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Questions and Answers
1.
What least number can be multiplied by 165375 to make it a perfect cube?
A.
2
B.
5
C.
7
D.
49
Correct Answer
C. 7
Explanation Ans. (c)
Sol. Factors of 165375 are
5×5×5×3×3×3×7×7
So, 7 must be multiplied to make it a perfect cube.
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2.
Find the sum of 0.99995 + 0.88885 + 0.77775 + 0.66665 + 0.55555.
Explanation Ans. (b)
Sol. x+4/x = 4
Putting x=2, satisfies the equation.
Now, x^6+1 = 2^6+1=65
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4.
If y : x : z = 4 : 5 : 6, then find the value of (x – y + z)/(x + y – z)
A.
3/3
B.
3/7
C.
5/7
D.
7/3
Correct Answer
D. 7/3
Explanation Ans. (d)
Sol. Let x, y and z be 5k, 4k and 6k respectively.
Now, (x-y+z)/(x+y-z)
⇒(5k-4k+6k)/(5k+4k-6k)=7/3
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5.
If the length of the three sides of a triangle is 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm respectively, then calculate the length (in cm) of the median of the hypotenuse of the given triangle.
A.
5
B.
6
C.
6.5
D.
7
Correct Answer
C. 6.5
Explanation Ans. (c)
Sol. In a right angle triangle, the Median is half the hypotenuse.
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6.
What will be the value of the angle (in degrees) subtended by the chord in the minor segment of the circle, if the length of a chord is equal to the radius of the circle?
A.
120°
B.
150°
C.
160°
D.
180°
Correct Answer
B. 150°
7.
What is the value of 30% of 125 + 45% of 300?
A.
165
B.
172.5
C.
155
D.
163.5
Correct Answer
B. 172.5
Explanation Ans. (b)
Sol. 30/100×125 + 45/100×300
=75/2+135 = 172.5
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8.
If A : B = 5 : 3, then what is the value of (A + B) : (A – B) ?
A.
4 : 1
B.
2 : 1
C.
4 : 3
D.
8 : 3
Correct Answer
A. 4 : 1
Explanation Ans. (a)
Sol. Let A and B be 5x and 3x respectively.
So, (A+B) : (A-B)
= (5x+3x) :(5x-3x)
= 4 : 1
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9.
How many kg of rice at Rs. 54 per kg must be mixed with 30 kg of rice at Rs. 40 per kg, so that on selling the mixture at Rs. 48.4 per kg, there will be a profit of 10%?
A.
22
B.
18
C.
15
D.
12
Correct Answer
D. 12
Explanation Ans. (d)
Sol. Let x kg of rice at Rs. 54 per kg is mixed.
Selling price = 48.4 per kg.
Cost price of mixed rice = 48.4×100/110= 44
ATQ,
54x + 40 × 30= 44[x+30]
⇒ 54x + 1200 = 44x + 1320
⇒ x = 12
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10.
The average weight of X, Y and Z is 35 kg. If the average weight of X and Y is 33 kg and that of Y and Z is 29 kg, then what is the weight (in kg) of Y?
A.
19
B.
23.5
C.
27
D.
37
Correct Answer
A. 19
Explanation Ans. (a)
Sol. Total weight of X, Y and Z = 105
Combined weight of X and Y = 2 × 33 = 66
Combined weight of Y and Z = 2 × 29 = 58
Weight (X+2Y+Z) = 66+58 = 124
Weight of Y = weight (X+2Y+Z) – weight (X+Y+Z)
= 124–105
= 19
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11.
If x runs are scored by A, y runs by B and z runs by C, then x : y = y : z = 3 : 2. If total number of runs scored by A, B and C is 342, the runs scored by each would be respectively
A.
144, 96, 64
B.
162, 108, 72
C.
180, 120, 80
D.
189, 126, 84
Correct Answer
B. 162, 108, 72
12.
