Test Your Knowledge About Force Protection Condition In This Quiz!
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In United States military security parlance, force protection condition (FPCON for short) is a counter-terrorist threat system overseen by the United States Department of Defense directive, and describes the number of measures needed to be taken by security agencies in response to various levels of terrorist threats against military facilities.
Test your knowledge about force protection condition in this quiz!
- 1.
FPCON Alpha applies when there is a(n) __________ threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable
- A.
INCREASED OR MORE PREDICTABLE
- B.
GENERAL
- C.
INCREASED GENERAL
- D.
GENERAL BUT NORMAL POSTURE
Correct Answer
C. INCREASED GENERALExplanation
FPCON Alpha is a threat condition that is applied when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, and the nature and extent of this threat are unpredictable. This means that there is a heightened level of threat, but it is not specific or easily predictable.Rate this question:
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- 2.
FPCON NORMAL-Applies when a ______ global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
- A.
GENERAL
- B.
INCREASED GENERAL
- C.
GENERAL BUT NORMAL POSTURE
- D.
INCREASED OR MORE PREDICTABLE
Correct Answer
A. GENERALExplanation
The correct answer is "GENERAL." FPCON NORMAL is applied when there is a general global threat of possible terrorist activity, but it does not require any specific increase in security measures. It indicates a routine security posture where standard security protocols are followed.Rate this question:
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- 3.
FPCON DELTA-Applies in the immediate area where a____________or when intelligence has been received that, terrorist action against a specific location or person is IMMINENT.
- A.
INCIDENT OCCURS
- B.
INTELLIGENCE IS RECEIVED
- C.
TERRORIST ACT IS POSSIBLE
- D.
TERRORIST ACT HAS OCCURED
Correct Answer
D. TERRORIST ACT HAS OCCUREDExplanation
FPCON DELTA is the highest level of Force Protection Condition. It is implemented when a terrorist act has occurred or when intelligence has been received that indicates an imminent terrorist action against a specific location or person. This means that once a terrorist act has occurred, the FPCON Delta measures are put in place to enhance security and protect against further attacks.Rate this question:
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- 4.
FPCON CHARLIE-Applies when an INCIDENT OCCURS or when __________indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
- A.
A FPCAM IS INITIATED
- B.
INTELLIGENCE IS RECEIVED
- C.
A COVERED WAGON
Correct Answer
B. INTELLIGENCE IS RECEIVEDExplanation
When intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely, FPCON CHARLIE is applied. This means that there has been an incident or a credible threat of a terrorist attack, and security measures need to be heightened to ensure the safety of personnel and facilities. The initiation of a FPCAM (Force Protection Condition Assessment and Management) and the use of a Covered Wagon (a secure communication system) may be part of the response to this heightened security level.Rate this question:
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- 5.
FPCON NORMAL-Applies when a GENERAL global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and ____________.
- A.
AN ATTACK IS IMMINENT
- B.
INTELLIGENCE IS RECEIVED INDICATING A SPECIFIC ATTACK SITE
- C.
WARRANTS AN INCREASED SECURITY POSTURE
- D.
WARRANTS A ROUTINE SECURITY POSTURE
Correct Answer
D. WARRANTS A ROUTINE SECURITY POSTUREExplanation
When FPCON NORMAL is applied, it means that there is a general global threat of possible terrorist activity. However, there is no indication of an imminent attack or specific attack site. Therefore, it warrants a routine security posture, indicating that the security measures should remain at their regular level without any significant increase or decrease.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Assign PL 4 to AF mission support assets which do not meet the definitions of PL 1, 2, or 3 resources as discussed in the preceding paragraphs, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would ___________the operational capability of the Air Force.
- A.
GREAT HARM
- B.
DAMAGE
- C.
ADVERSELY AFFECT
- D.
