Endocrinology Questions, Part 3
Based on USMLE notes
Questions and Answers
- 1.
LH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.
- A.
Testosterone, leydig
- B.
Testosterone, sertoli
- C.
Inhibin, sertoli
- D.
Inhibin, leydig
Correct Answer
A. Testosterone, leydigExplanation
LH, or luteinizing hormone, stimulates the release of testosterone from Leydig cells. Leydig cells are located in the testes and are responsible for producing testosterone, which is an important hormone involved in male reproductive function and development.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
FSH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.
- A.
Testosterone, leydig
- B.
Testosterone, sertoli
- C.
Inhibin, sertoli
- D.
Inhibin, leydig
Correct Answer
C. Inhibin, sertoliExplanation
FSH stimulates inhibin release from sertoli cells. Inhibin is a hormone that plays a role in regulating the production of sperm and inhibiting the secretion of FSH. Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are responsible for supporting and nourishing developing sperm cells. Therefore, FSH stimulates the release of inhibin from sertoli cells to help regulate sperm production.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Testosterone secreted from LH cells _____ GnRH and LH secretion and _____ spermatogenesis.
- A.
Inhibits, inhibits
- B.
Stimulates, stimulates
- C.
Inhibits, stimulates
- D.
Stimulates, inhibits
Correct Answer
C. Inhibits, stimulatesExplanation
Testosterone secreted from LH cells inhibits the release of GnRH and LH, which helps regulate the production of testosterone. However, it stimulates spermatogenesis, the process of sperm cell development.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Inhibin is secreted from _____ cells and _____ FSH secretion.
- A.
Leydig, stimulates
- B.
Leydig, inhibits
- C.
Sertoli, stimulates
- D.
Sertoli, inhibits
Correct Answer
D. Sertoli, inhibitsExplanation
Inhibin is a hormone that is secreted from Sertoli cells in the testes. It acts as a negative feedback mechanism on the anterior pituitary gland, specifically inhibiting the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This helps regulate the production of sperm and maintain a balance in the reproductive system.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
DHT and testosterone are produced in the _____, while androstenedione is produced by the _____.
- A.
Testis, adrenals
- B.
Adrenals, testis
Correct Answer
A. Testis, adrenalsExplanation
DHT and testosterone are produced in the testis, while androstenedione is produced by the adrenals.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Exogenous testosterone _____ sperm production.
- A.
Inhibits
- B.
Enhances
Correct Answer
A. InhibitsExplanation
Exogenous testosterone --> inhibits LH --> decreased testosterone production in testis --> reduced sperm productionRate this question:
-
- 7.
Testosterone is responsible for:
- A.
Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)
- B.
Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC's
- C.
Deepening of the voice
- D.
Closing of the epiphyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)
- E.
Libido
- F.
Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development
- G.
Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity
Correct Answer(s)
A. Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)
B. Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC's
C. Deepening of the voice
D. Closing of the epiphyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)
E. LibidoExplanation
Testosterone is responsible for the differentiation of the internal male genitalia (except prostate), the growth spurt of the penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, and red blood cells, the deepening of the voice, the closing of the epiphyseal plates through conversion to estrogen, and libido. It also plays a role in the differentiation of the penis, scrotum, and prostate during fetal development, as well as prostate growth, balding, and sebaceous gland activity.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
DHT is responsible for:
- A.
Differentiation of the internal male geitalia (except prostate)
- B.
Growth spurt - penis, seminal vesicles, sperm, muscle, RBC
- C.
Deepening of the voice
- D.
Closing of the epiphyseal plates (via conversion to estrogen)
- E.
Libido
- F.
Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development
- G.
Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity
Correct Answer(s)
F. Differentiation of penis, scrotum, prostate during fetal development
G. Prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activityExplanation
DHT, or dihydrotestosterone, is responsible for the differentiation of the penis, scrotum, and prostate during fetal development. It also contributes to the growth of the prostate, balding, and sebaceous gland activity.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Correct order of androgen potency:
- A.
DHT > testosterone > androstendione
- B.
Androstendione> DHT > testosterone
- C.
DHT> androstendione > testosterone
- D.
Testosterone> DHT> androstendione
Correct Answer
A. DHT > testosterone > androstendioneExplanation
Androgens are a group of hormones that play a role in the development and maintenance of male characteristics. The correct order of androgen potency is DHT (dihydrotestosterone) being the most potent, followed by testosterone, and then androstenedione. DHT is a more potent androgen than testosterone because it binds more strongly to androgen receptors in the body. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone, and androstenedione is a precursor to both testosterone and estrogen. Therefore, DHT > testosterone > androstenedione is the correct order of androgen potency.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Estradiol is produced in the _____; estriol is produced in the _____; estrone is produced in the _____
- A.
