Endocrinology Questions, Part 3

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Endocrinology Quizzes & Trivia

Based on USMLE notes


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    LH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.

    • A.

      Testosterone, leydig

    • B.

      Testosterone, sertoli

    • C.

      Inhibin, sertoli

    • D.

      Inhibin, leydig

    Correct Answer
    A. Testosterone, leydig
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, stimulates the release of testosterone from Leydig cells. Leydig cells are located in the testes and are responsible for producing testosterone, which is an important hormone involved in male reproductive function and development.

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  • 2. 

    FSH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.

    • A.

      Testosterone, leydig

    • B.

      Testosterone, sertoli

    • C.

      Inhibin, sertoli

    • D.

      Inhibin, leydig

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibin, sertoli
    Explanation
    FSH stimulates inhibin release from sertoli cells. Inhibin is a hormone that plays a role in regulating the production of sperm and inhibiting the secretion of FSH. Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are responsible for supporting and nourishing developing sperm cells. Therefore, FSH stimulates the release of inhibin from sertoli cells to help regulate sperm production.

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  • 3. 

    Testosterone secreted from LH cells _____ GnRH and LH secretion and _____ spermatogenesis.

    • A.

      Inhibits, inhibits

    • B.

      Stimulates, stimulates

    • C.

      Inhibits, stimulates

    • D.

      Stimulates, inhibits

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibits, stimulates
    Explanation
    Testosterone secreted from LH cells inhibits the release of GnRH and LH, which helps regulate the production of testosterone. However, it stimulates spermatogenesis, the process of sperm cell development.

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  • 4. 

    Inhibin is secreted from _____ cells and _____ FSH secretion.

    • A.

      Leydig, stimulates

    • B.

      Leydig, inhibits

    • C.

      Sertoli, stimulates

    • D.

      Sertoli, inhibits

    Correct Answer
    D. Sertoli, inhibits
    Explanation
    Inhibin is a hormone that is secreted from Sertoli cells in the testes. It acts as a negative feedback mechanism on the anterior pituitary gland, specifically inhibiting the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This helps regulate the production of sperm and maintain a balance in the reproductive system.

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  • 5. 

    DHT and testosterone are produced in the _____, while androstenedione is produced by the _____.

    • A.

      Testis, adrenals

    • B.

      Adrenals, testis

    Correct Answer
    A. Testis, adrenals
    Explanation
    DHT and testosterone are produced in the testis, while androstenedione is produced by the adrenals.

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  • 6. 

    Exogenous testosterone _____ sperm production.

    • A.

      Inhibits

    • B.

      Enhances

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibits
    Explanation
    Exogenous testosterone --> inhibits LH --> decreased testosterone production in testis --> reduced sperm production

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  • 7. 

    Testosterone is responsible for:

    • A.

      Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)

    • B.

      Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC's

    • C.

      Deepening of the voice

    • D.

      Closing of the epiphyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)

    • E.

      Libido

    • F.

      Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development

    • G.

      Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)
    B. Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC's
    C. Deepening of the voice
    D. Closing of the epipHyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)
    E. Libido
    Explanation
    Testosterone is responsible for the differentiation of the internal male genitalia (except prostate), the growth spurt of the penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, and red blood cells, the deepening of the voice, the closing of the epiphyseal plates through conversion to estrogen, and libido. It also plays a role in the differentiation of the penis, scrotum, and prostate during fetal development, as well as prostate growth, balding, and sebaceous gland activity.

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  • 8. 

    DHT is responsible for:

    • A.

      Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)

    • B.

      Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC

    • C.

      Deepening of the voice

    • D.

      Closing of the epiphyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)

    • E.

      Libido

    • F.

      Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development

    • G.

      Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity

    Correct Answer(s)
    F. Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development
    G. Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity
    Explanation
    DHT, or dihydrotestosterone, is responsible for the differentiation of the penis, scrotum, and prostate during fetal development. It also contributes to the growth of the prostate, balding, and sebaceous gland activity.

