Dermatology Quiz: Branch Of Medicine
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
A 16 year old male presents with small, umbilicated flesh-colored papules on his trunk and extremities. Upon examination, the papules appear to have a "cheesy" core. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Seborrheic Keratosis
- B.
Tinea Corporis
- C.
Keratoacanthoma
- D.
Molluscum Contagiosum
Correct Answer
D. Molluscum ContagiosumExplanation
Molluscum contagiosum is the most likely diagnosis in this case. Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that commonly affects children and young adults. It is characterized by small, flesh-colored papules with a central depression or "cheesy" core. The papules are usually found on the trunk and extremities. Seborrheic keratosis is a benign skin growth that typically appears in older adults and is not associated with a cheesy core. Tinea corporis is a fungal infection that causes a ring-shaped rash, while keratoacanthoma is a type of skin cancer that presents as a rapidly growing dome-shaped nodule.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A 45 year old female presents with several brown to black-colored papules on her neck and trunk. Upon examination, they appear "stuck on" and vary in size. Since you have been following this patient for some time, you suspect seborrheic keratosis but also notice there has been a rapid increase in the size and number of SK's. What is this known as?
- A.
Hutchinson's sign
- B.
Sign of Lesar-Trelat
- C.
Koebner's Phenomenon
- D.
Nikolsky's sign
Correct Answer
B. Sign of Lesar-TrelatExplanation
The Sign of Lesar-Trelat refers to the sudden and rapid increase in the size and number of seborrheic keratosis (SK) lesions. Seborrheic keratosis is a common benign skin growth that appears as brown to black-colored papules. However, when there is a sudden increase in the size and number of these lesions, it can be indicative of an underlying malignancy, particularly gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma. Therefore, the Sign of Lesar-Trelat serves as an important clinical clue for further investigation and evaluation of possible malignancy.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Squamous cell carcinoma is more common in patent's with what preexisting condition?
- A.
Thyroid disease
- B.
Liver cirrhosis
- C.
Renal transplant
- D.
Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer
C. Renal transplantExplanation
Renal transplant patients have a weakened immune system due to the use of immunosuppressive medications, which makes them more susceptible to developing squamous cell carcinoma. These medications suppress the immune system's ability to fight off cancer cells, leading to an increased risk of developing this type of cancer. Therefore, squamous cell carcinoma is more common in patients with a preexisting condition of renal transplant.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The prognosis of malignant melanoma is based on
- A.
The horizontal size of the lesion
- B.
The pigmentation of the lesion
- C.
The depth of the lesion
- D.
The location of the lesion
Correct Answer
C. The depth of the lesionExplanation
The prognosis of malignant melanoma is based on the depth of the lesion. The depth of the lesion, also known as the Breslow thickness, is a crucial factor in determining the stage and prognosis of melanoma. Deeper lesions are more likely to have spread to nearby lymph nodes or other parts of the body, indicating a worse prognosis. Therefore, assessing the depth of the lesion is essential in predicting the outcome and planning the appropriate treatment for patients with malignant melanoma.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not associated with UV exposure?
- A.
Actinic Keratosis
- B.
Keratoancanthoma
- C.
Melasma
- D.
Seborrheic Keratosis
Correct Answer
D. Seborrheic KeratosisExplanation
Seborrheic Keratosis is not associated with UV exposure. Seborrheic Keratosis is a common noncancerous skin growth that appears as a brown, black, or tan growth on the surface of the skin. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, but UV exposure is not one of them. Actinic Keratosis, Keratoancanthoma, and Melasma, on the other hand, are all conditions that can be triggered or worsened by UV exposure. Actinic Keratosis is a precancerous skin condition, Keratoancanthoma is a type of skin cancer, and Melasma is a skin condition characterized by dark patches on the skin.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 24 year old female presents with a patchy, brown, macular pigmentation on the malar surface of her face after vacationing in Florida. She denies any changes to her daily cosmetic routine or any recent burns and states that the only medication she takes is oral contraceptives. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Contact dermatitis
- B.
Actinic Keratosis
- C.
Melasma
- D.