Ovary, placenta, blood
- B.
Placenta, blood, ovary
- C.
Placenta, ovary, blood
- D.
Blood, placenta, ovary
- E.
Ovary, blood, placenta
Correct Answer
A. Ovary, placenta, bloodExplanation
Estradiol is primarily produced in the ovaries, where it plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. Estriol, on the other hand, is mainly produced in the placenta during pregnancy. It is a weaker form of estrogen and is primarily involved in maintaining the health of the fetus and supporting pregnancy. Estrone is produced in various tissues in the body, including the ovaries, but it is also produced in the adrenal glands and fat cells. It is the least potent form of estrogen and is involved in various physiological processes, including bone health and lipid metabolism.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
LH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.
- A.
Androstenedione, theca
- B.
Androstenedione, granulosa
- C.
Estrogen, theca
- D.
Estrogen, granulosa
Correct Answer
A. Androstenedione, thecaExplanation
LH stimulates the release of androstenedione from the theca cells.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
FSH stimulates _____ release from _____ cells.
- A.
Androstenedione, theca
- B.
Androstenedione, granulosa
- C.
Estrogen, theca
- D.
Estrogen, granulosa
Correct Answer
D. Estrogen, granulosaExplanation
FSH stimulates estrogen release from granulosa cells. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, is a hormone released by the pituitary gland that plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of ovarian follicles. Granulosa cells are found within the ovarian follicles and are responsible for producing estrogen. FSH acts on these granulosa cells to stimulate the production and release of estrogen, which is important for the regulation of the menstrual cycle and for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Estrogen actions: 1) _____ and _____ development; _____ fat distribution 2) Follicle _____, endometrial _____, _____ myometrial excitability 3) _____ regulation of estrogen, LH, FSH receptors; _____ of FSH and LH --> LH surge; _____ prolactin secretion (but not at the breast) 4) _____ SHBG, _____ HDL, _____ LDL
- 14.
Progesterone is produced by: 1) 2) 3) 4)
- 15.
Progesterone actions: 1) _____ endometrial glandular secretions 2) _____ pregnancy 3) _____ myometrial excitability 4) Production of thick _____ to inhibit sperm entry 5) _____ body temperature 6) _____ LH and FSH 7) Uterine smooth muscle _____ 8) _____ estrogen receptor expressivity
- 16.
Follicular phase is the same as _____ phase and _____.
- A.
Proliferative; varies in length
- B.
Proliferative; is a constant 14 days
- C.
Secretory; varies in length
- D.
Secretory; is a constant 14 days
Correct Answer
A. Proliferative; varies in lengthExplanation
The correct answer is proliferative; varies in length. This is because the follicular phase is characterized by the development of the ovarian follicles, which results in the thickening of the uterine lining. During this phase, the levels of estrogen increase, leading to the proliferation of the endometrial cells. The length of the follicular phase can vary from person to person and cycle to cycle.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Luteal phase is the same as _____ phase and _____.
- A.
Proliferative; varies in length
- B.
Proliferative; is a constant 14 days
- C.
Secretory; varies in length
- D.
Secretory; is a constant 14 days
Correct Answer
D. Secretory; is a constant 14 daysExplanation
The luteal phase is the same as the secretory phase and it lasts for a constant 14 days. This phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by the formation of the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to prepare the uterus for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The secretory phase is a consistent length of 14 days in a normal menstrual cycle.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Ovulation + 14 days =
Correct Answer
menstruationExplanation
Ovulation is the process in which an egg is released from the ovary. This typically occurs around day 14 of a woman's menstrual cycle. After ovulation, if the egg is not fertilized, the lining of the uterus sheds, resulting in menstruation. Therefore, ovulation + 14 days equals menstruation.Rate this question:
- 19.
Progesterone _____ inicates ovulation has occurred.
- A.
Elevation
- B.
Absence
Correct Answer
A. ElevationExplanation
Progesterone elevation indicates ovulation has occurred. This means that the levels of progesterone in the body increase after ovulation, which is the release of an egg from the ovary. This increase in progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is "elevation" as it accurately describes the relationship between progesterone and ovulation.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Put the following into correct order: a) progesterone b) LH surge c) menstruation d) estrogrn e) ovulation
- 21.
