymphocyte activation. This activation helps in the recognition and elimination of pathogens, thereby contributing to the body's defense against infections.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
- A.
Tropical eosinophilia
- B.
Early elephantiasis
- C.
Early adenolymphangitis stage
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Early adenolympHangitis stageExplanation
Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in the early adenolymphangitis stage of filariasis. This stage is characterized by inflammation of the lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels. Microfilaria are the larval form of the filarial parasite and they circulate in the blood during this stage. They can be detected through a blood smear examination, which is an important diagnostic tool for filariasis. Tropical eosinophilia and early elephantiasis are not stages in which microfilaria are typically seen.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by:
- A.
Antigen detection in stool by ELISA
- B.
Antibody titres in serum
- C.
Antigen detection by immunoflurescence
- D.
Antigen detection in serum by ELISA
Correct Answer
A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISAExplanation
Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is done by detecting the presence of antigens in stool samples using the ELISA method. This is because rota virus primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, and the virus can be detected in the stool through antigen testing. Antibody titres in serum may indicate a past infection, but they are not used for confirming the current infection. Similarly, antigen detection by immunofluorescence and antigen detection in serum by ELISA are not the preferred methods for confirming rota virus infection.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except:
- A.
In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
- B.
In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
- C.
ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
- D.
Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Correct Answer
D. Drugs that produce a similar pHarmacological effect can have different levels of efficacyExplanation
The statement "Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy" is true. Efficacy refers to the maximum effect that a drug can produce, regardless of the dose. Different drugs with similar pharmacological effects can have varying levels of efficacy, meaning that one drug may be more effective in producing the desired effect compared to another drug. The other statements are all true, as efficacy is generally considered more important than potency in a clinical setup, the height of the log dose response curve corresponds to efficacy, and the ED50 (the dose at which 50% of the maximum effect is achieved) can be used as a measure of efficacy.Rate this question:
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- 17.
All the following are selective beta blockers, except:
- A.
Atenolol
- B.
Esmolol
- C.
Bisprolol
- D.
Celiprolol
Correct Answer
D. CeliprololExplanation
Celiprolol is not a selective beta blocker because it has additional alpha-blocking activity. Atenolol, Esmolol, and Bisprolol are all selective beta blockers, meaning they primarily target beta receptors in the body. However, Celiprolol also blocks alpha receptors, making it a non-selective beta blocker.Rate this question:
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- 18.
All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except:
- A.
Elderly person
- B.
Dehydration
- C.
Simultaneous use with penicillin
- D.
Aminoglycoside administration in recent past
Correct Answer
C. Simultaneous use with penicillinExplanation
Simultaneous use with penicillin does not increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity. Aminoglycosides and penicillins have different mechanisms of action and do not interact with each other in a way that would increase the risk of renal toxicity. The other factors listed, such as being elderly, dehydration, and recent administration of aminoglycosides, can all contribute to an increased risk of renal toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in:
- A.
Anxiety disorders
- B.
Acute intermittent porphyria
- C.
Kemincterus
- D.
Refractive status epilepticus
Correct Answer
B. Acute intermittent porpHyriaExplanation
Administration of barbiturates is contraindicated in Acute intermittent porphyria. This is because barbiturates can induce hepatic enzymes, which can lead to an increase in porphyrin synthesis and exacerbate the symptoms of porphyria.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is:
- A.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
- B.
Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition
- C.
Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer
- D.
Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Correct Answer
C. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancerExplanation
Tianeptine is known to enhance the reuptake of serotonin, leading to increased levels of serotonin in the brain. This mechanism of action is believed to contribute to its antidepressant effects.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 21, 2013Quiz Created by
Fmgs India
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