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  • 9. 

    Correct order of androgen potency:

    • A.

      DHT > testosterone > androstendione

    • B.

      Androstendione> DHT > testosterone

    • C.

      DHT> androstendione > testosterone

    • D.

      Testosterone> DHT> androstendione

    Correct Answer
    A. DHT > testosterone > androstendione
    Explanation
    Androgens are a group of hormones that play a role in the development and maintenance of male characteristics. The correct order of androgen potency is DHT (dihydrotestosterone) being the most potent, followed by testosterone, and then androstenedione. DHT is a more potent androgen than testosterone because it binds more strongly to androgen receptors in the body. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone, and androstenedione is a precursor to both testosterone and estrogen. Therefore, DHT > testosterone > androstenedione is the correct order of androgen potency.

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  • 10. 

    Estradiol is produced in the _____; estriol is produced in the _____; estrone is produced in the _____

    • A.

      Ovary, placenta, blood

    • B.

      Placenta, blood, ovary

    • C.

      Placenta, ovary, blood

    • D.

      Blood, placenta, ovary

    • E.

      Ovary, blood, placenta

    Correct Answer
    A. Ovary, placenta, blood
    Explanation
    Estradiol is primarily produced in the ovaries, where it plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Estriol, on the other hand, is mainly produced in the placenta during pregnancy. It is a weaker form of estrogen and is primarily involved in maintaining the health of the fetus and supporting pregnancy. Estrone is produced in various tissues in the body, including the ovaries, but it is also produced in the adrenal glands and fat cells. It is the least potent form of estrogen and is involved in various physiological processes, including bone health and lipid metabolism.

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  • 11. 

    LH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.

    • A.

      Androstenedione, theca

    • B.

      Androstenedione, granulosa

    • C.

      Estrogen, theca

    • D.

      Estrogen, granulosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Androstenedione, theca
    Explanation
    LH stimulates the release of androstenedione from the theca cells.

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  • 12. 

    FSH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.

    • A.

      Androstenedione, theca

    • B.

      Androstenedione, granulosa

    • C.

      Estrogen, theca

    • D.

      Estrogen, granulosa

    Correct Answer
    D. Estrogen, granulosa
    Explanation
    FSH stimulates estrogen release from granulosa cells. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, is a hormone released by the pituitary gland that plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of ovarian follicles. Granulosa cells are found within the ovarian follicles and are responsible for producing estrogen. FSH acts on these granulosa cells to stimulate the production and release of estrogen, which is important for the regulation of the menstrual cycle and for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females.

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  • 13. 

    Estrogen actions: 1) _____ and _____ development; _____ fat distribution 2) Follicle _____, endometrial _____, _____ myometrial excitability 3) _____ regulation of estrogen, LH, FSH receptors; _____ of FSH and LH --> LH surge; _____ prolactin secretion (but not at the breast) 4) _____ SHBG, _____ HDL, _____ LDL

  • 14. 

    Progesterone is produced by: 1) 2) 3) 4)

  • 15. 

    Progesterone actions: 1) _____ endometrial glandular secretions 2) _____ pregnancy 3) _____ myometrial excitability 4) Production of thick _____ to inhibit sperm entry 5) _____ body temperature 6) _____ LH and FSH 7) Uterine smooth muscle _____ 8) _____ estrogen receptor expressivity

  • 16. 

    Follicular phase is the same as _____ phase and _____.

    • A.

      Proliferative; varies in length

    • B.

      Proliferative; is a constant 14 days

    • C.

      Secretory; varies in length

    • D.

      Secretory; is a constant 14 days

    Correct Answer
    A. Proliferative; varies in length
    Explanation
    The correct answer is proliferative; varies in length. This is because the follicular phase is characterized by the development of the ovarian follicles, which results in the thickening of the uterine lining. During this phase, the levels of estrogen increase, leading to the proliferation of the endometrial cells. The length of the follicular phase can vary from person to person and cycle to cycle.

