Ess. Chap 3, Pharm Chap 29
Review week 4 mod 7
Questions and Answers
- 1.
When the immune system reacts appropriately to an antigen and homeostasis is maintained it is termed
- A.
Autoimmunity
- B.
Immunocompetence
- C.
Allergy
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. ImmunocompetenceExplanation
Immunocompetence refers to the ability of the immune system to respond appropriately to antigens while maintaining homeostasis. This means that the immune system is functioning correctly and is able to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, mounting an immune response only when necessary. Autoimmunity, on the other hand, refers to a condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells and tissues. Allergy is a hypersensitivity reaction to a harmless substance, causing an immune response. Therefore, immunocompetence is the correct answer as it describes the appropriate functioning of the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The acquired immunity that results when a person has a disease is
- A.
Active
- B.
Passive
- C.
Attenuated
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. ActiveExplanation
When a person acquires a disease, their immune system responds by producing specific antibodies to fight off the infection. This immune response is known as active immunity because it is actively generated by the person's own immune system. It involves the production of memory cells that can recognize and respond to the same pathogen in the future, providing long-term protection. Passive immunity, on the other hand, is when pre-formed antibodies are transferred from another source, such as through maternal antibodies or through medical interventions like antibody injections. Attenuated refers to weakened or modified forms of pathogens used in vaccines to stimulate an immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is active immunity.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Immunoglobulins that provide the ability to recognize foreign organisms stimulating the antigen antibody reaction are called
- A.
T killer cells
- B.
T helper cells
- C.
T suppressor cells
- D.
B cells
Correct Answer
D. B cellsExplanation
B cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which are proteins that can recognize and bind to specific foreign organisms, known as antigens. When a B cell encounters an antigen, it stimulates the production of antibodies that can neutralize or destroy the foreign invader. This process is known as the antigen-antibody reaction. Therefore, B cells are the immunoglobulins that provide the ability to recognize foreign organisms and stimulate the antigen-antibody reaction.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the bodys own cells is
- A.
Immunodeficiency diseases
- B.
Autoimmune diseases
- C.
Immunocompetent diseases
- D.
Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system
Correct Answer
B. Autoimmune diseasesExplanation
Autoimmune diseases occur when the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys its own healthy cells, tissues, and organs. This happens when the immune system cannot distinguish between self and non-self cells, leading to the production of autoantibodies that target the body's own cells. This group of diseases includes conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and multiple sclerosis, among others. Immunodeficiency diseases, on the other hand, refer to conditions where the immune system is weakened or not functioning properly, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Immunocompetent diseases and diseases of the reticuloendothelial system are not accurate terms to describe this group of diseases.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Decreased gastric production of hydrochloric acid and the resulting shortage of the intrinsic factor cause
- A.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- B.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- C.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- D.
Pernicious anemia
Correct Answer
D. Pernicious anemiaExplanation
The decreased gastric production of hydrochloric acid and the resulting shortage of the intrinsic factor cause pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia that occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12 from the gastrointestinal tract. The intrinsic factor, which is normally produced in the stomach, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. When there is a decrease in gastric production of hydrochloric acid, it can lead to a deficiency of the intrinsic factor and subsequently result in pernicious anemia.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The patient with a platelet deficiency and the inability of blood to clot has
- A.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- B.
Pernicious anemia
- C.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic anemia
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic anemiaExplanation
The correct answer is idiopathic thrombocytopenic anemia. This condition is characterized by a low platelet count, leading to an inability of blood to clot properly. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a condition where the immune system destroys red blood cells, while pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. Neither of these conditions directly affects platelet count or clotting ability.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An autoimmune condition in which erythrocytes are destroyed by antibodies causing the patient to experience fatigue, chills, fever, dyspnea, and jaundice is
- A.
Pernicious anemia
- B.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- C.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemiaExplanation
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition in which erythrocytes (red blood cells) are destroyed by antibodies produced by the patient's own immune system. This destruction of red blood cells leads to symptoms such as fatigue, chills, fever, dyspnea (shortness of breath), and jaundice. Pernicious anemia is a different condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition characterized by low platelet count, not red blood cell destruction. Therefore, the correct answer is autoimmune hemolytic anemia.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Symptoms of fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and the characteristic butterfly rash are indications of
- A.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- B.