SIGNIFICANT HARM
Correct Answer
C. ADVERSELY AFFECTExplanation
Assigning PL 4 to AF mission support assets that do not meet the definitions of PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would "adversely affect" the operational capability of the Air Force means that these assets may not be critical or high-priority, but their compromise or loss would still have a negative impact on the Air Force's ability to carry out its missions. This suggests that even assets that are not considered highly important still play a role in maintaining operational effectiveness, and their protection is necessary to prevent any negative consequences.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Assign PL 2 to AF power projection assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause ______________ to the warfighting capability of the United States.
- A.
SIGNIFICANT HARM
- B.
DAMAGE
- C.
ADVERSELY AFFECT
- D.
GREAT HARM
Correct Answer
A. SIGNIFICANT HARMExplanation
Assigning PL 2 to AF power projection assets means that these assets are classified as having a significant level of importance and value to the warfighting capability of the United States. If these assets were to be lost, stolen, destroyed, misused, or compromised, it would result in significant harm to the warfighting capability. Therefore, the correct answer is "SIGNIFICANT HARM."Rate this question:
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- 8.
Assign PL 3 to AF power projection assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would ________US warfighting capability.
- A.
ADVERSELY AFFECT
- B.
SIGNIFICANT HARM
- C.
GREAT HARM
- D.
DAMAGE
Correct Answer
D. DAMAGEExplanation
Assigning PL 3 (Protect Level 3) to AF (Air Force) power projection assets means implementing measures to protect these assets from loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise. The use of the term "damage" in the answer suggests that the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise of these assets would cause harm or negative consequences to US warfighting capability. Therefore, assigning PL 3 to these assets is necessary to prevent such damage and ensure the effectiveness of US military operations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Assign PL 1 to AF power projection assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would result in ___________to the strategic capability of the United States.
- A.
SIGNIFICANT HARM
- B.
ADVERSELY AFFECT
- C.
DAMAGE
- D.
GREAT HARM
Correct Answer
D. GREAT HARMExplanation
Assigning PL 1 to AF power projection assets means designating them as the highest priority for protection. This is because the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise of these assets would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States. By assigning PL 1, the assets are given the utmost importance and resources are allocated to ensure their security and prevent any potential harm to the country's strategic capability.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 8 preconditions for use of Deadly Force?
- A.
ESCAPE
- B.
DEFENSE OF SELF AND OTHERS
- C.
DEFENSE OF OTHERS
- D.
ASSETS VITAL TO NATIONAL SECURITY
Correct Answer
B. DEFENSE OF SELF AND OTHERSExplanation
The correct answer is "DEFENSE OF SELF AND OTHERS." This answer is not one of the 8 preconditions for the use of deadly force. The other options, including ESCAPE, DEFENSE OF OTHERS, and ASSETS VITAL TO NATIONAL SECURITY, are all valid preconditions for the use of deadly force.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 8 preconditions for use of Deadly Force?
- A.
NATIONAL CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE
- B.
ASSETS VITAL TO DOD SECURITY
- C.
DEFENSE OF OTHERS
- D.
INHERENT RIGHT OF SELF DEFENSE
Correct Answer
B. ASSETS VITAL TO DOD SECURITYExplanation
The correct answer is "ASSETS VITAL TO DOD SECURITY." This answer is not one of the 8 preconditions for the use of deadly force. The 8 preconditions are not mentioned in the question, but based on the options provided, it can be inferred that "ASSETS VITAL TO DOD SECURITY" is the only option that does not pertain to the preconditions for the use of deadly force.Rate this question:
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- 12.
COVERED WAGON- reports inform HHQ that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, ___________, occurred at an installation or dispersed site.
- A.
PROBABLY OR ACTUALLY HOSTILE
- B.
POSSIBLY HOSTILE
- C.
THROUGH UTILIZATION OF VBIEDS
- D.