_____ is defined as follicle rupture and causes increased basal temperature.
Correct Answer
OvulationExplanation
Causes increased body temp due to progesterone release.Rate this question:
- 22.
HCG is produced by the _____.
Correct Answer
placentaExplanation
hCG, also known as human chorionic gonadotropin, is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It is responsible for maintaining the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum, which is essential for the maintenance of pregnancy. hCG is also the hormone detected in pregnancy tests, as its presence in the urine or blood indicates pregnancy.Rate this question:
- 23.
HCG functions: 1) Maintains the _____ for the 1st trimester by acting like _____ 2) _____ detection via _____ sample 3) _____ in pathologic states (e.g. hyatidiform moles, choriocarcinoma, gestational trophoblastic tumors)
- 24.
Average age of menopause onset is _____ years old - earlier for smokers.
Correct Answer
51Explanation
The average age of menopause onset is 51 years old, and it is earlier for smokers. Smoking has been found to be associated with an earlier onset of menopause. This could be due to the harmful effects of smoking on the ovaries and the overall hormonal balance in the body. Therefore, women who smoke are more likely to experience menopause at a younger age compared to non-smokers.Rate this question:
- 25.
_____ FSH levels are the best test to confirm menopause.
- A.
Elevated
- B.
Reduced
- C.
Fluctuating
Correct Answer
A. ElevatedExplanation
Elevated FSH levels are the best test to confirm menopause because during menopause, the ovaries produce less estrogen and progesterone, which leads to an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels. FSH is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of eggs in the ovaries. When menopause occurs, the ovaries no longer respond to FSH, causing FSH levels to rise. Therefore, elevated FSH levels indicate that the ovaries are no longer functioning properly and confirm the onset of menopause.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Hormonal changes in menopause: 1) _____ estrogen 2) _____ FSH 3) _____ LH 4) _____ GnRH
- 27.
Menopause symptoms: (Hint - wreaks HHAVOC) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
- 28.
Defective androgen receptor causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.
- A.
High, high
- B.
High, low
- C.
Low, high
- D.
Low, low
Correct Answer
A. High, highExplanation
A defective androgen receptor would result in high levels of testosterone because the receptor is unable to properly bind and respond to testosterone, leading to an accumulation of the hormone. Additionally, the defective receptor would also cause high levels of LH (luteinizing hormone) because the body would continuously try to stimulate the receptor to respond to testosterone, resulting in an overproduction of LH.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Hypogogadotropic hypogonadism causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.
- A.
High, high
- B.
High, low
- C.
Low, high
- D.
Low, low
Correct Answer
D. Low, lowExplanation
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is a condition characterized by low levels of testosterone and low levels of luteinizing hormone (LH). Testosterone is a hormone responsible for male sexual development and function, while LH stimulates the production of testosterone. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, there is a dysfunction in the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased production of LH and subsequently low levels of testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is "low, low".Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Testosterone-secreting tumor causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.
- A.
High, high
- B.
High, low
- C.
Low, high
- D.
Low, low
Correct Answer
B. High, lowExplanation
A testosterone-secreting tumor would cause high levels of testosterone because the tumor is producing excess amounts of this hormone. However, it would also cause low levels of LH (luteinizing hormone) because the body's natural feedback mechanism would sense the high levels of testosterone and signal the pituitary gland to decrease the production of LH, which stimulates testosterone production.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Primary hypogonadism causes _____ testosterone and _____ LH.
- A.
High, high
- B.
High, low
- C.
Low, high
- D.
Low, low
Correct Answer
C. Low, highExplanation
Primary hypogonadism refers to a condition where the testes are unable to produce sufficient amounts of testosterone. This results in low levels of testosterone. In response to the low testosterone levels, the pituitary gland releases high levels of luteinizing hormone (LH) in an attempt to stimulate the testes to produce more testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is "low, high".Rate this question:
-
- 32.
This syndrome is characterized by normal-appearing female, no sexual hair, testes, elevated testosterone and estrogen.
Correct Answer
androgen insensitivity
androgen receptor insensitivityExplanation
Androgen insensitivity, also known as androgen receptor insensitivity, is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have a mutation in the androgen receptor gene, causing their bodies to be unable to respond to male sex hormones (androgens) like testosterone. This results in the development of female external genitalia and the absence of sexual hair, despite having testes and elevated levels of testosterone and estrogen.Rate this question:
- 33.
