EMT Review Questions Test One
(256).jpg "EMT Review Questions Test One - Quiz")
Ortiz palomar
- 1.
The actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform are referred to as
- A.
Scope of practice
- B.
Duty to act
- C.
Professional practice
- D.
Limits of liability
Correct Answer
A. Scope of practiceExplanation
The correct answer is "scope of practice". This refers to the specific actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform within their profession. It outlines the boundaries and limitations of their responsibilities and ensures that they provide appropriate and safe care to patients.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The term the describes the position closer to the midline
- A.
Medial
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Posterior
- D.
Anterior
Correct Answer
A. MedialExplanation
The term "medial" refers to a position that is closer to the midline of the body. In anatomical terms, the midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into left and right halves. Therefore, when something is described as "medial," it means it is situated towards or nearer to the midline. In contrast, "lateral" refers to a position that is further away from the midline.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The opposite of anterior is
- A.
Posterior
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Exterior
- D.
Superior
Correct Answer
A. PosteriorExplanation
The opposite of anterior is posterior. Anterior refers to the front or forward-facing direction, while posterior refers to the back or rear-facing direction. In anatomical terms, anterior and posterior are used to describe the relative positions of body parts or structures. Therefore, in this context, posterior is the correct opposite of anterior.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity
- A.
Diaphragm
- B.
Abdomine
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Lungs
Correct Answer
A. DiapHragmExplanation
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity, which contains the heart and lungs, from the abdominal cavity, which contains the stomach and other digestive organs. It plays a crucial role in breathing, as it contracts and relaxes to help draw air into the lungs. The diaphragm also helps maintain the pressure within the thoracic and abdominal cavities, allowing for proper organ function and preventing the mixing of contents between the two cavities.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Base vital signs measured include all the following except
- A.
Defecation
- B.
Pulse
- C.
Eyes
- D.
Skin
Correct Answer
A. DefecationExplanation
The base vital signs that are typically measured include pulse, eyes, and skin. These measurements provide important information about a person's overall health and can help identify any potential issues or abnormalities. However, defecation is not considered a vital sign as it is not directly related to the body's physiological functioning or immediate health status. Therefore, it is not included in the list of vital signs that are measured.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Respiratory rates of concern are
- A.
Less than 8 greater than 24
- B.
Between 12 and 20
- C.
10 to 20
- D.
Greater than 8 less than 24
Correct Answer
A. Less than 8 greater than 24Explanation
The respiratory rates of concern are less than 8 and greater than 24. A respiratory rate lower than 8 could indicate a potential problem with breathing, such as respiratory depression. On the other hand, a respiratory rate higher than 24 could suggest respiratory distress or an underlying health issue. Therefore, both of these ranges are considered concerning and should be monitored closely.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the average RR for an adult
- A.
8-24
- B.
12-20
- C.
15-30
- D.
20-40
Correct Answer
B. 12-20Explanation
The normal respiratory rate for healthy adults is between 12–20 breaths per minute.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a vital sign
- A.
Mental status
- B.
Pulse
- C.
Respiration
- D.
Blood pressure
Correct Answer
A. Mental statusExplanation
Mental status is not considered a vital sign because it does not directly measure the physiological functions of the body. Vital signs are objective measurements that provide information about a person's overall health and indicate how well the body is functioning. Pulse, respiration, and blood pressure are all vital signs as they reflect the cardiovascular and respiratory systems' performance. Mental status, on the other hand, refers to a person's cognitive and emotional state, which is important for assessing mental health but not considered a vital sign.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When checking pupils, an EMT should look for all the following EXCEPT
- A.
Color
- B.
Equality
- C.
Size
- D.
Reactivity
Correct Answer
A. ColorExplanation
When checking pupils, an EMT should look for equality, size, and reactivity. The color of the pupils is not a reliable indicator of their condition or any potential issues.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The L in SAMPLE is
- A.
Last oral intake
- B.
Labored breathing
- C.