THROUGH UTILIZATION OF IEDS
Correct Answer
A. PROBABLY OR ACTUALLY HOSTILEExplanation
The correct answer is "PROBABLY OR ACTUALLY HOSTILE". This answer suggests that the incident reported in the covered wagon involves resources at PL 1, 2, or 3 and is likely to be hostile in nature. It implies that the incident may involve an intentional attack or threat against the installation or dispersed site.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A(n) _______, or down-channel alerting order, sets in motion an increase in readiness posture.
- A.
FPCON
- B.
FPCAM
- C.
HELPING HAND
- D.
COVERED WAGON
Correct Answer
B. FPCAMExplanation
FPCAM stands for Force Protection Condition and Activation Module. It is a system used by the military to alert and increase readiness posture in response to potential threats or emergencies. When a FPCAM order is issued, it initiates a series of actions and protocols to enhance force protection measures and ensure the safety and security of personnel and assets.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the M9 Pistol?
- A.
GAS OPERATED
- B.
SEMI AUTOMATIC
- C.
MAGAZINE FED
- D.
SINGLE OR DOUBLE ACTION
Correct Answer
A. GAS OPERATEDExplanation
The M9 Pistol is not gas operated. It is a semi-automatic pistol that is magazine fed and can be fired in either single or double action. Gas operation refers to a mechanism where the force generated by the propellant gases is used to cycle the firearm's action, but the M9 Pistol does not operate in this manner.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The maximum effective range of the M9 Pistol is ____
- A.
70 METERS
- B.
55 METERS
- C.
1800 METERS
- D.
50 METERS
Correct Answer
D. 50 METERSExplanation
The correct answer is 50 METERS. The M9 Pistol has a maximum effective range of 50 meters, meaning it is most accurate and effective within this distance. Beyond 50 meters, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease significantly.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the weight of the M9 Pistol WITH a loaded magazine?
- A.
41.89 OUNCES
- B.
42.00 OUNCES
- C.
40.89 OUNCES
- D.
33.86 OUNCES
Correct Answer
C. 40.89 OUNCESExplanation
The weight of the M9 Pistol with a loaded magazine is 40.89 ounces.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the maximum range of the M9 Pistol?
- A.
50 meters
- B.
3600 meters
- C.
1800 meters
- D.
2200 meters
Correct Answer
C. 1800 metersExplanation
The maximum range of the M9 Pistol is 1800 meters. This means that the pistol can effectively hit a target up to a distance of 1800 meters. It is important to note that the effective range may vary depending on factors such as the skill of the shooter, environmental conditions, and the specific ammunition used.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the length of the M9 pistol?
- A.
8.56 inches
- B.
14.00 inches
- C.
8.54 inches
- D.
14.5 inches
Correct Answer
C. 8.54 inchesExplanation
The correct answer is 8.54 inches. This is the length of the M9 pistol.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the cycle of operation for the M4?
- A.
Firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking,chambering, locking and firing
- B.
Unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking, chambering, locking, and firing
- C.
Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, and cocking
- D.
Chambering, feeding, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, and cocking
Correct Answer
C. Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, and cockingExplanation
The cycle of operation for the M4 begins with feeding, where a new round is loaded into the chamber. Then, the round is chambered, meaning it is positioned correctly in the chamber. Next, the firearm locks, ensuring that the round is securely in place. The firing mechanism is then activated, causing the round to be fired. After firing, the firearm unlocks, allowing for the extraction of the spent casing. The spent casing is then ejected from the firearm. Finally, the firearm is cocked, preparing it for the next round to be fed into the chamber.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Hanscom AFB is _______ federal jurisdiction
- A.
Concurrent
- B.
Exclusive
- C.
State
- D.
Proprietary
Correct Answer
B. ExclusiveExplanation
Hanscom AFB is under exclusive federal jurisdiction, meaning that it is solely governed by the federal government and not shared with any other entity or jurisdiction. This implies that the laws, regulations, and authorities applicable to the base are exclusively determined and enforced by the federal government, without involvement from state or local authorities.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Vandenberg gate is ________ jurisdiction with Lincoln PD 700 feet inward
- A.
