EMT - ALS Review

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| By Mpulley911
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Mpulley911
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Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 61,162
Questions: 33 | Attempts: 214

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EMT - ALS Review - Quiz


This quiz is a combination of quizzes from EMT advance life support classes and will be updated regularly.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The topographical term used to describe the location of the body parts that are closer to the median plane is:

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Medial

    • C.

      Midaxillary

    • D.

      Midclavicular

    Correct Answer
    B. Medial
    Explanation
    The term "medial" is used to describe body parts that are closer to the median plane. The median plane is an imaginary vertical plane that divides the body into left and right halves. Therefore, "medial" refers to body parts that are closer to the midline of the body, while "lateral" refers to body parts that are farther away from the midline. "Midaxillary" and "midclavicular" are not topographical terms used to describe the location of body parts in relation to the median plane.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following structures comprise different types of tissues that work together to perform a particular function?

    • A.

      Cells

    • B.

      Organs

    • C.

      Organisms

    • D.

      Body Systems

    Correct Answer
    B. Organs
    Explanation
    Organs are structures that consist of different types of tissues working together to perform a specific function. Unlike cells, which are the basic units of life, organs are made up of multiple types of tissues that collaborate to carry out specialized tasks. While organisms refer to individual living beings and body systems encompass a collection of organs, only organs specifically represent the combination of different tissues working in harmony to fulfill a specific function.

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  • 3. 

    The transverse plane divides the body into the:

    • A.

      Cephalad and caudad parts.

    • B.

      Anterior and posterior aspects.

    • C.

      Dorsal and ventral aspects.

    • D.

      Midaxillary and midclavicular lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. CepHalad and caudad parts.
    Explanation
    The transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (cephalad) and lower (caudad) parts. This plane is perpendicular to the sagittal and frontal planes. The terms cephalad and caudad are used to describe the direction or location of structures within the body, with cephalad referring to towards the head and caudad referring to towards the tail or feet. Therefore, the correct answer is cephalad and caudad parts.

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  • 4. 

    During your assessment of a trauma patient, you notice the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means:

    • A.

      One femur is broken

    • B.

      Both femurs are broken

    • C.

      One femur is broken in two places

    • D.

      The lateral aspects of one femur is broken

    Correct Answer
    B. Both femurs are broken
    Explanation
    The presence of bilateral femur fractures indicates that both femurs are broken. This means that fractures have occurred in both the left and right femur bones.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following MOST accurately describes the shock position?

    • A.

      The head and torso are supine and thr legs are elevated 6" to 12"

    • B.

      The head is elevated at a 45 degrees angle and the legs are elevated 8"

    • C.

      The body is supine with the head down and the legs elevated

    • D.

      The body is laterally recumbent and the head is lowered

    Correct Answer
    A. The head and torso are supine and thr legs are elevated 6" to 12"
  • 6. 

    The sum of all the physical and chemical processes that produces energy on the body is called:

    • A.

      Anabolism

    • B.

      Catabolism

    • C.

      Exabolism

    • D.

      Metabolism

    Correct Answer
    D. Metabolism
    Explanation
    Metabolism refers to all the physical and chemical processes that occur in the body to produce energy. It includes anabolism, which is the process of building up molecules, and catabolism, which is the process of breaking down molecules. Exabolism is not a recognized term, so the correct answer is metabolism.

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  • 7. 

    The integumentary systems includes all of the following structures EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Skin

    • B.

      Hair

    • C.

      Fingernails

    • D.

      Blood vessels

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood vessels
    Explanation
    The integumentary system is responsible for protecting the body from external factors and regulating body temperature. It consists of the skin, hair, and fingernails. However, blood vessels are not part of the integumentary system. Blood vessels belong to the circulatory system, which is responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, and waste products throughout the body.

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  • 8. 

    Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis?

    • A.

      Thoracic

    • B.

      Sacral

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Coccyx

    Correct Answer
    B. Sacral
    Explanation
    The sacral portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis. The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. It connects the spine to the pelvis, specifically the iliac bones on either side. This connection is important for stability and support, as the sacrum transfers weight from the upper body to the lower body during activities such as walking, running, and standing.

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  • 9. 

    A patient was struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat. In addition to fractured ribs, you should be suspicious of injury to the:

    • A.

      Spleen

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Pancreas

    • D.

      Stomach

    Correct Answer
    B. Liver
    Explanation
    When a patient is struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat, there is a high likelihood of injury to the liver. This is because the liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, just below the right lower anterior chest. The forceful impact of the baseball bat can cause the liver to be compressed against the rib cage, leading to injury such as liver laceration or rupture. Therefore, in addition to fractured ribs, suspicion of liver injury should be high in such cases.