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  • 17. 

    Luteal phase is the same as _____ phase and _____.

    • A.

      Proliferative; varies in length

    • B.

      Proliferative; is a constant 14 days

    • C.

      Secretory; varies in length

    • D.

      Secretory; is a constant 14 days

    Correct Answer
    D. Secretory; is a constant 14 days
    Explanation
    The luteal phase is the same as the secretory phase and it lasts for a constant 14 days. This phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by the formation of the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to prepare the uterus for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The secretory phase is a consistent length of 14 days in a normal menstrual cycle.

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  • 18. 

    Ovulation + 14 days =

    Correct Answer
    menstruation
    Explanation
    Ovulation is the process in which an egg is released from the ovary. This typically occurs around day 14 of a woman's menstrual cycle. After ovulation, if the egg is not fertilized, the lining of the uterus sheds, resulting in menstruation. Therefore, ovulation + 14 days equals menstruation.

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  • 19. 

    Progesterone _____ inicates ovulation has occurred.

    • A.

      Elevation

    • B.

      Absence

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevation
    Explanation
    Progesterone elevation indicates ovulation has occurred. This means that the levels of progesterone in the body increase after ovulation, which is the release of an egg from the ovary. This increase in progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is "elevation" as it accurately describes the relationship between progesterone and ovulation.

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  • 20. 

    Put the following into correct order: a) progesterone b) LH surge c) menstruation d) estrogrn e) ovulation

  • 21. 

    _____ is defined as follicle rupture and causes increased basal temperature.

    Correct Answer
    Ovulation
    Explanation
    Causes increased body temp due to progesterone release.

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  • 22. 

    HCG is produced by the _____.

    Correct Answer
    placenta
    Explanation
    hCG, also known as human chorionic gonadotropin, is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It is responsible for maintaining the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum, which is essential for the maintenance of pregnancy. hCG is also the hormone detected in pregnancy tests, as its presence in the urine or blood indicates pregnancy.

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  • 23. 

    HCG functions: 1) Maintains the _____ for the 1st trimester by acting like _____ 2) _____ detection via _____ sample 3) _____ in pathologic states (e.g. hyatidiform moles, choriocarcinoma, gestational trophoblastic tumors)

  • 24. 

    Average age of menopause onset is _____ years old - earlier for smokers.

    Correct Answer
    51
    Explanation
    The average age of menopause onset is 51 years old, and it is earlier for smokers. Smoking has been found to be associated with an earlier onset of menopause. This could be due to the harmful effects of smoking on the ovaries and the overall hormonal balance in the body. Therefore, women who smoke are more likely to experience menopause at a younger age compared to non-smokers.

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  • 25. 

    _____ FSH levels are the best test to confirm menopause.

    • A.

      Elevated

    • B.

      Reduced

    • C.

      Fluctuating

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated
    Explanation
    Elevated FSH levels are the best test to confirm menopause because during menopause, the ovaries produce less estrogen and progesterone, which leads to an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels. FSH is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of eggs in the ovaries. When menopause occurs, the ovaries no longer respond to FSH, causing FSH levels to rise. Therefore, elevated FSH levels indicate that the ovaries are no longer functioning properly and confirm the onset of menopause.

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  • 26. 

    Hormonal changes in menopause: 1) _____ estrogen 2) _____ FSH 3) _____ LH 4) _____ GnRH

  • 27. 

    Menopause symptoms: (Hint - wreaks HHAVOC) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

  • 28. 

    Defective androgen receptor causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.

    • A.

      High, high

    • B.

      High, low

    • C.

      Low, high

    • D.

      Low, low

    Correct Answer
    A. High, high
    Explanation
    A defective androgen receptor would result in high levels of testosterone because the receptor is unable to properly bind and respond to testosterone, leading to an accumulation of the hormone. Additionally, the defective receptor would also cause high levels of LH (luteinizing hormone) because the body would continuously try to stimulate the receptor to respond to testosterone, resulting in an overproduction of LH.