Drug eruption
Correct Answer
C. MelasmaExplanation
Melasma is the most likely diagnosis in this case. Melasma is a common skin condition characterized by patchy, brown, macular pigmentation on the face, particularly on the malar surface. It is often triggered by hormonal changes, such as those caused by oral contraceptives. The patient's denial of changes to her cosmetic routine or recent burns further supports the diagnosis of melasma. Contact dermatitis, actinic keratosis, and drug eruption are less likely based on the given information.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 42 year old male presents with multiple skin-colored papules on his hands and fingers. Upon exam, you notice a hyperkeratotic surface with some of the papules extending underneath the nail bed. A KOH prep comes back negative. The patient works as a butcher and is otherwise in good health. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Paronychia
- B.
Tinea unguium
- C.
Verruca Vulgaris
- D.
Onychomycosis
Correct Answer
C. Verruca VulgarisExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for the patient's condition is Verruca Vulgaris. Verruca Vulgaris, commonly known as a common wart, is a viral infection caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It typically presents as skin-colored papules with a hyperkeratotic surface. In this case, the papules are found on the hands and fingers, and some extend underneath the nail bed. The negative KOH prep suggests that it is not a fungal infection like Tinea unguium or Onychomycosis. Paronychia, an infection of the nail fold, is less likely given the presentation and the patient's occupation as a butcher.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Presentation of five or more spider angiomas is indicative of pathology affecting what organ?
- A.
Thyroid
- B.
Liver
- C.
Kidney
- D.
Heart
Correct Answer
B. LiverExplanation
liver cirrhosis to be more specificRate this question:
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- 9.
A 24 year old graduate student presents with a lichenified, hyperpigmented eczematous patch on her left arm. She admits to being stressed lately due to the overwhelming amount of information she has to know for her derm exam and keeps subconsciously scratching at her arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
LIchen Simplex Chronicus
- B.
Atopic Dermatitis
- C.
Seborrheic Dermatitis
- D.
Dyshidrosis
Correct Answer
A. LIchen Simplex ChronicusExplanation
Lichen Simplex Chronicus = AKA NeurodermatitisRate this question:
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- 10.
A 67 year old male presents with moderate erythema and yellowish eczematous scaling rash on his scalp and forehead. PMH includes HTN and Parkinson's disease. KOH prep is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Drug eruption
- B.
Tinea capitis
- C.
Seborrheic Dermatitis
- D.
Roasacea
Correct Answer
C. Seborrheic DermatitisExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is seborrheic dermatitis. Seborrheic dermatitis is a common chronic inflammatory skin condition that primarily affects the scalp and face. It is characterized by erythema (redness) and yellowish eczematous scaling rash. The patient's age and symptoms are consistent with seborrheic dermatitis, and the negative KOH prep rules out tinea capitis, a fungal infection. Drug eruption and rosacea are less likely given the patient's presentation and medical history.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The gold-standard diagnostic test for contact dermatitis is
- A.
Clinical presentation
- B.
KOH
- C.
Patch test
- D.
Wood's light
Correct Answer
C. Patch testExplanation
The patch test is considered the gold-standard diagnostic test for contact dermatitis. This test involves applying small amounts of potential allergens onto the patient's skin, usually on their back, and leaving them in place for a period of time. If the patient develops a reaction at the site of application, it indicates that they are allergic to that particular substance. This test is highly specific and helps identify the specific allergens causing the dermatitis, allowing for targeted treatment and avoidance measures. Clinical presentation, KOH, and Wood's light may provide additional information but are not as reliable or specific as the patch test in diagnosing contact dermatitis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is it called if you peel back a scale and the result is pinpoint bleeding?
- A.
Hutchinson's sign
- B.
Auspitz sign
- C.
Koebner's Phenomenon
- D.
Nikolsky's sign
Correct Answer
B. Auspitz signExplanation
The Auspitz sign refers to the occurrence of pinpoint bleeding when a scale is peeled back. This sign is commonly seen in conditions such as psoriasis, where the skin is thickened and scales are present. The pinpoint bleeding occurs due to the disruption of tiny blood vessels within the skin when the scale is removed. This sign is named after Heinrich Auspitz, an Austrian dermatologist who first described it in the 19th century.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 41 year old male presents with complaint of having "sausage digits." Upon exam, you notice asymmetric stiffness in some of his fingers as well as nail pitting. PMH includes heart disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Inverse psoriasis
- B.
VonZumbush psoriasis
- C.
Psoriatic arthritis
- D.