Scleroderma
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
Sjogrens syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Systemic lupus erythematosusExplanation
The symptoms mentioned, such as fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and the characteristic butterfly rash, are commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. This autoimmune disease affects multiple organs and tissues in the body, causing inflammation and a range of symptoms. Scleroderma primarily affects the skin and connective tissues, while rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects the joints. Sjogren's syndrome primarily affects the salivary glands and tear ducts. Therefore, systemic lupus erythematosus is the most likely explanation based on the given symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The disease that begins with inflammation and edema of the synovial membranes surrounding the joint is
- A.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- B.
Scleroderma
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
Sjogrens syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Rheumatoid arthritisExplanation
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the synovial membranes surrounding the joints, leading to pain, stiffness, and eventually joint deformity. Unlike other options, systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, and Sjogren's syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis specifically targets the synovial membranes, causing their inflammation and edema.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The primary treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is
- A.
Reduction of inflammation and pain
- B.
Preservation of joint function
- C.
Prevention of joint deformity
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The primary treatment of rheumatoid arthritis includes reducing inflammation and pain, preserving joint function, and preventing joint deformity. This comprehensive approach aims to alleviate symptoms, maintain mobility, and prevent long-term damage to the joints. By addressing these three aspects, patients can experience improved quality of life and better disease management.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath is
- A.
Myasthenia gravis
- B.
Muscular dystrophy
- C.
Multiple sclerosis
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Multiple sclerosisExplanation
Multiple sclerosis is an inflammatory disease that affects the central nervous system (CNS) by attacking the myelin sheath, which is a protective covering around nerve fibers. This leads to disruption in the communication between the brain and the rest of the body, causing various symptoms such as fatigue, muscle weakness, and problems with coordination and balance. Myasthenia gravis and muscular dystrophy are not related to the CNS or the myelin sheath, making them incorrect options. Therefore, the correct answer is multiple sclerosis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A chronic, progressive, neuromuscular disease that is characterized by the extreme muscular weakness(generally appearing first in the face) and progressive fatigue is
- A.
Myasthenia gravis
- B.
Muscular dystrophy
- C.
Multiple sclerosis
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Myasthenia gravisExplanation
Myasthenia gravis is the correct answer because it is a chronic, progressive, neuromuscular disease that is characterized by extreme muscular weakness, which typically starts in the face. It is also associated with progressive fatigue, which aligns with the description provided in the question. Muscular dystrophy is a different condition characterized by the progressive weakening and wasting of muscles, while multiple sclerosis is a neurological disease that affects the central nervous system. Therefore, neither of these options matches the given description.Rate this question:
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- 13.
T-cell lymphocytes are produced in the
- A.
Bone marrow
- B.
Spleen
- C.
Thymus gland
- D.
Blood
Correct Answer
C. Thymus glandExplanation
T-cell lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and destroying infected or abnormal cells in the body. The thymus gland is the primary site where T-cells mature and develop their ability to recognize specific antigens. Therefore, T-cell lymphocytes are produced in the thymus gland. The bone marrow is responsible for producing other types of blood cells, such as red blood cells and some types of white blood cells, but not T-cell lymphocytes specifically. The spleen and blood do not have a direct role in the production of T-cell lymphocytes.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A history of repeated, chronic infections, which includes sinopulmonary symptoms (e.g. sinus tenderness, cough, fever, runny nose, abnormal sputum, dyspnea) along with gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms (diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss) is usually indicative of
- A.
Ankylosing spondylitis
- B.
Polymyositis
- C.
Common variable immunodeficiency disease (CVID)
- D.
DiGeorge anomaly
Correct Answer
C. Common variable immunodeficiency disease (CVID)Explanation
A history of repeated, chronic infections along with sinopulmonary and gastrointestinal symptoms is usually indicative of common variable immunodeficiency disease (CVID). CVID is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by a defect in the immune system's ability to produce antibodies. This leads to a higher susceptibility to infections, particularly in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. The symptoms mentioned, such as sinus tenderness, cough, fever, runny nose, abnormal sputum, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, are commonly seen in individuals with CVID. Ankylosing spondylitis and polymyositis are not associated with these specific symptoms, and DiGeorge anomaly typically presents with cardiac, thymic, and parathyroid abnormalities rather than the mentioned symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The most common form of immunodeficiency is
- A.
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
- B.
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
- C.
Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency disease
- D.