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  • 10. 

    Following a head injury, a patient complains of double vision. This suggest injury to the ______ lobe of the brain.

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    C. Occipital
    Explanation
    Double vision, also known as diplopia, occurs when the eyes are unable to align properly and send conflicting signals to the brain. The occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual information received from the eyes. Therefore, if a patient complains of double vision following a head injury, it suggests injury to the occipital lobe of the brain, as this is the region responsible for processing visual input.

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  • 11. 

    The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the _____________ nervous system.

    • A.

      Somatic

    • B.

      Autonomic

    • C.

      Voluntary

    • D.

      Adrenal

    Correct Answer
    B. Autonomic
    Explanation
    The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves are part of the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing. The somatic nervous system, on the other hand, controls voluntary movements and sensations. The adrenal system is a part of the endocrine system and is responsible for the release of hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is autonomic.

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  • 12. 

    The thyroid gland is responsible for the:

    • A.

      Release of TSH.

    • B.

      Breakdown of glycogen.

    • C.

      Production of glucose.

    • D.

      Metabolic rate.

    Correct Answer
    D. Metabolic rate.
    Explanation
    The thyroid gland is responsible for regulating the metabolic rate of the body. It produces hormones such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) that control the rate at which cells convert nutrients into energy. These hormones influence various processes in the body, including metabolism, growth, and development. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic rate.

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  • 13. 

    A patient is found to have a high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). What is the cause of this?

    • A.

      Excessive insulin levels in the blood

    • B.

      Decreased production of glucagon

    • C.

      Deficient insulin levels in the blood

    • D.

      Hyperactivity of the pancreatic beta cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Deficient insulin levels in the blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer is deficient insulin levels in the blood. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When there is a deficiency of insulin, glucose cannot be effectively transported into cells, leading to high blood sugar levels. This condition is known as hyperglycemia. Excessive insulin levels in the blood would actually result in low blood sugar levels, not high. Decreased production of glucagon and hyperactivity of the pancreatic beta cells do not directly cause high blood sugar levels.

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  • 14. 

    White blood cells are also known as:

    • A.

      Thrombocytes

    • B.

      Erthrocytes

    • C.

      Leukocytes

    • D.

      Granulocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Leukocytes
    Explanation
    White blood cells are also known as leukocytes. Leukocytes are a type of blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system by defending the body against infections and foreign substances. They are responsible for identifying and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, and also help in the healing process by removing dead cells and debris. Leukocytes are different from thrombocytes (platelets) and erythrocytes (red blood cells) which have different functions in the body. Granulocytes, on the other hand, are a type of leukocyte that contains granules in their cytoplasm and are involved in allergic reactions and fighting certain infections.

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  • 15. 

    The thick fibrous sac that surrounds the heart is called the:

    • A.

      Pericardium

    • B.

      Myocardium

    • C.

      Epicardium

    • D.

      Endocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericardium
    Explanation
    The pericardium is the thick fibrous sac that surrounds the heart. It provides protection and support to the heart, preventing it from overfilling with blood and allowing it to contract and expand properly. The pericardium also helps to reduce friction between the heart and surrounding structures during movement. The myocardium, epicardium, and endocardium are all different layers of the heart itself, but the pericardium is the outermost layer that encloses and protects the entire organ.

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  • 16. 

    The two major veins that drain the head and neck of blood are the _______ veins.

    • A.

      Vertebral

    • B.

      Jugular

    • C.

      Cerebral

    • D.

      Cephalic

    Correct Answer
    B. Jugular
    Explanation
    The jugular veins are the two major veins that drain the head and neck of blood. They are responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood from the brain, face, and neck back to the heart. The vertebral veins, on the other hand, drain the spinal cord and do not play a major role in draining the head and neck. The cerebral veins are responsible for draining blood from the brain itself. The cephalic vein is located in the arm and is not involved in draining the head and neck.

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  • 17. 

    Normal inspiration is the result of:

    • A.

      Diaphragmatic relaxation.

    • B.

      Air passively entering the lungs.

    • C.

      Negative pressure in the the thoracic cavity

    • D.

      Positive pressure in the thoracic cavity

    Correct Answer
    C. Negative pressure in the the thoracic cavity
    Explanation
    Normal inspiration is the result of negative pressure in the thoracic cavity. When the diaphragm relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract, the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. This leads to a decrease in pressure within the thoracic cavity, causing air to passively enter the lungs to equalize the pressure. Therefore, normal inspiration occurs due to the negative pressure created in the thoracic cavity.