State
- B.
Proprietary
- C.
Concurrent
- D.
Exclusive
Correct Answer
C. ConcurrentExplanation
The term "concurrent" refers to the sharing of jurisdiction or authority between two or more entities. In this context, the Vandenberg gate shares jurisdiction with the Lincoln PD 700 feet inward. This means that both entities have the power and authority to enforce laws and regulations in that specific area.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Hartwell gate is ________ jurisdiction with ______ PD 1200 feet inward
- A.
Proprietary, bedford
- B.
Concurrent, lincoln
- C.
Concurrent, lexington
- D.
State, lexington
Correct Answer
C. Concurrent, lexingtonExplanation
The correct answer is "concurrent, lexington". This means that Hartwell gate is under concurrent jurisdiction, which implies that both the state and the city of Lexington have authority over it. Additionally, the phrase "PD 1200 feet inward" suggests that the gate is located 1200 feet within the jurisdiction of Lexington.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What article of the UCMJ states exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction?
- A.
Article 5
- B.
Article 7B
- C.
Article 31
- D.
Article 2
Correct Answer
D. Article 2Explanation
Article 2 of the UCMJ states exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction. It defines the term "person subject to this chapter" and includes members of the armed forces, whether on active duty or not, as well as individuals who are retired from the armed forces but are entitled to pay. It also includes individuals who have been discharged but are still within the statutory period of limitations for certain offenses, and individuals who are in custody of the armed forces. This article provides a clear understanding of who falls under military jurisdiction.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What article of the UCMJ gives the provisions for the advisement of rights (military personnel)?
- A.
Article 7B
- B.
Article 5
- C.
Article 31
- D.
Article 2
Correct Answer
C. Article 31Explanation
Article 31 of the UCMJ provides the provisions for the advisement of rights for military personnel. This article states that no person subject to the UCMJ may be compelled to incriminate themselves or provide evidence against themselves. It also requires that military personnel be informed of their rights to remain silent, to have an attorney present during questioning, and that any statement they make may be used against them in a court-martial. This article ensures that military personnel are afforded similar rights as civilians when it comes to self-incrimination and the right to legal counsel.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Rule _____ of the Manual for Courts Martial and Article _____ of the UCMJ gives SF the authority to apprehend any person subject to trial by court martial
- A.
302, 7B
- B.
232, 5B
- C.
302, 2
- D.
302, 7
Correct Answer
A. 302, 7BExplanation
Rule 302 of the Manual for Courts Martial and Article 7B of the UCMJ give SF (Security Forces) the authority to apprehend any person subject to trial by court martial.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M4?
- A.
45 rpm
- B.
12-15 rpm
- C.
15-18 rpm
- D.
700-970 RPM
Correct Answer
B. 12-15 rpmExplanation
The M4 has a sustained rate of fire of 12-15 rounds per minute. This means that the weapon is designed to be fired continuously at this rate without overheating or causing excessive wear. It allows for a controlled and steady rate of fire, which is important in maintaining accuracy and conserving ammunition during sustained engagements.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the semi rate of fire for the M4?
- A.
12-15 rpm
- B.
45 rpm
- C.
90 rpm
- D.
15-18 rpm
Correct Answer
B. 45 rpmExplanation
The correct answer is 45 rpm. The M4 has a semi-automatic firing mode, which means that it fires one round with each pull of the trigger. The rate of fire is the number of rounds that can be fired in one minute. Therefore, the M4 can fire approximately 45 rounds per minute in semi-automatic mode.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What are the three type of lubricants used on the M4?
- A.
CLP, SLA, LAW
- B.
LSA, LAW, CCP
- C.
CLP, LSA, LAW
- D.