Rs 900 is divided among A, B, C; the division is such that 1/2 of A’s money =1/3rd of B’s money =1/4th of C’s money. Find the amount (in Rs) received by A, B, C.
A.
300, 400, 200
B.
350, 450, 100
C.
200, 300, 400
D.
400, 150, 350
Correct Answer
C. 200, 300, 400
13.
If Rs 126.50 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 4, the share of B exceeds that of A by
A.
Rs 36.50
B.
Rs 35.50
C.
Rs 34.50
D.
Rs 33.50
Correct Answer
C. Rs 34.50
14.
The average of first three numbers is double of the fourth number. If the average of all the four numbers is 12, find the 4th number.
A.
16
B.
48/7
C.
20
D.
18/7
Correct Answer
B. 48/7
15.
If the average of 6 consecutive even numbers is 25, the difference between the largest and the smallest number is
A.
6
B.
10
C.
12
D.
14
Correct Answer
B. 10
Explanation Let the nos be x , x+2 , x+4 , ....... , x+10
difference : x+10 - x = 10
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16.
In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
A.
MT
B.
CJ
C.
SZ
D.
FN
Correct Answer
D. FN
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. +7 series, except FN
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17.
In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
A.
11 – 44
B.
12 – 72
C.
13 – 52
D.
14 – 48
Correct Answer
D. 14 – 48
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. 48 is not divisible by 14.
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18.
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Rangle
2. Regal
3. Royal
4. Room
5. Rested
A.
15432
B.
45312
C.
12543
D.
13542
Correct Answer
C. 12543
Explanation The correct answer is 12543. In the dictionary, words are arranged in alphabetical order. Comparing the first letters of the given words, "Rangle" comes before "Regal" and "Royal". Comparing the second letters, "Regal" comes before "Royal". Comparing the third letters, "Royal" comes before "Room". Comparing the fourth letters, "Room" comes before "Rested". Therefore, the correct sequence of the given words in the dictionary is 12543.
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19.
In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: No clocks are watches
Statement II: No ornaments are clocks
Conclusion I: Some watches are ornaments
Conclusion II: All ornaments are watches
A.
Only conclusion I follows
B.
Only conclusion II follows
C.
Both conclusions I and II follow
D.
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Correct Answer
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
If 6 A 11 B 33 = 18 and 4 A 9 B 18 = 8, then 3 A 5 B 35 = ?
A.
12
B.
25
C.
21
D.
18
Correct Answer
C. 21
23.
In the given figure, how many white apples are there?
A.
37
B.
73
C.
36
D.
88
Correct Answer
B. 73
Explanation WHITE APPLES = 36 +37 =73
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24.
A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer
C. C
Explanation When the paper is folded and punched as shown in the question figures, it will appear as a triangular shape. Among the given answer figures, only figure C represents a triangular shape when opened.
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25.
If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
A.
B
B.
A
C.
C
D.
D
Correct Answer
C. C
Explanation The correct answer is C because when a mirror is placed on line AB, the reflection of the given figure will be the same shape but reversed. Answer figure C is the only one that matches this criteria.
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26.
If HEALTH is written as GSKZDG, then how will NORTH be written in that code?
In the given figure, which number represents male cricketers who are adults but are not tall?
A.
D
B.
B
C.
A
D.
C
Correct Answer
B. B
Explanation In the given figure, option B represents male cricketers who are adults but are not tall. This can be inferred because option B is the only number that represents a male figure, indicating that it represents male cricketers. Additionally, it is the only number that is not standing on a tall platform, suggesting that these male cricketers are not tall. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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30.
RVLP : SWMQ : : GLKP : ?
A.
HQLM
B.
HMST
C.
HMLQ
D.
FKSQ
Correct Answer
C. HMLQ
Explanation +1 SERIES
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31.
Which of the following dimensions comes under the HDI?
A.
A long and healthy life
B.
Education index
C.