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  • 18. 

    Relative to the wrist, the elbow is:

    • A.

      Anterior

    • B.

      Posterior

    • C.

      Proximal

    • D.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    C. Proximal
    Explanation
    The elbow is considered proximal to the wrist because it is located closer to the body's midline. In anatomical terms, proximal refers to a body part that is closer to the point of attachment or origin, while distal refers to a body part that is further away. Since the elbow is closer to the body's midline and the point of attachment of the arm, it is considered proximal to the wrist.

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  • 19. 

    Combined, the various organ systems in the body form a/an:

    • A.

      Cell

    • B.

      Organism

    • C.

      Tissue

    • D.

      Organelle

    Correct Answer
    B. Organism
    Explanation
    The various organ systems in the body work together to perform specific functions and maintain homeostasis. An organism refers to a living being that is made up of multiple organ systems working together. Therefore, the correct answer is organism.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

    • A.

      Temperature regulation

    • B.

      Protection from the enviroment

    • C.

      Tramsmission of information to the brain

    • D.

      Production of antobodies to foreign organisms

    Correct Answer
    D. Production of antobodies to foreign organisms
    Explanation
    The skin is responsible for various functions such as temperature regulation, protection from the environment, and transmission of information to the brain. However, the production of antibodies to foreign organisms is not a function of the skin. Antibody production is primarily carried out by the immune system, specifically by specialized cells in the lymph nodes and spleen. The skin plays a role in protecting the body from pathogens, but it does not directly produce antibodies.

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  • 21. 

    A fracture of the orbital bone is commonly referred to as a _________ fracture.

    • A.

      Blowout

    • B.

      Midface

    • C.

      Lefort

    • D.

      Basilar

    Correct Answer
    A. Blowout
    Explanation
    A fracture of the orbital bone is commonly referred to as a blowout fracture. This type of fracture occurs when there is a forceful impact to the eye socket, causing the bone to break. The term "blowout" is used because the fracture often results in a portion of the orbital bone being pushed or "blown out" into the surrounding sinuses. This can lead to symptoms such as double vision, pain, swelling, and difficulty moving the eye. Treatment typically involves surgery to repair the fractured bone and restore normal function.

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  • 22. 

    How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the number of pairs of ribs that are attached anteriorly to the sternum. In the human body, there are a total of 12 pairs of ribs, but only the first 7 pairs are directly attached to the sternum. The remaining 5 pairs are considered "false ribs" as they are either indirectly attached or not attached at all. Therefore, the correct answer is 10, as 10 pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum.

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  • 23. 

    The semilunar valves of the heart fundtion by:

    • A.

      Preventing backflow of blood into the atria.

    • B.

      Minimizing the forward flow of blood.

    • C.

      Attaching to the papillary muscles.

    • D.

      Preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles.

    Correct Answer
    D. Preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles.
    Explanation
    The semilunar valves of the heart prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. These valves are located at the base of the pulmonary artery and aorta, and they open and close to allow blood to flow out of the ventricles and into the arteries. When the ventricles contract, the semilunar valves open, allowing blood to be pumped out. When the ventricles relax, the valves close, preventing blood from flowing back into the ventricles and ensuring that it only moves forward into the arteries.

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  • 24. 

    Closure of the tricuspid and mitral valves occur during:

    • A.

      Ventricular relaxation

    • B.

      Ventricular contraction

    • C.

      The diastolic phase

    • D.

      Atrial contraction

    Correct Answer
    B. Ventricular contraction
    Explanation
    During ventricular contraction, the tricuspid and mitral valves close. This is because the contraction of the ventricles causes an increase in pressure, forcing the blood to be pushed out of the ventricles and into the arteries. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria during this process, the tricuspid and mitral valves close, ensuring that the blood flows in the correct direction. Therefore, ventricular contraction is the phase in which closure of these valves occurs.

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  • 25. 

    What is the function of a baroreceptor?

    • A.

      Monitoring changes in arterial pressure.

    • B.

      Sensing changes in arterial oxygen levels

    • C.

      Monitoring the pH of cerebrospinal fluid

    • D.

      Sensing the arterial level of carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure.
    Explanation
    Baroreceptors are specialized sensory receptors that monitor changes in arterial pressure. They are located in the walls of certain blood vessels, such as the carotid sinus and aortic arch. When there is a change in blood pressure, these receptors send signals to the brain, which then initiates appropriate responses to regulate blood pressure and maintain homeostasis. This function helps to ensure that blood pressure remains within a normal range and prevents any sudden or drastic changes that could be harmful to the body.