Common variable immunodeficiency disease
Correct Answer
C. Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency diseaseExplanation
Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency disease is the most common form of immunodeficiency. This condition is characterized by a lack of immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies in the body, which are important for fighting off infections. Individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to respiratory, gastrointestinal, and other infections. X-linked agammaglobulinemia, severe combined immunodeficiency disease, and common variable immunodeficiency disease are also forms of immunodeficiency, but they are less common than selective immunoglobulin A deficiency disease.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A chronic, progressive, systemic autoimmune disease of the skin that is characterized by hardening and shrinking of the skin is
- A.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- B.
Systemic scleroderma
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer
B. Systemic sclerodermaExplanation
Systemic scleroderma is a chronic, progressive, systemic autoimmune disease of the skin characterized by hardening and shrinking of the skin. This condition affects the connective tissues, causing them to become thick and tight. It can also affect the blood vessels, muscles, and internal organs. Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, and multiple sclerosis are different autoimmune diseases that do not specifically involve the hardening and shrinking of the skin.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) is the drug of choice for treatment of
- A.
Myasthenia gravis
- B.
Multiple sclerosis
- C.
Small vessel vasculitis
- D.
Systemic necrotizing vasculitis
Correct Answer
A. Myasthenia gravisExplanation
Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) is the drug of choice for the treatment of myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and causes weakness and fatigue. Pyridostigmine bromide works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is responsible for muscle contraction. By increasing the levels of acetylcholine, pyridostigmine bromide helps improve muscle strength and function in individuals with myasthenia gravis. This drug is specifically targeted towards treating myasthenia gravis and is not the preferred treatment for multiple sclerosis, small vessel vasculitis, or systemic necrotizing vasculitis.Rate this question:
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- 18.
___________ is a systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease primarily affecting the spinal column
- A.
Scleroderma
- B.
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
- C.
Polymocytis
- D.
Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer
D. Ankylosing spondylitisExplanation
Ankylosing spondylitis is a systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease primarily affecting the spinal column. It is characterized by inflammation of the joints in the spine, leading to pain and stiffness. The inflammation can also affect other parts of the body, such as the hips, shoulders, and knees. Over time, the inflammation can cause the vertebrae in the spine to fuse together, resulting in a loss of flexibility and mobility. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically a chronic condition that requires ongoing management and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A child in the emergency room with multiple brusing of unknown cause and thrombocytopenia may be exhibiting signs
- A.
Multiple sclerosis
- B.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency
Correct Answer
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpuraExplanation
A child in the emergency room with multiple bruising of unknown cause and thrombocytopenia may be exhibiting signs of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to easy bruising and bleeding. It is considered idiopathic because the cause is unknown. In this case, the child's symptoms of multiple bruising and thrombocytopenia align with the characteristics of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.Rate this question:
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- 20.
With proper therapy the prognosis for children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is
- A.
Generally good
- B.
Poor
- C.
Very likely to mean a life time dependence on others for care
- D.
Total remission in 10% of cases
Correct Answer
A. Generally goodExplanation
Children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) have a generally good prognosis with proper therapy. This means that with the right treatment, the outlook for these children is positive. It suggests that they have a good chance of managing their condition and leading a relatively normal life. While JRA can be a chronic condition, it does not necessarily mean that the child will be dependent on others for care or experience total remission. However, it is important to note that individual cases may vary and the prognosis can be influenced by various factors.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Opportunistic infections can emerge as a result of deficiencies of the immune system
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Opportunistic infections are infections caused by organisms that typically do not cause disease in individuals with a healthy immune system. When the immune system is compromised or weakened, such as in cases of immune deficiencies, these organisms can take advantage of the opportunity to cause infections. Therefore, it is true that opportunistic infections can emerge as a result of deficiencies of the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Tolerance to self antigens is believed to commence during fetal life
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
During fetal life, the immune system starts to develop and learn to recognize and tolerate the body's own antigens, which are known as self antigens. This process is crucial to prevent the immune system from attacking and damaging the body's own tissues. Therefore, it is believed that tolerance to self antigens begins during fetal life.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Autoimmune diseases occur when autoantibodies develop and begin to destroy the bodys own cells
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly produces autoantibodies that attack and destroy the body's own cells. This happens because the immune system fails to recognize the body's own cells as "self" and instead identifies them as foreign invaders. As a result, the immune system launches an attack, leading to inflammation and damage to various organs and tissues. This can result in a wide range of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and multiple sclerosis.Rate this question:
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- 24.