Palmoplantar pustular psoriasis
Correct Answer
C. Psoriatic arthritisExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 41-year-old male with "sausage digits," asymmetric stiffness in some fingers, nail pitting, and a history of heart disease is Psoriatic arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that occurs in some individuals with psoriasis. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as nail changes. The presence of nail pitting and asymmetric stiffness in the fingers suggests an inflammatory arthritis, and the patient's history of psoriasis and heart disease further supports the diagnosis of Psoriatic arthritis. Inverse psoriasis, VonZumbush psoriasis, and palmoplantar pustular psoriasis do not typically present with the same combination of symptoms as described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A 28 year old male presents with patches of hypopigmentation on his back, first noticed which at the beach during summer break. KOH prep is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis and causative agent?
- A.
Tinea corporis, malassezia furfur
- B.
Vitiligo, autoimmune
- C.
Tinea versicolor, malassezia furfur
- D.
Tinea cruris, S.aureus
Correct Answer
C. Tinea versicolor, malassezia furfurExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for the 28-year-old male with patches of hypopigmentation on his back, which were first noticed at the beach during summer break, is tinea versicolor. The causative agent responsible for this condition is Malassezia furfur. Tinea versicolor is a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur, which is a type of yeast. This condition is characterized by patches of hypopigmentation on the skin, which may be more noticeable after sun exposure. The positive KOH prep supports the diagnosis of tinea versicolor, as it helps to identify the presence of fungal elements.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A patient with suspected zoster infection presents with a positive Hutchinson's sign. You suspect herpes ophthalmicus because the __________ innervates the eye and tip of nose?
- A.
Facial nerve
- B.
Nasociliary branch of VI
- C.
Ophthalmic branch of V2
- D.
Maxillary branch of V3
Correct Answer
B. Nasociliary branch of VIExplanation
The nasociliary branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V1) innervates the eye and tip of the nose. Hutchinson's sign is a clinical finding in which there is involvement of the nasociliary branch of V1 in herpes zoster infection. Therefore, a positive Hutchinson's sign in a patient with suspected zoster infection suggests herpes ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The pathogenesis of bullous pemphigoid is best described as
- A.
The result of a secondary infection
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Autoimmune
- D.
The result of an underlying systemic disease
Correct Answer
C. AutoimmuneExplanation
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the production of autoantibodies against components of the skin basement membrane. These autoantibodies cause inflammation and damage to the skin, leading to the formation of blisters and bullae. The immune system mistakenly targets the body's own tissues, resulting in an autoimmune response. This explanation aligns with the answer choice "autoimmune."Rate this question:
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- 17.
What treatment for acne vulgaris is classified as a Category X medication?
- A.
Aczone
- B.
Tazorac
- C.
Accutane
- D.
Metrogel
Correct Answer
C. AccutaneExplanation
Accutane is classified as a Category X medication for the treatment of acne vulgaris. Category X medications are contraindicated for use in pregnant women due to their potential to cause fetal harm. Accutane contains isotretinoin, a powerful medication that can cause severe birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Therefore, it is important for women of childbearing age to use effective contraception while taking Accutane.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A 34 year old female presents with painful, grouped, abscesses and acneiform lesions under her arms, buttocks, and inner thigh. PMH includes smoking and oral contraceptive use. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A.
Folliculitits
- B.
Intertrigo
- C.
Hidradenitis Suppurativa
- D.
Acne vulgaris
Correct Answer
C. Hidradenitis SuppurativaExplanation
The likely diagnosis for the 34-year-old female presenting with painful, grouped, abscesses and acneiform lesions under her arms, buttocks, and inner thigh is Hidradenitis Suppurativa. This condition is characterized by chronic inflammation of the hair follicles and sweat glands, leading to the formation of painful nodules, abscesses, and sinus tracts. It commonly affects areas with apocrine sweat glands, such as the axilla, groin, and buttocks. Risk factors for Hidradenitis Suppurativa include smoking and hormonal factors, such as oral contraceptive use. Folliculitis, Intertrigo, and Acne vulgaris do not typically present with the same distribution and severity of symptoms as seen in this case.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The crusted form of impetigo is commonly due to what organism? What is the common clinical presentation?
- A.
S.aureus, "strawberry tongue"
- B.
S.pyogenes, "honey colored"
- C.
H.influenzae, "apple jelly"
- D.