LOC
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Last oral intakeExplanation
The correct answer is "last oral intake" because in the medical field, the acronym SAMPLE is often used to gather important information about a patient's history. Each letter in the acronym stands for a specific piece of information, and in this case, the "L" stands for "last oral intake." This refers to the last time the patient ate or drank anything, which can be crucial information for medical professionals when assessing a patient's condition or planning further treatment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
For unstable patients, an EMT should take vital signs every.... min
- A.
5
- B.
15
- C.
10
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
An EMT should take vital signs every 5 minutes for unstable patients because their condition can rapidly change, and frequent monitoring is necessary to detect any deterioration or improvement in their vital signs. This allows the EMT to provide timely interventions and make informed decisions regarding the patient's care.Rate this question:
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- 12.
BP of 128/68 systolic is
- A.
128
- B.
68
- C.
1.8
- D.
.53
Correct Answer
A. 128Explanation
The correct answer is 128 because in a blood pressure reading, the first number (systolic pressure) represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood. In this case, the systolic pressure is 128.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A normal systolic BP for a 40 yr old woman would be
- A.
90
- B.
100
- C.
130
- D.
150
Correct Answer
C. 130Explanation
276Rate this question:
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- 14.
When deflating the cuff of a sphygmomanometer, the systolic BP is
- A.
First beat
- B.
Last sound
- C.
Dullest sound
- D.
Loudest sound
Correct Answer
A. First beatExplanation
When deflating the cuff of a sphygmomanometer, the systolic blood pressure is the pressure at which the first beat or sound is heard. This indicates the point at which the blood starts flowing again through the artery, after the pressure in the cuff is reduced enough to allow blood flow. It is the highest pressure recorded during the measurement and represents the maximum force exerted by the heart when pumping blood.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The difference between the systolic BP and diastolic BP is called
- A.
Pulse pressure
- B.
Pressure point
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Bradycardia
Correct Answer
A. Pulse pressureExplanation
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- 16.
Normal RR for an 1 yr old
- A.
20-30
- B.
8-24
- C.
12-20
- D.
15-30
Correct Answer
A. 20-30Explanation
The normal respiratory rate for a one-year-old is 20-30 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal for a child of this age and indicates that their breathing is within a healthy range.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The EMTs first set of patient measurements is called the... vital signs
- A.
Baseline
- B.
Initial
- C.
Palpated
- D.
Preliminary
Correct Answer
A. BaselineExplanation
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- 18.
The main purpose of the primary assessment is to
- A.
Obtain the chief complaint
- B.
Establish scene safety
- C.
Discover and treat any life threatening conditions
- D.
Obtain a full set of vital signs and a sample history
Correct Answer
A. Obtain the chief complaintExplanation
The main purpose of the primary assessment is to obtain the chief complaint. This means that the primary assessment is focused on identifying and understanding the patient's main reason for seeking medical attention or their most significant symptom or problem. By obtaining the chief complaint, healthcare providers can prioritize their evaluation and treatment, ensuring that the patient's immediate needs are addressed first.Rate this question:
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- 19.
On the AVPU scale a patient who responds or attempts to respond only when spoken to is rated
- A.
V
- B.
A
- C.
P
- D.
U
Correct Answer
A. VExplanation
On the AVPU scale, a patient who responds or attempts to respond only when spoken to is rated as V, which stands for "Voice." This means that the patient is only able to respond to verbal stimuli and does not show any response to other forms of stimulation, such as touch or pain. This level of responsiveness indicates that the patient is somewhat alert but still requires external stimulation to engage in any kind of response.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When assessing a responsive medical patients chief complaint the T of OPQRST is
- A.
Time
- B.
Termination
- C.
Tenderness
- D.
Tension
Correct Answer
A. TimeExplanation
When assessing a responsive medical patient's chief complaint, the "T" in OPQRST stands for time. This refers to the duration of the symptoms the patient is experiencing. It helps the healthcare provider understand how long the symptoms have been present, whether they have been constant or intermittent, and if there have been any changes over time. This information is crucial in determining the severity and urgency of the patient's condition, as well as guiding appropriate treatment decisions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For non critical patients vital signs should be checked every... min
- A.