There are no cures for connective tissue diseases, and treatment is only palliative
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus, cannot be cured. These diseases are chronic and typically require lifelong management. Treatment focuses on relieving symptoms, reducing inflammation, and preventing complications. While medication and lifestyle changes can help manage symptoms and slow down disease progression, there is currently no known cure for these conditions. Therefore, treatment for connective tissue diseases is primarily aimed at providing palliative care to improve quality of life and alleviate symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Injections of vitamin B12, which must be continued for life, are the primary treatment for pernicious anemia
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Injections of vitamin B12 are indeed the primary treatment for pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12 from the diet. This can lead to a deficiency of vitamin B12, which is essential for the production of healthy red blood cells. Since the body cannot absorb enough vitamin B12 through oral supplements or dietary sources, injections are necessary to bypass the absorption problem and ensure that the body receives an adequate supply of vitamin B12. These injections need to be continued for life to manage the condition effectively.Rate this question:
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- 26.
All patients with HIV will develop full blown AIDS
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Not all patients with HIV will develop full-blown AIDS. HIV is a virus that weakens the immune system, but with proper medical care and treatment, many individuals with HIV can live long and healthy lives without progressing to AIDS. The progression to AIDS depends on various factors such as the individual's overall health, access to healthcare, adherence to treatment, and lifestyle choices. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that all patients with HIV will develop full-blown AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Side effects of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include GI ulceration and bleeding, blood dyscrasias, tinnitus, rash, hypersensitivity reactions and liver toxicity
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can indeed cause various side effects including gastrointestinal (GI) ulceration and bleeding, blood dyscrasias, tinnitus, rash, hypersensitivity reactions, and liver toxicity. These medications, commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation, can irritate the lining of the stomach and increase the risk of ulcers and bleeding. Additionally, NSAIDs can affect blood clotting and cause blood dyscrasias. Other potential side effects include tinnitus (ringing in the ears), rash, allergic reactions, and liver toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Autoimmune disease occur only in the blood and lymphatic systems
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false. Autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and systems in the body, not just the blood and lymphatic systems. These diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks and damages healthy cells, tissues, or organs. Examples of autoimmune diseases include rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, multiple sclerosis, and type 1 diabetes. These conditions can affect different parts of the body such as joints, skin, brain, pancreas, and more. Therefore, autoimmune diseases are not limited to the blood and lymphatic systems.Rate this question:
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- 29.
HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and through contaminated blood and blood products
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and through contaminated blood and blood products. This means that engaging in unprotected sexual activities with an infected person or sharing needles with an infected person can lead to the transmission of HIV. Additionally, receiving blood transfusions or using contaminated medical equipment can also result in the transmission of the virus. It is important to practice safe sex and avoid sharing needles to prevent the spread of HIV.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Prevention measures for HIV infection relate directly to avoiding risk factors such as hugging, touching, and handshaking
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because prevention measures for HIV infection do not relate directly to avoiding risk factors such as hugging, touching, and handshaking. HIV is mainly transmitted through unprotected sexual contact, sharing needles, and mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. Hugging, touching, and handshaking do not pose a significant risk for HIV transmission unless there is direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal fluids, or breast milk. Effective prevention measures for HIV include practicing safe sex, using clean needles, getting tested regularly, and taking pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for high-risk individuals.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following disorders may occur if the thyroid fails to function properly during the formative years of a childs development
- A.
Goiter
- B.
Hashimotos disease
- C.
Graves disease
- D.
Cretinism
Correct Answer
D. CretinismExplanation
Cretinism is a disorder that can occur if the thyroid fails to function properly during a child's formative years. It is characterized by severe mental and physical retardation, stunted growth, and developmental delays. This condition is caused by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, which are essential for normal growth and brain development. Without proper thyroid function, the child's body and brain are unable to develop properly, leading to the symptoms of cretinism. Treatment typically involves thyroid hormone replacement therapy to correct the hormonal imbalance and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Because of the drugs action to suppress the bodys inflammatory response, patients on long term adrenocorticoid agents are at risk for the unrecognized advance of which of the following
- A.
Tuberculosis or perforated ulcers
- B.
Hypoglycemia or depression
- C.
Insomnia or lymphedema
- D.