CCP, LAW, SLA
Correct Answer
C. CLP, LSA, LAWExplanation
The correct answer is CLP, LSA, LAW. CLP stands for Cleaner, Lubricant, and Protectant, which is a multi-purpose lubricant used for cleaning, lubricating, and protecting firearms. LSA stands for Lubricant, Small Arms, which is a heavy-duty lubricant specifically designed for small arms. LAW stands for Lubricant, Arctic Weapons, which is a specialized lubricant used in extreme cold weather conditions. These three types of lubricants are commonly used on the M4 rifle to ensure proper functioning and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What does the acronymn LAW stand for?
- A.
Lubricant All Weather
- B.
Lubricant Arctic Weather
- C.
Lubcricant After Weapon Firing
Correct Answer
B. Lubricant Arctic WeatherExplanation
The acronym LAW stands for Lubricant Arctic Weather. This suggests that the lubricant is specifically designed to be used in cold weather conditions. It implies that the lubricant has properties that allow it to function effectively in extremely low temperatures, ensuring smooth operation and protection of machinery and equipment in Arctic climates.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 11 is _______
- A.
Return to station
- B.
Positive Warrants
- C.
Immediate Assistance Required
- D.
Wants/Warrants
Correct Answer
B. Positive WarrantsExplanation
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 11 refers to "Positive Warrants." This means that there are active warrants for someone's arrest or search. The code is used to communicate this information quickly and concisely among personnel at Hanscom Air Force Base.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 15 is _________
- A.
Alarm Activation
- B.
Return to Station
- C.
Funds Escort
- D.
Bomb Threat
Correct Answer
C. Funds EscortExplanation
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 15 refers to "Funds Escort". This means that the code is used to indicate the need for an escort or protection for the transportation of funds. It suggests that there is a requirement for security measures to be in place during the movement of money or valuable assets.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 13 is _________
- A.
Immediate Assistance Required
- B.
Return to Station
- C.
Bomb Threat
- D.
Duress
Correct Answer
A. Immediate Assistance RequiredExplanation
Hanscom AFB Brevity Code 13 refers to "Immediate Assistance Required." This code is used to communicate that there is an urgent need for immediate help or support. It is likely used in situations where there is a critical or emergency situation that requires immediate attention or intervention.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the proper gear configuration for MOPP Level 2?
- A.
Wear PPE, carry overgarment, overboots, protective mask, and gloves
- B.
Overgarment, field gear and overboots. Carry protective mask and gloves
- C.
Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots and protective mask. Carry gloves
- D.
Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots protective, mask and gloves
Correct Answer
B. Overgarment, field gear and overboots. Carry protective mask and glovesExplanation
The proper gear configuration for MOPP Level 2 is to wear the overgarment, field gear, and overboots. Additionally, one should carry a protective mask and gloves. This combination of gear provides the necessary protection and readiness for potential chemical or biological hazards.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the proper gear configuration for MOPP Level 4?
- A.
Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots protective, mask and gloves.
- B.
Wear overgarment and field gear. Carry overboots, protective mask and gloves.
- C.
Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots and protective mask. Carry gloves.
- D.
Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots protective,and mask.
Correct Answer
A. Wear overgarment, field gear, overboots protective, mask and gloves.Explanation
The proper gear configuration for MOPP Level 4 includes wearing overgarment, field gear, overboots protective, mask, and gloves. This level of gear is necessary for maximum protection against chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats. Wearing all these components ensures that the individual is fully protected and ready to respond to any potential hazards.Rate this question:
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- 35.
ATNAA, CANA, MARK 1 Kits, and Diazepam Injectors are only utilized for ___________
- A.
Blister agent contamination
- B.
Nerve agent contamination
Correct Answer
B. Nerve agent contaminationExplanation
The ATNAA, CANA, MARK 1 Kits, and Diazepam Injectors are specifically designed and used for nerve agent contamination. These kits and injectors contain medications and antidotes that are effective in treating individuals who have been exposed to nerve agents. Nerve agents are highly toxic chemicals that can cause severe damage to the nervous system, and prompt administration of the appropriate antidotes is crucial in saving lives and minimizing the effects of the exposure. Therefore, these kits and injectors are not utilized for blister agent contamination, which involves a different type of chemical exposure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When M8 paper detects V-Series nerve agents it will turn what color(s)?