A decent standard of living
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. The Human Development Report calculate the HDI combining three dimensions:
A long and healthy life: Life expectancy at birth
Education index: Mean years of schooling and Expected years of schooling
A decent standard of living: GNI per capita (PPP US$)
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32.
The first G20 Leaders’ Summit was held in –
A.
2004
B.
1999
C.
2008
D.
2000
Correct Answer
C. 2008
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. The G20 started in 1999 as a meeting of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors in the aftermath of the Asian financial crisis. In 2008, the first G20 Leaders’ Summit was held, and the group played a key role in responding to the global financial crisis.
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33.
The NSG Guidelines were published in 1978 by?
A.
International Atomic Energy Agency
B.
United Nation
C.
WTO
D.
NATO
Correct Answer
A. International Atomic Energy Agency
Explanation Ans.(a)
Sol. The NSG Guidelines were published in 1978 by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) as IAEA document INFCIRC/254 (subsequently amended), to apply to nuclear transfers for peaceful purposes to help ensure that such transfers would not be diverted to an unsafeguarded nuclear fuel cycle or nuclear explosive activities.
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34.
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations and is headquartered in-
A.
Hague
B.
Oslo
C.
Geneva
D.
New York
Correct Answer
C. Geneva
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that is concerned with international public health. It was established on 7 April 1948, and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
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35.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of ______ countries.
A.
180
B.
189
C.
181
D.
199
Correct Answer
B. 189
Explanation Ans.(b)
Sol. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 countries, working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.
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36.
In 2002 Which country became member of the United Nations, on the basis of the results of referendum held in the country?
A.
Belgium
B.
Austria
C.
Finland
D.
Switzerland
Correct Answer
D. Switzerland
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. On 10 September 2002, Switzerland became a full member of the United Nations, after a referendum supporting full membership won in a close vote six months earlier; Swiss voters had rejected membership by a 3-to-1 margin in 1986. The 2002 vote made Switzerland the first country to join based on a popular vote.
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37.
The five permanent members of the UN security council are-
A.
USA, China, France, Russia and Canada
B.
China, France, Russia, UK and USA
C.
Japan, Germany, Russia, UK and USA
D.
Germany, China, USA. Russia and UK
Correct Answer
B. China, France, Russia, UK and USA
Explanation Ans.(b)
Sol. Five permanent members of United Nations Security Council: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
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38.
Which among the following article states that there should be no discrimination on grounds of caste, religion, race, sex, place of birth?
A.
Article 15
B.
Article 21
C.
Article 25
D.
Article 30
Correct Answer
A. Article 15
Explanation Ans.(a)
Sol. Article 15 of Constitution of India deals with Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. The guarantee under Article 15 is available to citizens only.
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39.
Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to alter Scheduled Area?
A.
Supreme Court of India
B.
High Court of State
C.
Prime Minister of India
D.
President of India
Correct Answer
D. President of India
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. The President has the power to direct that the whole or any part of a Scheduled area has ceased to be a Scheduled area. He can after consultation with the governor of that state increase the area of any Scheduled Area. In this way he possesses the power to alter the boundaries of any Schedule area.
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40.
How is the President of India elected?
A.
Directly by public voting
B.
By single transferrable vote
C.
By secondary voting system
D.
All options are correct
Correct Answer
B. By single transferrable vote
Explanation Ans.(b)
Sol. The President of India is elected by single transferrable vote.
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41.
Who among the following has written the famous poem, ‘Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna’?
A.
Bismil Azimabadi
B.
Chandra Shekhar Azad
C.
Ashfaqulla Khan
D.
Ram Prasad Bismil
Correct Answer
A. Bismil Azimabadi
Explanation Ans.(a)
Sol. Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna is a patriotic poem written in Urdu by Bismil Azimabadi of Patna in 1921, and then it was also immortalised by Ram Prasad Bismil as a freedom war cry during the British Raj period in India. It was first published in the journal Sabah, published from Delhi.
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42.
Which Governor General of India started the Postal Service in India?