Cancer or emphysema
Correct Answer
A. Tuberculosis or perforated ulcersExplanation
Long-term use of adrenocorticoid agents, such as corticosteroids, can suppress the body's inflammatory response. This suppression weakens the immune system and increases the risk of infections like tuberculosis. Additionally, corticosteroids can also impair the healing of ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract, making them more likely to perforate. Therefore, patients on long-term adrenocorticoid agents are at risk for the unrecognized advance of tuberculosis or perforated ulcers.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The goal of insulin pump therapy is to do which of the following
- A.
Deliver a continuous amount of insulin into the bloodstream to maintain a steady blood glucose level
- B.
Deliver boluses of insulin on demand to meet the bodys need
- C.
Deliver both basal doses and boluses to simulate normal beta cell function
- D.
Deliver bolus doses of insulin when activated by the patient
Correct Answer
C. Deliver both basal doses and boluses to simulate normal beta cell functionExplanation
Insulin pump therapy aims to deliver both basal doses and boluses to simulate normal beta cell function. Basal doses provide a continuous amount of insulin into the bloodstream to maintain a steady blood glucose level, while bolus doses are delivered on demand to meet the body's immediate insulin needs. This combination of basal and bolus doses mimics the function of beta cells in the pancreas, which release insulin continuously and in response to meals. By delivering both types of doses, insulin pump therapy helps to regulate blood glucose levels more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is necessary for oral hypoglycemic agents to be effective in managing diabetes
- A.
Complete lack of insulin
- B.
Complete normal function of the pancreas
- C.
Insulin resistance
- D.
Release of residual insulin by the pancreas
Correct Answer
D. Release of residual insulin by the pancreasExplanation
For oral hypoglycemic agents to be effective in managing diabetes, it is necessary for the pancreas to release residual insulin. This means that there is still some amount of insulin being produced by the pancreas, even if it is not enough to regulate blood sugar levels on its own. The oral hypoglycemic agents can then work to enhance the effects of this residual insulin, helping to lower blood sugar levels and manage diabetes. Insulin resistance, complete lack of insulin, and complete normal function of the pancreas are not necessary for the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic agents in managing diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The hormone that induces favorable conditions for the growth and development of the fetus is
- A.
Estrogen
- B.
Follicle stimulating hormone
- C.
Progesterone
- D.
Luteinizing hormone
Correct Answer
C. ProgesteroneExplanation
Progesterone is the hormone that induces favorable conditions for the growth and development of the fetus. During pregnancy, progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining and preventing contractions. It helps in the development of the placenta, which provides essential nutrients and oxygen to the fetus. Progesterone also helps to suppress the mother's immune response, preventing rejection of the fetus. Additionally, it promotes the growth of milk-producing glands in the breasts in preparation for breastfeeding. Overall, progesterone is vital for creating a supportive environment for the fetus to grow and develop during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Regulating hormones that affect all the other endocrine glands in the body are secreted in which of the following locations
- A.
Medulla
- B.
Posterior lobe of the pituitary
- C.
Anterior lobe of the pituitary
- D.
Thymus
Correct Answer
C. Anterior lobe of the pituitaryExplanation
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is responsible for secreting hormones that regulate the function of other endocrine glands in the body. These hormones include growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of various bodily functions, such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and milk production. Therefore, the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the correct location where hormones that affect all the other endocrine glands are secreted.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Hypothyroidism tends to occur in geographic regions that are deficient in which of the following
- A.
Sunlight
- B.
Fluoride
- C.
Iodine
- D.
Calcium
Correct Answer
C. IodineExplanation
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, which leads to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. Iodine is an essential mineral required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Therefore, a deficiency of iodine in the diet can lead to hypothyroidism. Certain geographic regions may have low iodine levels in the soil and water, resulting in a higher prevalence of iodine deficiency and subsequently hypothyroidism in the population residing in those areas.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following are used to suppress the thyroid gland before surgery
- A.
Methimazole and propylthiouracil
- B.
Cortisone and hydrocortisone
- C.
Synthetic thyroid preparations
- D.
Prednisone and triamcinolone
Correct Answer
A. Methimazole and propylthiouracilExplanation
Methimazole and propylthiouracil are used to suppress the thyroid gland before surgery. These medications are antithyroid drugs that work by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. By reducing the levels of thyroid hormones in the body, these drugs help to control hyperthyroidism and prepare the patient for surgery. Cortisone, hydrocortisone, synthetic thyroid preparations, prednisone, and triamcinolone are not used for suppressing the thyroid gland before surgery, making them incorrect options.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) has what effect on the body
- A.