- A.
Pink or red
- B.
Brown
- C.
Blue or dark green
- D.
Gold or yellow
Correct Answer
C. Blue or dark greenExplanation
When M8 paper detects V-Series nerve agents, it will turn blue or dark green. This color change occurs due to a chemical reaction between the nerve agent and the reagents present in the M8 paper. The specific color change helps in identifying the presence of V-Series nerve agents, allowing for prompt action and appropriate countermeasures to be taken.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When M8 paper detects GF series nerve agents it will turn what color(s)?
- A.
Pink or red
- B.
Blue or dark green
- C.
Gold or yellow
- D.
Red-brown
Correct Answer
D. Red-brownExplanation
When M8 paper detects GF series nerve agents, it will turn red-brown. This color change is an indication of the presence of GF series nerve agents. The M8 paper is specifically designed to react with these nerve agents and produce a red-brown color as a visual signal. This allows for quick and easy detection of GF series nerve agents in the field.Rate this question:
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- 38.
M9 chemical agent detection paper is used in what manner?
- A.
Worn on clothing or attached to vehicles or equipment
- B.
Placed on detection stands
- C.
Atatched to vehicles
- D.
Worn on clothing
Correct Answer
A. Worn on clothing or attached to vehicles or equipmentExplanation
M9 chemical agent detection paper is used by being worn on clothing or attached to vehicles or equipment. This allows for continuous monitoring and detection of chemical agents in the surrounding environment. By having the paper in close proximity, it can quickly indicate the presence of harmful chemicals, ensuring the safety of individuals and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 39.
M9 tape contains sensitive dyes to G and _____ series nerve agents and _____ and L blister agents.
- A.
GF, V
- B.
H, V
- C.
V, H
- D.
G, L
Correct Answer
C. V, HExplanation
M9 tape is used for detecting chemical warfare agents. It contains sensitive dyes that react with specific nerve and blister agents. The first blank should be filled with "V" to indicate that it can detect G series nerve agents, while the second blank should be filled with "H" to indicate that it can detect H blister agents.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When there is a positive nerve or blister agent reaction on M9 paper, what color(s) will you see?
- A.
Any shade of red
- B.
Pink, any shade of red, red-brown
- C.
Pink, any shade of red, red-brown, red-purple
- D.
Pink, any shade of red, red-brown, red-purple, orange
Correct Answer
C. Pink, any shade of red, red-brown, red-purpleExplanation
When there is a positive nerve or blister agent reaction on M9 paper, you will see the colors pink, any shade of red, red-brown, and red-purple.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The chamber pressure of the M4 carbine is 52,000 psi
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The chamber pressure of the M4 carbine being 52,000 psi is a factual statement. Chamber pressure refers to the pressure within the chamber of a firearm when a round is fired. In the case of the M4 carbine, it has been determined that the chamber pressure is 52,000 psi.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The length of the M4 carbine with the buttstock fully extended is 29.75 inches
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the length of the M4 carbine with the buttstock fully extended is not 29.75 inches.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A Covered Wagon is a down channel alerting order that sets in motion an increase in readiness posture
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A covered wagon is not a down channel alerting order that sets in motion an increase in readiness posture. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The maximum range of the M4 carbine is 2600 meters
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement is false. The maximum effective range of the M4 carbine is generally considered to be around 500 meters. While the weapon may have a maximum range of 2600 meters, it is not practical or effective to engage targets at that distance with this weapon. The M4 carbine is primarily designed for close to mid-range combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Article 5 of the UCMJ states that the UCMJ only applies on military installations
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Article 5 of the UCMJ does not state that the UCMJ only applies on military installations. The UCMJ applies to all members of the military, regardless of their location. It covers offenses committed both on and off military installations, as long as the individual is subject to the UCMJ's jurisdiction. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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