_____ deficiency produces internal male genitalial and ambiguous external genitalia until puberty.
Correct Answer
5a-reductase
5 alpha reductaseExplanation
5-alpha reductase deficiency is a condition that affects the development of male genitalia. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is necessary for the development of male external genitalia during fetal development. In individuals with 5-alpha reductase deficiency, the conversion of testosterone to DHT is impaired, leading to the development of ambiguous or female-like external genitalia. However, during puberty, an increase in testosterone levels can lead to the development of male internal genitalia.Rate this question:
- 34.
Lack of _____ causes development of both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia.
- A.
Sertoli cells
- B.
Anti-mullerian hormone
- C.
Sertoli cells OR anti-mullerian hormone
Correct Answer
C. Sertoli cells OR anti-mullerian hormoneExplanation
The development of both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia is caused by either the presence of sertoli cells or the presence of anti-mullerian hormone.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
This pathology is caused by cystic swelling of chorionic villi and chorionic epithelium proliferatino; characterized by elevated beta-hCG, "cluster of grapes" uterus, vaginal bleeding; most common precursor for choriocarcinoma.
Correct Answer
hydatidiform moleExplanation
Hydatidiform mole is a pathology caused by cystic swelling of chorionic villi and chorionic epithelium proliferation. It is characterized by elevated beta-hCG levels, a "cluster of grapes" appearance of the uterus, vaginal bleeding, and is the most common precursor for choriocarcinoma.Rate this question:
- 36.
_____ hydatidiform mole is more likely to be malignant, does not contain fetal parts, and have _____ elevated hCG.
- A.
Complete, very
- B.
Complete, somewhat
- C.
Partial, very
- D.
Partial, somewhat
Correct Answer
A. Complete, veryExplanation
A complete hydatidiform mole is more likely to be malignant because it does not contain fetal parts and has very elevated hCG levels. This means that the mole is a result of abnormal fertilization and the cells are rapidly dividing and growing. The absence of fetal parts indicates that there is no normal development occurring, and the very elevated hCG levels suggest an abnormal pregnancy. These factors contribute to the increased likelihood of malignancy in a complete hydatidiform mole.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Cervical hyperplasia is classified as...
- A.
CIN 1
- B.
CIN 2
- C.
CIN 3
Correct Answer(s)
A. CIN 1
B. CIN 2Explanation
Cervical hyperplasia is classified into three categories: CIN 1, CIN 2, and CIN 3. CIN stands for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, which refers to abnormal growth of cells on the surface of the cervix. CIN 1 is considered mild dysplasia, where there is a low risk of progression to cervical cancer. CIN 2 is moderate dysplasia, indicating a higher risk of progression. CIN 3 is severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which has the highest risk of progressing to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the correct answer includes CIN 1 and CIN 2 as different classifications of cervical hyperplasia.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Cervical carcinoma in situ is classified as...
- A.
CIN 1
- B.
CIN 2
- C.
CIN 3
Correct Answer
C. CIN 3Explanation
Cervical carcinoma in situ is classified as CIN 3. CIN stands for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, which is a precancerous condition where abnormal cells are found in the lining of the cervix. CIN 3 is the most severe stage of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, indicating a high-grade lesion with a high risk of progressing to invasive cervical cancer if left untreated.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Cervical carcinoma is associated with HPV...
- A.
13
- B.
21
- C.
16
- D.
17
- E.
18
- F.
15
Correct Answer(s)
C. 16
E. 18Explanation
Cervical carcinoma is associated with two types of human papillomavirus (HPV), specifically types 16 and 18. These two types of HPV are known to be high-risk and are responsible for causing the majority of cervical cancer cases. HPV 16 and 18 are sexually transmitted and can lead to the development of abnormal cells in the cervix, which can eventually progress to cervical carcinoma. Regular screening and vaccination against HPV can help prevent the development of cervical carcinoma.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
_____ is typical of HPV infection.
- A.
Koiliocytic change
- B.
Invasive carcinoma
- C.
Carcinoma in situ
Correct Answer
A. Koiliocytic changeExplanation
Koiliocytic change is typical of HPV infection. This refers to the presence of abnormal, enlarged, and irregularly shaped cells with a raisin-like appearance. These changes are commonly seen in squamous epithelial cells infected with high-risk types of HPV, such as HPV 16 and 18. Koiliocytic change is often observed in Pap smears and can be an early indication of HPV infection. It is important to monitor and further investigate these changes as they can progress to more severe abnormalities, such as dysplasia or carcinoma in situ.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
_____ carcinoma is the most comme gynecologic malignancy; often preceded by _____ hyperplasia; increased risk associated with prolonged esxposure to unapposed estrogen.