Suppression of adrenal hormone secretion
- B.
Stimulation of thyroid hormone secretion
- C.
Suppression of rheumatoid arthritis symptoms
- D.
Stimulation of hydrocortisone secretion
Correct Answer
D. Stimulation of hydrocortisone secretionExplanation
ACTH, also known as adrenocorticotropic hormone, stimulates the secretion of hydrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is a hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands and plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, immune response, and stress response. ACTH binds to receptors in the adrenal glands, triggering the release of hydrocortisone. This stimulation of hydrocortisone secretion helps to maintain homeostasis in the body by regulating inflammation, blood pressure, and glucose levels.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following may accompany the use of hormone replacement therapy for women in menopause
- A.
Urogenital dryness and osteoporosis
- B.
Breast cancer and cardiovascular complications
- C.
Decreased blood glucose and hot flashes
- D.
Insomnia and mood swings
Correct Answer
B. Breast cancer and cardiovascular complicationsExplanation
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for women in menopause may be accompanied by an increased risk of breast cancer and cardiovascular complications. HRT involves the use of hormones to replace those that the body no longer produces after menopause. However, studies have shown that long-term use of HRT can increase the risk of breast cancer and cardiovascular issues such as heart attacks and strokes. It is important for women considering HRT to weigh the potential benefits against these risks and discuss them with their healthcare provider.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Teriparatide(Forteo), a medication used to treat osteoporosis, is derived from which source
- A.
The ornamental yew tree, Taxus brevifolia
- B.
Recombinant DNA of human parathyroid hormone
- C.
The rosy periwinkle in madagascar
- D.
Chemically synthesized minerals
Correct Answer
B. Recombinant DNA of human parathyroid hormoneExplanation
Teriparatide (Forteo) is derived from recombinant DNA of human parathyroid hormone. This means that the medication is produced by inserting the gene for human parathyroid hormone into a host organism, such as bacteria or yeast, which then produces the hormone. This method allows for large-scale production of the hormone, ensuring a consistent and reliable supply for treating osteoporosis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Antineoplastic drugs are most likely to be toxic to which of the following
- A.
Oldest cells
- B.
Smallest cells
- C.
Most rapidly dividing healthy tissues
- D.
Tissues with no cell walls
Correct Answer
C. Most rapidly dividing healthy tissuesExplanation
Antineoplastic drugs are designed to specifically target and kill rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and certain healthy cells. Since cancer cells divide rapidly, they are more susceptible to the toxic effects of these drugs. However, there are also some healthy tissues in the body that naturally have a high rate of cell division, such as the bone marrow and the lining of the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, these tissues are also likely to be affected by the toxicity of antineoplastic drugs.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Alkylating agents are a type of genotoxic drug because of which of the following actions
- A.
Interference with the production of DNA
- B.
Damaging cells with high energy beams
- C.
Prevention of signal transmission necessary for continued growth
- D.
Damage to the DNA structure leading to cell death
Correct Answer
D. Damage to the DNA structure leading to cell deathExplanation
Alkylating agents are a type of genotoxic drug because they cause damage to the DNA structure, which ultimately leads to cell death. These agents work by adding alkyl groups to the DNA molecule, which disrupts the normal structure and function of the DNA. This damage can result in the formation of DNA adducts, cross-linking of DNA strands, and other types of DNA lesions. Ultimately, the accumulation of DNA damage caused by alkylating agents can lead to cell death and is the main mechanism by which these drugs exert their cytotoxic effects.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Antimetabolite agents act primarily by which of the following actions
- A.
Mimicking purine, folic acid, and pyrimidine in the cell
- B.
Binding to the HER-2 protein
- C.
Enzyme inhibition
- D.
Suppression of mitochondrial activity
Correct Answer
A. Mimicking purine, folic acid, and pyrimidine in the cellExplanation
Antimetabolite agents act primarily by mimicking purine, folic acid, and pyrimidine in the cell. This means that they resemble these essential molecules and can enter the cell to interfere with their normal metabolic pathways. By doing so, antimetabolites disrupt DNA and RNA synthesis, inhibiting cell division and growth. This mechanism of action is commonly used in cancer treatment, as rapidly dividing cancer cells are particularly sensitive to disruptions in nucleotide synthesis. By mimicking these key molecules, antimetabolites effectively interfere with the cell's ability to replicate and proliferate.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following might be used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses
- A.