Candidiasis, "beefy red"
Correct Answer
B. S.pyogenes, "honey colored"Explanation
The crusted form of impetigo is commonly due to S.pyogenes, which is the organism responsible for causing the infection. The common clinical presentation of this form of impetigo is "honey colored" crusts on the skin.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the diagnostic test used to enhance examination if one suspects vitiligo?
- A.
KOH prep
- B.
Biopsy
- C.
Wood's light
- D.
Western blot
Correct Answer
C. Wood's lightExplanation
Wood's light is the diagnostic test used to enhance examination if one suspects vitiligo. Wood's light is a handheld ultraviolet lamp that emits black light. When the light is shone on the skin, it helps to highlight the areas of depigmentation in vitiligo. These areas appear as white patches under the Wood's light, making it easier for a healthcare professional to diagnose the condition. This test is non-invasive and painless, making it a useful tool in the diagnosis of vitiligo.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A 35 year old male presents with sudden rash of bright, erythematous macules and acneiforms completely covering his trunk and extremities. He has been hospitalized for the last 3 days after bypass surgery. You suspect a drug eruption to what newly prescribed medication?
- A.
NSAIDS
- B.
Lithium
- C.
Beta-lactam antibiotics
- D.
Allopurinol
Correct Answer
B. LithiumExplanation
The sudden rash of bright, erythematous macules and acneiforms covering the patient's trunk and extremities suggests a drug eruption. One possible cause of this drug eruption is lithium, as it is known to cause skin reactions including acneiform eruptions. Additionally, the fact that the patient has recently undergone bypass surgery and has been hospitalized for the last 3 days suggests that he may have been prescribed lithium as a mood stabilizer. Therefore, lithium is the most likely medication that is causing the drug eruption in this case.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A 19 year old patient presents with fever, chills, and headache. Upon examination, you notice maculopapules on his wrist and ankles. You order a CBC and urinalysis and the results show thrombocytopenia, proteinuria, and hematuria. The patient recently got back from a trip with his family out west. What is the likely diagnosis and causative agent?
- A.
Fifth's Disease, parovirus B19
- B.
Eythema Migrans, borrelia burgdorferi
- C.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, ricketsia rickettsi
- D.
Lyme Disease, tick
Correct Answer
C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, ricketsia rickettsiExplanation
The patient's symptoms, including fever, chills, headache, and the presence of maculopapules on the wrist and ankles, are consistent with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF). The laboratory results of thrombocytopenia, proteinuria, and hematuria further support this diagnosis. The patient's recent travel to the western region also aligns with the geographic distribution of RMSF. The causative agent of RMSF is Rickettsia rickettsii, a bacterium transmitted through the bite of infected ticks.Rate this question:
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- 23.
One of the 4 signs of cellulitis is ________, which means _______
- A.
Dolor, redness
- B.
Rubor, warmth
- C.
Tumor, edema
- D.
Calor, pain
Correct Answer
C. Tumor, edemaExplanation
The correct answer is "tumor, edema". Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can cause inflammation and swelling. One of the signs of cellulitis is the presence of a tumor, which refers to an area of swelling or a lump. Edema, on the other hand, refers to the accumulation of fluid in the affected area, which contributes to the swelling. Therefore, the presence of a tumor and edema are indicative of cellulitis.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is acanthosis nigricans Type 2 associated with?
- A.
Obesity
- B.
High doses of nicotine
- C.
Endocrine disorders
- D.
Adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer
C. Endocrine disordersExplanation
Acanthosis nigricans Type 2 is associated with endocrine disorders. This condition is characterized by dark, thickened patches of skin, usually in the folds and creases of the body. It is commonly seen in individuals with insulin resistance or hormonal imbalances, such as those with polycystic ovary syndrome or Cushing's syndrome. These endocrine disorders disrupt the normal functioning of the body's hormones, leading to the development of acanthosis nigricans Type 2.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Inflammation of the nail fold, presenting with erythema and edema is known as what? (also associated with thumb suckers)
- A.
Tinea unguium
- B.
Paronychia
- C.
Onchyomycosis
- D.
Periunguium
Correct Answer
B. ParonychiaExplanation
Paronychia is the correct answer because it refers to the inflammation of the nail fold, which is characterized by erythema (redness) and edema (swelling). It is commonly associated with thumb suckers, as the constant moisture can create a favorable environment for bacterial or fungal infections. Tinea unguium refers to a fungal infection of the nails, onychomycosis is another term for the same condition, and periunguium is not a recognized medical term for this condition.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2013Quiz Created by
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