A.
Lord Canning
B.
Lord Cornwallis
C.
Lord Rippon
D.
Lord Warren Hastings
Correct Answer
D. Lord Warren Hastings
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. Warren Hastings (Governor General of British India from 1773-1784) opened the posts to the public in March 1774. Prior to this the main purpose of the postal system had been to serve the commercial interests of the East India Company.
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43.
Who abolished Jizyah Tax?
A.
Jahangir
B.
Humayun
C.
Akbar
D.
Aurangzeb
Correct Answer
C. Akbar
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. Jizya was abolished by the third Mughal emperor Akbar, in 1564.
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44.
Arrange the following historical events in the chronological order of their occurrence.
I. Non-Cooperation Movement
II. Civil Disobedience Movement
III. Chauri – Chaura
A.
I, II, III
B.
I, III, II
C.
II, I, III
D.
III, II, I
Correct Answer
B. I, III, II
Explanation Ans.(b)
Sol. Non-cooperation movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to drive the British out of the country. The Civil disobedience movement was an important part of Indian freedom movement. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 against certain laws and commands of the ruling British Government. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province, (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India on 5 February 1922.
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45.
Which of the following pair is INCORRECT?
A.
Abul Fazl – Chief Advisor
B.
Faizi – Poet
C.
Birbal – Finance Minister
D.
All are correct
Correct Answer
C. Birbal – Finance Minister
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. Faizi was the Minister of Education and a mentor to the sons of Emperor Akbar and poet. Abu’l Fazl ibn Mubarak was the Prime Minister, known as Grand Vizier, of Akbar’s court. Raja Todar Mal was Finance Minister of Akbar. Raja Birbal was the Foreign Minister on Akbar’s court.
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46.
In which of the following country the Kalahari Desert is located?
A.
India
B.
Pakistan
C.
Botswana
D.
Kenya
Correct Answer
C. Botswana
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy savanna in Southern Africa extending for 900,000 square kilometres (350,000 sq mi), covering much of Botswana, parts of Namibia and regions of South Africa.
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47.
River Narmada originates from which place?
A.
Amarkantak
B.
Himalayans
C.
Brahamagiri
D.
Baralacha pass
Correct Answer
A. Amarkantak
Explanation Ans.(a)
Sol. Amarkantak is the place from where the Narmada river originates. It rises from the Maikal ranges at the height of 1057 meter above the sea level. Amarkantak is located in the Shahdol district of Madhya Pradesh in India. Narmada river mainly flows in the central India.
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48.
Which day is celebrated as “World Blood Donor Day” by World Health Organization?
A.
10th June
B.
11th June
C.
13th June
D.
14th June
Correct Answer
D. 14th June
Explanation Ans.(d)
Sol. World Blood Donor Day celebrated by World Health Organization on 14th June. The host country for World Blood Donor Day 2019 is Rwanda.
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49.
Which organisation has changed its name to “World Athletics” in its 217th council meeting which took place in Monaco?
A.
European Athletics Association
B.
FIFA
C.
International Association of Athletics Federations
D.
International Shooting Sport Federation
Correct Answer
C. International Association of Athletics Federations
Explanation Ans.(c)
Sol. The IAAF Council approved the global governing body’s new name and logo at the 217th IAAF Council Meeting in Monaco. The athletics body’s new name, ‘World Athletics’, builds upon the organization’s restructuring and governance reform agenda of the past four years to represent a modern, more creative and positive face for the sport.
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50.
Social networking giant Facebook has picked up a minority stake in which social-commerce company in its first startup investment in India?
A.
Meeshu
B.
Jaypore
C.
Dunzo
D.
Razorpay
Correct Answer
A. Meeshu
Explanation Ans.(a)
Sol. Social networking giant Facebook has picked up a minority stake in social-commerce company Meesho in its first startup investment in the country. Bengaluru-based startup connects re-sellers to manufacturers to sell goods via social media platforms.
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