15
- B.
5
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 15Explanation
For non-critical patients, vital signs should be checked every 15 minutes. This frequency allows healthcare providers to closely monitor the patient's condition and detect any changes or abnormalities in their vital signs. Regular monitoring of vital signs is essential in ensuring the patient's stability and making timely interventions if necessary. Checking vital signs every 15 minutes allows healthcare providers to promptly address any potential issues and provide appropriate care to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 22.
EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients because the law holds that rational patients would consent to treatment if they were conscious. this is what form of consent
- A.
Implied
- B.
Expressed
- C.
Informed
- D.
None
Correct Answer
A. ImpliedExplanation
The given correct answer, implied, suggests that EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients based on the assumption that rational patients would give their consent to treatment if they were conscious. Implied consent is a form of consent where the individual's actions or circumstances imply their agreement or permission. In this case, the law recognizes that unconscious patients would likely consent to treatment if they were able to do so consciously. Therefore, EMS personnel can provide treatment based on this implied consent.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Common signs of trauma that you should look for in the rapid trauma assessment include which of the following
- A.
Decapitation
- B.
Flushed skin
- C.
Burns
- D.
Tenseness
Correct Answer
C. BurnsExplanation
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- 24.
During the rapid trauma assessment check all extremities for
- A.
PMS
- B.
IRT
- C.
JVD
- D.
QRS
Correct Answer
A. PMSExplanation
358Rate this question:
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- 25.
At one year of age the average RR is
- A.
20 to 30 BPM
- B.
20 to 40 BPM
- C.
12 to 20 BPM
- D.
30 to 40 BPM
Correct Answer
A. 20 to 30 BPMExplanation
At one year of age, the average respiratory rate (RR) is expected to be between 20 to 30 breaths per minute (BPM). This means that on average, a one-year-old child takes 20 to 30 breaths in a minute. The respiratory rate is an important measure of a person's breathing and can indicate any abnormalities or issues with the respiratory system.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Signs of inadequate artificial ventilation of an adult patient include
- A.
Failure of the patient skin color to improve
- B.
A HR that returns to normal
- C.
The patients chest rising and falling with each ventilation
- D.
A ventilation rate of 10-12 per min
Correct Answer
A. Failure of the patient skin color to improveExplanation
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- 27.
A 24 yr old woman has fallen form the roof of her house and is unconscious the best method of opening her airway is the
- A.
Jaw thrust
- B.
Head tilt chin lift
- C.
Tongue jaw lift
- D.
Any of these will do
Correct Answer
A. Jaw thrustExplanation
The correct answer is jaw thrust. When a person is unconscious after a fall, it is important to open their airway to ensure they can breathe properly. The jaw thrust method is preferred in this situation because it helps to maintain alignment of the head and neck without potentially causing further injury. This technique involves placing the hands on either side of the patient's jaw and gently lifting it forward, without tilting the head back. By doing so, the airway is opened without risking any potential damage to the spine.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The first pulse taken on patients 1 yr or older is
- A.
Radial
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Femoral
- D.
Carotid
Correct Answer
A. RadialExplanation
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- 29.
All are peripheral arteries except
- A.
Femoral and radial
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Dorsalis pedis
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the options you’ve listed - femoral, radial, brachial, and dorsalis pedis - are indeed peripheral arteries1. Peripheral arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the extremities. Here’s a brief description of each:
Femoral artery: This is a large artery in the thigh and the main arterial supply to the leg.
Radial artery: This artery is in the forearm and is often used to check the pulse.
Brachial artery: This is the major blood vessel of the upper arm.
Dorsalis pedis artery: This artery supplies blood to the foot.Rate this question:
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Feb 02, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 05, 2016Quiz Created by
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