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  • 29. 

    Hypogogadotropic hypogonadism causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.

    • A.

      High, high

    • B.

      High, low

    • C.

      Low, high

    • D.

      Low, low

    Correct Answer
    D. Low, low
    Explanation
    Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is a condition characterized by low levels of testosterone and low levels of luteinizing hormone (LH). Testosterone is a hormone responsible for male sexual development and function, while LH stimulates the production of testosterone. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, there is a dysfunction in the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased production of LH and subsequently low levels of testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is "low, low".

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  • 30. 

    Testosterone-secreting tumor causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.

    • A.

      High, high

    • B.

      High, low

    • C.

      Low, high

    • D.

      Low, low

    Correct Answer
    B. High, low
    Explanation
    A testosterone-secreting tumor would cause high levels of testosterone because the tumor is producing excess amounts of this hormone. However, it would also cause low levels of LH (luteinizing hormone) because the body's natural feedback mechanism would sense the high levels of testosterone and signal the pituitary gland to decrease the production of LH, which stimulates testosterone production.

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  • 31. 

    Primary hypogonadism causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.

    • A.

      High, high

    • B.

      High, low

    • C.

      Low, high

    • D.

      Low, low

    Correct Answer
    C. Low, high
    Explanation
    Primary hypogonadism refers to a condition where the testes are unable to produce sufficient amounts of testosterone. This results in low levels of testosterone. In response to the low testosterone levels, the pituitary gland releases high levels of luteinizing hormone (LH) in an attempt to stimulate the testes to produce more testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is "low, high".

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  • 32. 

    This syndrome is characterized by normal-appearing female, no sexual hair, testes, elevated testosterone and estrogen.

    Correct Answer
    androgen insensitivity
    androgen receptor insensitivity
    Explanation
    Androgen insensitivity, also known as androgen receptor insensitivity, is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have a mutation in the androgen receptor gene, causing their bodies to be unable to respond to male sex hormones (androgens) like testosterone. This results in the development of female external genitalia and the absence of sexual hair, despite having testes and elevated levels of testosterone and estrogen.

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  • 33. 

    _____ deficiency produces internal male genitalial and ambiguous external genitalia until puberty.

    Correct Answer
    5a-reductase
    5 alpha reductase
    Explanation
    5-alpha reductase deficiency is a condition that affects the development of male genitalia. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is necessary for the development of male external genitalia during fetal development. In individuals with 5-alpha reductase deficiency, the conversion of testosterone to DHT is impaired, leading to the development of ambiguous or female-like external genitalia. However, during puberty, an increase in testosterone levels can lead to the development of male internal genitalia.

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  • 34. 

    Lack of _____ causes development of both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia.

    • A.

      Sertoli cells

    • B.

      Anti-mullerian hormone

    • C.

      Sertoli cells OR anti-mullerian hormone

    Correct Answer
    C. Sertoli cells OR anti-mullerian hormone
    Explanation
    The development of both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia is caused by either the presence of sertoli cells or the presence of anti-mullerian hormone.

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  • 35. 

    This pathology is caused by cystic swelling of chorionic villi and chorionic epithelium proliferatino; characterized by elevated beta-hCG, "cluster of grapes" uterus, vaginal bleeding; most common precursor for choriocarcinoma.

    Correct Answer
    hydatidiform mole
    Explanation
    Hydatidiform mole is a pathology caused by cystic swelling of chorionic villi and chorionic epithelium proliferation. It is characterized by elevated beta-hCG levels, a "cluster of grapes" appearance of the uterus, vaginal bleeding, and is the most common precursor for choriocarcinoma.

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  • 36. 

    _____ hydatidiform mole is more likely to be malignant, does not contain fetal parts, and have _____ elevated hCG.

    • A.