Correct Answer
EndometrialExplanation
Endometrial carcinoma is the most common gynecologic malignancy. It is often preceded by endometrial hyperplasia, which is an abnormal thickening of the lining of the uterus. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen, meaning estrogen without the balancing effect of progesterone, increases the risk of developing endometrial carcinoma.Rate this question:
- 42.
Most common female tumor
Correct Answer
fibroid
leiomyomaExplanation
Fibroids, also known as leiomyomas, are the most common tumors found in females. They are benign growths that develop in the uterus. Fibroids can vary in size and number, and they are typically non-cancerous. They can cause symptoms such as heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and frequent urination. Treatment options for fibroids include medication, minimally invasive procedures, and surgery, depending on the severity of symptoms and the patient's desire for fertility.Rate this question:
- 43.
Place the following gynecologic cancer types into decreasing order based on incidence, then worst prognosis: ovarian, endometrial, cervical
- 44.
Premature ovrian failure defined as menopause before the age of _____ years old.
Correct Answer
40Explanation
Premature ovarian failure is a condition where a woman's ovaries stop functioning before the age of 40, leading to infertility and early menopause. This means that the correct answer for the age at which premature ovarian failure is defined is 40 years old.Rate this question:
- 45.
Syndrome characterized by elevated LH, hyperandrogenism, amenorrhea, infertility, hirsutism, insulin resistance, increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Correct Answer
PCOS
polycystic ovarian syndromeExplanation
PCOS, or polycystic ovarian syndrome, is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by elevated levels of luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates the ovaries to produce excess androgens (male hormones). This hormonal imbalance leads to symptoms such as amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), infertility, hirsutism (excessive hair growth), and insulin resistance. PCOS also increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Therefore, the given answer correctly identifies PCOS as the syndrome characterized by these specific symptoms and risk factors.Rate this question:
- 46.
Ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by malignancy, sheets of uniform cells; hCG and LDH tumor markers; male seminoma equivalent
- A.
Dysgerminoma
- B.
Choriocarcinoma
- C.
Yolk sac tumor
- D.
Teratoma
Correct Answer
A. DysgerminomaExplanation
Dysgerminoma is a type of ovarian germ cell tumor that is characterized by malignancy and the presence of sheets of uniform cells. It is associated with elevated levels of hCG and LDH tumor markers. Dysgerminoma is often considered the female equivalent of male seminoma, a type of testicular germ cell tumor. Therefore, the correct answer is Dysgerminoma.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Rare ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by malignancy, development during pregnancy, theca-lutean cysts, large hyperchromatic syncytiotrophoblastic cells; hCG tumor marker
- A.
Dysgerminoma
- B.
Choriocarcinoma
- C.
Yolk sac tumor
- D.
Teratoma
Correct Answer
B. ChoriocarcinomaExplanation
Choriocarcinoma is the correct answer because it is a rare ovarian germ cell tumor that is characterized by malignancy and is known to develop during pregnancy. It is also associated with the presence of theca-lutean cysts and large hyperchromatic syncytiotrophoblastic cells. Choriocarcinoma is further distinguished by the production of hCG tumor marker.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Ovarian germ cell tumor characterized by aggressive malignancy in young children (testes in boys), yellow friable solid mass, 50% resemble glomeruli
- A.
Dysgerminoma
- B.
Choriocarcinoma
- C.
Yolk sac tumor
- D.
Teratoma
Correct Answer
C. Yolk sac tumorExplanation
Yolk sac tumor is the correct answer because it is an ovarian germ cell tumor that is known for its aggressive malignancy in young children. In boys, it can also occur in the testes. Yolk sac tumors are characterized by a yellow friable solid mass and approximately 50% of them resemble glomeruli. This explanation aligns with the given characteristics of the tumor.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Comprises over 90% of ovarian germ cell tumors and contains cells from 2-3 germ cell layers. Mature types are most common benign ovarian tumor. Immature types as aggressively malignant. Struma ovarii contains functional thyroid tissue --> hyperthyroidism.
- A.
Dysgerminoma
- B.
Choriocarcinoma
- C.
Yolk sac tumor
- D.
Teratoma
Correct Answer
D. TeratomaExplanation
Teratoma is the correct answer because it is a type of ovarian germ cell tumor that contains cells from 2-3 germ cell layers. It can be either benign (mature) or malignant (immature). Additionally, teratomas can have various tissue types, including functional thyroid tissue in the case of struma ovarii, which can lead to hyperthyroidism.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 09, 2011Quiz Created by
Ltbrown87
Back to top