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  • 26. 

    The term perfusion is BEST defined as:

    • A.

      The production of waste products from metabolism.

    • B.

      Effective exchange of O2 and CO2 in the lungs.

    • C.

      Adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells.

    • D.

      Sufficient removal of waste products from the body.

    Correct Answer
    C. Adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells.
    Explanation
    Perfusion refers to the process of delivering an adequate amount of blood to the body's cells. It ensures that oxygen and nutrients are supplied to the cells while waste products are removed. This is essential for maintaining normal cellular function and overall tissue health. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the production of waste products from metabolism, effective exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, and sufficient removal of waste products from the body, do not encompass the full meaning of perfusion.

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  • 27. 

    A patient is experiencing hypoglycemia. What does is mean?

    • A.

      Low blood pressure

    • B.

      High cholesterol

    • C.

      Low blood sugar

    • D.

      High blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    C. Low blood sugar
    Explanation
    Hypoglycemia refers to a condition where a patient has low blood sugar levels. This can occur due to various reasons such as excessive insulin production, inadequate food intake, or certain medical conditions. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include dizziness, confusion, sweating, and weakness. It is important to treat hypoglycemia promptly by consuming sugar or glucose-rich foods to raise blood sugar levels back to normal.

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  • 28. 

    The term pulmonology is defined as:

    • A.

      Anatomy of the lungs

    • B.

      Study or science of the lungs

    • C.

      Physiology of the respiratory system

    • D.

      Disease of the respiratory system

    Correct Answer
    B. Study or science of the lungs
    Explanation
    The term pulmonology refers to the study or science of the lungs. This field of medicine focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases and disorders related to the respiratory system. Pulmonologists are specialized physicians who are trained in the management of conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pneumonia, and lung cancer. They also study the structure, function, and physiology of the lungs to better understand how they work and how to maintain their health.

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  • 29. 

    When establishing negligence, which of the following factors is NOT a consideration?

    • A.

      The patient's injury was life threatening

    • B.

      The EMT-I deviated from the standard of care

    • C.

      An injury occured due to the EMT-I's actions

    • D.

      The EMT-I had a legal duty to act

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient's injury was life threatening
    Explanation
    In establishing negligence, the severity of the patient's injury is not a consideration. Negligence is determined by factors such as whether the EMT-I deviated from the standard of care, whether an injury occurred due to their actions, and whether they had a legal duty to act. The severity of the injury does not affect the determination of negligence; it is more relevant to the assessment of the patient's condition and the necessary medical treatment.

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  • 30. 

    You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient's action consistent with?

    • A.

      Implied

    • B.

      Informed

    • C.

      Passive

    • D.

      Expressed

    Correct Answer
    D. Expressed
    Explanation
    The patient's action of extending her arm to allow her blood pressure to be taken indicates that she is actively participating and providing consent for the procedure. This type of consent is known as expressed consent, where the patient explicitly communicates their agreement or permission for a specific medical intervention or examination.

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  • 31. 

    After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, "Why are you lying to me?" What stage of the grieving process is this typical of?

    • A.

      Anger

    • B.

      Bargaining

    • C.

      Depression

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    This response suggests that the woman is in denial. Denial is a common stage of the grieving process where individuals struggle to accept the reality of a loss. In this case, the woman's initial reaction of questioning the truth indicates her disbelief or refusal to accept the news of her husband's death.

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  • 32. 

    A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this?

    • A.

      Standing orders

    • B.

      Online medical control

    • C.

      Off-line medical control

    • D.

      Indirect medical control

    Correct Answer
    B. Online medical control
    Explanation
    This scenario describes online medical control. Online medical control refers to the authorization given by a physician through electronic means such as a two-way radio or telecommunication devices. In this case, the physician is providing guidance and instructions remotely to assist the patient in administering prescribed nitroglycerin. This type of medical direction allows for real-time communication and guidance between the physician and the individual providing care.

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  • 33. 

    When assessing a patient's respirations, you note they are eupneic. This means that the patient's respirations are:

    • A.

      Labored

    • B.

      Shallow

    • C.

      Normal

    • D.

      Rapid

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal
    Explanation
    Eupneic refers to normal breathing or respirations. Therefore, if a patient's respirations are eupneic, it means that their breathing is normal.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 24, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Mpulley911
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