Mercaptopurine (purinol)
- B.
Fluorouracil (5-FU)
- C.
Methotrexate (amethopterin)
- D.
Chlorambucil (leukeran)
Correct Answer
B. Fluorouracil (5-FU)Explanation
Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a topical medication that is commonly used for the treatment of actinic keratoses. Actinic keratoses are pre-cancerous skin lesions caused by long-term sun exposure. 5-FU works by inhibiting the growth of abnormal skin cells, leading to their death. It is applied directly to the affected area and is effective in removing actinic keratoses. Mercaptopurine, methotrexate, and chlorambucil are not typically used topically for the treatment of actinic keratoses.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Acute lymphocytic leukemia of childhood had been noted to go into remission as a result of treatment with which of the following
- A.
Mineralocorticoid agents
- B.
Corticosteroid agents
- C.
Androgen agents
- D.
Glucocorticoid agents
Correct Answer
B. Corticosteroid agentsExplanation
Corticosteroid agents have been noted to induce remission in acute lymphocytic leukemia of childhood. These agents are a type of steroid that have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. They work by suppressing the growth of cancer cells and reducing inflammation in the body. Studies have shown that corticosteroid agents, such as prednisone and dexamethasone, can effectively induce remission in children with acute lymphocytic leukemia, making them an important component of the treatment regimen for this disease.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Because of their selective estrogen-agonist properties, selective estrogen receptor modulated aromatase inhibitors (SERMs) can be used to:
- A.
Suppress ovulation and therefore provide contraception
- B.
Prevent or treat malignancies of lung, kidney, or liver tissue
- C.
Prevent or treat disease caused by estrogen deficiency
- D.
Reverse amenorrhea and reestablish a regular menstrual cycle
Correct Answer
C. Prevent or treat disease caused by estrogen deficiencyExplanation
Selective estrogen receptor modulated aromatase inhibitors (SERMs) can be used to prevent or treat disease caused by estrogen deficiency. SERMs are compounds that selectively bind to estrogen receptors, acting as estrogen agonists in some tissues and estrogen antagonists in others. By modulating the activity of estrogen receptors, SERMs can help to restore the balance of estrogen in the body, which is beneficial in conditions where estrogen deficiency is the underlying cause of the disease. Therefore, SERMs can be used to prevent or treat diseases that are caused by a lack of estrogen.Rate this question:
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- 48.
In addition to treatment of prostate cancer, leuprolide (lupron) is also used to treat which of the following
- A.
Central precocious puberty
- B.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- C.
Osteoporosis
- D.
Low sperm count
Correct Answer
A. Central precocious pubertyExplanation
Leuprolide (Lupron) is a medication commonly used to treat prostate cancer by reducing the production of testosterone. It is also used to treat central precocious puberty, a condition where children enter puberty at an abnormally early age. This medication helps delay the onset of puberty by suppressing the release of hormones that trigger it. Although it is not used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome, osteoporosis, or low sperm count, it has proven effective in managing central precocious puberty.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is dactinomycin (Actinomycin D) used to treat
- A.
Adolescent acne
- B.
Sexually transmitted diseases
- C.
Wilms tumor
- D.
Metastatic breast cancer
Correct Answer
C. Wilms tumorExplanation
Dactinomycin, also known as Actinomycin D, is a medication used to treat Wilms tumor. Wilms tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Dactinomycin works by inhibiting the growth of cancer cells, specifically targeting the DNA and RNA synthesis processes. It is often used in combination with other treatments such as surgery and radiation therapy to effectively manage Wilms tumor.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Bleomycin (blenoxane) differs from most antineoplastic agents in which of the following ways
- A.
The patient will be afebrile and will not be likely to lose any hair
- B.
The antibiotic action of this drug appears to occur in inhibiting RNA synthesis
- C.
The patients respiratory status is unaffected
- D.
The drug has a low incidence of bone marrow toxicity
Correct Answer
D. The drug has a low incidence of bone marrow toxicityExplanation
Bleomycin (Blenoxane) differs from most antineoplastic agents because it has a low incidence of bone marrow toxicity. This means that it is less likely to cause damage to the bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells. Many other antineoplastic agents can cause bone marrow toxicity, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and potentially causing anemia, infection, or bleeding. Bleomycin's low incidence of bone marrow toxicity makes it a safer option in terms of preserving the patient's blood cell production.Rate this question:
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