      Complete, very

    • B.

      Complete, somewhat

    • C.

      Partial, very

    • D.

      Partial, somewhat

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete, very
    Explanation
    A complete hydatidiform mole is more likely to be malignant because it does not contain fetal parts and has very elevated hCG levels. This means that the mole is a result of abnormal fertilization and the cells are rapidly dividing and growing. The absence of fetal parts indicates that there is no normal development occurring, and the very elevated hCG levels suggest an abnormal pregnancy. These factors contribute to the increased likelihood of malignancy in a complete hydatidiform mole.

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  • 37. 

    Cervical hyperplasia is classified as...

    • A.

      CIN 1

    • B.

      CIN 2

    • C.

      CIN 3

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. CIN 1
    B. CIN 2
    Explanation
    Cervical hyperplasia is classified into three categories: CIN 1, CIN 2, and CIN 3. CIN stands for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, which refers to abnormal growth of cells on the surface of the cervix. CIN 1 is considered mild dysplasia, where there is a low risk of progression to cervical cancer. CIN 2 is moderate dysplasia, indicating a higher risk of progression. CIN 3 is severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which has the highest risk of progressing to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the correct answer includes CIN 1 and CIN 2 as different classifications of cervical hyperplasia.

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  • 38. 

    Cervical carcinoma in situ is classified as...

    • A.

      CIN 1

    • B.

      CIN 2

    • C.

      CIN 3

    Correct Answer
    C. CIN 3
    Explanation
    Cervical carcinoma in situ is classified as CIN 3. CIN stands for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, which is a precancerous condition where abnormal cells are found in the lining of the cervix. CIN 3 is the most severe stage of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, indicating a high-grade lesion with a high risk of progressing to invasive cervical cancer if left untreated.

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  • 39. 

    Cervical carcinoma is associated with HPV...

    • A.

      13

    • B.

      21

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      17

    • E.

      18

    • F.

      15

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 16
    E. 18
    Explanation
    Cervical carcinoma is associated with two types of human papillomavirus (HPV), specifically types 16 and 18. These two types of HPV are known to be high-risk and are responsible for causing the majority of cervical cancer cases. HPV 16 and 18 are sexually transmitted and can lead to the development of abnormal cells in the cervix, which can eventually progress to cervical carcinoma. Regular screening and vaccination against HPV can help prevent the development of cervical carcinoma.

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  • 40. 

    _____ is typical of HPV infection.

    • A.

      Koiliocytic change

    • B.

      Invasive carcinoma

    • C.

      Carcinoma in situ

    Correct Answer
    A. Koiliocytic change
    Explanation
    Koiliocytic change is typical of HPV infection. This refers to the presence of abnormal, enlarged, and irregularly shaped cells with a raisin-like appearance. These changes are commonly seen in squamous epithelial cells infected with high-risk types of HPV, such as HPV 16 and 18. Koiliocytic change is often observed in Pap smears and can be an early indication of HPV infection. It is important to monitor and further investigate these changes as they can progress to more severe abnormalities, such as dysplasia or carcinoma in situ.

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  • 41. 

    _____ carcinoma is the most comme gynecologic malignancy; often preceded by _____ hyperplasia; increased risk associated with prolonged esxposure to unapposed estrogen.

    Correct Answer
    Endometrial
    Explanation
    Endometrial carcinoma is the most common gynecologic malignancy. It is often preceded by endometrial hyperplasia, which is an abnormal thickening of the lining of the uterus. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen, meaning estrogen without the balancing effect of progesterone, increases the risk of developing endometrial carcinoma.

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  • 42. 

    Most common female tumor

    Correct Answer
    fibroid
    leiomyoma
    Explanation
    Fibroids, also known as leiomyomas, are the most common tumors found in females. They are benign growths that develop in the uterus. Fibroids can vary in size and number, and they are typically non-cancerous. They can cause symptoms such as heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and frequent urination. Treatment options for fibroids include medication, minimally invasive procedures, and surgery, depending on the severity of symptoms and the patient's desire for fertility.

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  • 43. 

    Place the following gynecologic cancer types into decreasing order based on incidence, then worst prognosis: ovarian, endometrial, cervical

  • 44. 

    Premature ovrian failure defined as menopause before the age of _____ years old.

    Correct Answer
    40
    Explanation
    Premature ovarian failure is a condition where a woman's ovaries stop functioning before the age of 40, leading to infertility and early menopause. This means that the correct answer for the age at which premature ovarian failure is defined is 40 years old.

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  • 45. 

    Syndrome characterized by elevated LH, hyperandrogenism, amenorrhea, infertility, hirsutism, insulin resistance, increased risk of endometrial cancer.

    Correct Answer
    PCOS
    polycystic ovarian syndrome
    Explanation
    PCOS, or polycystic ovarian syndrome, is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by elevated levels of luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates the ovaries to produce excess androgens (male hormones). This hormonal imbalance leads to symptoms such as amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), infertility, hirsutism (excessive hair growth), and insulin resistance. PCOS also increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Therefore, the given answer correctly identifies PCOS as the syndrome characterized by these specific symptoms and risk factors.

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  • 46. 

    Ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by malignancy, sheets of uniform cells; hCG and LDH tumor markers; male seminoma equivalent

    • A.

      Dysgerminoma

    • B.

      Choriocarcinoma

    • C.

      Yolk sac tumor

    • D.

      Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysgerminoma
    Explanation
    Dysgerminoma is a type of ovarian germ cell tumor that is characterized by malignancy and the presence of sheets of uniform cells. It is associated with elevated levels of hCG and LDH tumor markers. Dysgerminoma is often considered the female equivalent of male seminoma, a type of testicular germ cell tumor. Therefore, the correct answer is Dysgerminoma.

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  • 47. 

    Rare ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by malignancy, development during pregnancy, theca-lutean cysts, large hyperchromatic syncytiotrophoblastic cells; hCG tumor marker

    • A.

      Dysgerminoma

    • B.

      Choriocarcinoma

    • C.

      Yolk sac tumor

    • D.

      Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Choriocarcinoma
    Explanation
    Choriocarcinoma is the correct answer because it is a rare ovarian germ cell tumor that is characterized by malignancy and is known to develop during pregnancy. It is also associated with the presence of theca-lutean cysts and large hyperchromatic syncytiotrophoblastic cells. Choriocarcinoma is further distinguished by the production of hCG tumor marker.

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  • 48. 

    Ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by aggressive malignancy in young children (testes in boys), yellow friable solid mass, 50% resemble glomeruli

    • A.

      Dysgerminoma

    • B.

      Choriocarcinoma

    • C.

      Yolk sac tumor

    • D.

      Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Yolk sac tumor
    Explanation
    Yolk sac tumor is the correct answer because it is an ovarian germ cell tumor that is known for its aggressive malignancy in young children. In boys, it can also occur in the testes. Yolk sac tumors are characterized by a yellow friable solid mass and approximately 50% of them resemble glomeruli. This explanation aligns with the given characteristics of the tumor.

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  • 49. 

    Comprises over 90% of ovarian germ cell tumors and contains cells from 2-3 germ cell layers. Mature types are most common benign ovarian tumor. Immature types as aggressively malignant. Struma ovarii contains functional thyroid tissue --> hyperthyroidism.

    • A.

      Dysgerminoma

    • B.

      Choriocarcinoma

    • C.

      Yolk sac tumor

    • D.

      Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Teratoma
    Explanation
    Teratoma is the correct answer because it is a type of ovarian germ cell tumor that contains cells from 2-3 germ cell layers. It can be either benign (mature) or malignant (immature). Additionally, teratomas can have various tissue types, including functional thyroid tissue in the case of struma ovarii, which can lead to hyperthyroidism.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
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