Volume 1: Customer Service

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1. How are closed entries identified in Defense Joint Military Pay System?

Explanation

Closed entries in the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) are identified by a hyphen following the FID (Financial Identifier). This means that after the FID, there will be a hyphen to indicate that the entry is closed. This allows for easy identification and differentiation of closed entries from other entries in the system.

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About This Quiz
Volume 1: Customer Service - Quiz

This quiz covers key aspects of financial management within the Air Force, focusing on roles, responsibilities, and systems used for managing finance and accounting functions.

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2. At what level is the Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) responsible for proper performance of financial management functions?

Explanation

The Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) is responsible for the proper performance of financial management functions at all levels. This means that they oversee and ensure the correct execution of financial management tasks across the entire organization, from nonappropriated funds (NAF) to the base or wing level and even at the major command (MAJCOM) level. Their role is to ensure that financial management is carried out efficiently and effectively throughout the organization.

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3. What is the first thing you should do when approached at the customer service desk?

Explanation

When approached at the customer service desk, the first thing you should do is greet the person and introduce yourself. This helps in establishing a friendly and professional rapport with the customer. By doing so, you create a welcoming atmosphere and make the customer feel valued. Introducing yourself also adds a personal touch and shows that you are ready to assist them. This initial step sets a positive tone for the conversation and helps in building trust and effective communication with the customer.

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4. Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?

Explanation

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5. The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service and is located in which Defense Finance and Accounting Service center?

Explanation

The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service. Since the question asks for the location of the Defense Finance and Accounting Service center that houses this system, the correct answer is Cleveland.

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6. Which items are used to compute Federal Income Tax Withholding?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All items of pay." This means that all forms of income, such as wages, salaries, bonuses, commissions, and tips, are used to calculate Federal Income Tax Withholding. This ensures that individuals are paying taxes on their total earnings rather than just a portion of it.

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7. The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of a dedicated, focused effort by

Explanation

The success of an on-the-job training program relies on the commitment and effort put in by both the trainers and the trainees. Trainers play a crucial role in providing the necessary guidance, knowledge, and support to the trainees. They are responsible for designing and delivering effective training sessions, assessing the progress of the trainees, and addressing any challenges that may arise. On the other hand, trainees need to actively participate, demonstrate a willingness to learn, and apply the skills and knowledge acquired during the training. The collaboration and cooperation between trainers and trainees are essential for the program's success.

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8. Who creates the "strawman" task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership?

Explanation

The subject matter expert (SME) is responsible for creating the "strawman" task listing and submitting it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership. The SME is an individual who possesses expertise and knowledge in a specific field or subject area, and they are considered the authority on that particular topic. In this case, the SME would have the necessary knowledge and understanding to develop the task listing accurately and effectively. They would then present it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership for further review and consideration.

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9. The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based upon

Explanation

The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based on the rank of the individual, their dependency status (whether they have dependents or not), and their duty location. These factors are taken into consideration to determine the appropriate housing allowance for each individual, as different ranks, dependency statuses, and duty locations may require different levels of financial support for housing expenses.

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10. Which person is not considered a primary dependent?

Explanation

A parent is not considered a primary dependent because a primary dependent refers to someone who relies on another person for financial support. In this case, a spouse, a stepchild under 21 years of age, and a child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established can all be considered primary dependents as they are dependent on someone else for financial support. However, a parent is typically considered to be financially independent and not reliant on their children for support, therefore they are not considered a primary dependent.

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11. You should brief anyone claiming Puerto Rico for state income tax purposes of their liability since

Explanation

The correct answer is that Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) does not withhold State Income Tax Withholding (SITW) and the member is liable. This means that members of the military who are stationed in Puerto Rico need to be aware that their state income tax is not automatically withheld from their paychecks by the DJMS. As a result, they are personally responsible for ensuring that they pay their state income taxes to Puerto Rico. This is important because failure to do so could result in penalties or legal consequences.

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12. How many divisions are in the Center of Expertise (CoE)?

Explanation

The Center of Expertise (CoE) is divided into three divisions.

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13. Which organization writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues for the government travel charge card program?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSA. GSA stands for the General Services Administration, which is responsible for managing and overseeing various government programs, including the government travel charge card program. As part of their role, GSA writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues related to the program.

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14. Who is responsible for administering the trvael charge card program at the base and unit levels?

Explanation

The agency program coordinator is responsible for administering the travel charge card program at the base and unit levels. They oversee and manage the program, ensuring that all necessary procedures and policies are followed. They coordinate with supervisors, wing commanders, and squadron commanders to ensure that the program is effectively implemented and maintained.

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15. Which net change of a Master Military Pay Account requires a further Pay Record Accessibility audit?

Explanation

An increase of $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave would require a further Pay Record Accessibility audit because it represents a larger change compared to the other options. The other options involve smaller amounts of money or smaller increases in leave days, which may not require additional scrutiny. However, the $100 increase or the 2.5 days of leave increase could potentially have a greater impact on the overall pay account and therefore warrants a closer examination.

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16. What kind of program does the Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provide to ensure effective internal controls?

Explanation

The Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provides a Quality Assurance program to ensure effective internal controls. This program is designed to monitor and evaluate the processes and procedures within the office to ensure they are operating efficiently and effectively. It aims to identify any areas of improvement or potential weaknesses in the internal controls, and to implement corrective actions to address them. By implementing a Quality Assurance program, AFAFO can ensure that its accounting and finance operations are carried out accurately, reliably, and in compliance with regulations and policies.

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17. Military pay information will be stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System within the current month and

Explanation

The military pay information is stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System for a period of 11 prior months. This means that the system will retain and store the pay information for the current month and the 11 months preceding it.

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18. How long must a member be subject to hostile actions before he or she is entitled to hostile fire pay?

Explanation

A member is entitled to hostile fire pay if they are subject to hostile actions for any part of a month. This means that even if they are exposed to hostile actions for just a few days within a month, they are still eligible for hostile fire pay. The requirement is not limited to a full month or a specific duration of consecutive days, but rather any presence in a month where hostile actions occur.

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19. Fines are deducted after

Explanation

After all other debts are deducted, fines are deducted. This means that any outstanding debts, such as loans or unpaid bills, are subtracted from the total amount owed before fines are taken into account. This ensures that other financial obligations are prioritized over fines.

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20. If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be entitled to in order to receive hostile fire pay?

Explanation

The member must be entitled to Basic pay in order to receive hostile fire pay. This means that if all other qualifications are met, the member's Basic pay will be the minimum requirement for them to receive hostile fire pay.

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21. Direct deposit of funds is mandatory for all civilian employees except

Explanation

Summer hires are exempt from the mandatory direct deposit of funds for civilian employees. This means that while all other civilian employees are required to have their funds directly deposited, summer hires have the option to receive their payments through other means.

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22. Which Air Staff office serves as technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force's financial management responsibilities?

Explanation

SAF/FMB serves as the technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force's financial management responsibilities. This office provides guidance and support in budgeting, accounting, financial analysis, and financial reporting. They ensure that the Air Force's financial resources are effectively managed and allocated in accordance with regulations and policies. SAF/FMB plays a crucial role in maintaining financial transparency and accountability within the Air Force.

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23. Any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation in excess of 180 days where members subsist in a government mess is called

Explanation

Field duty refers to any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation that lasts for more than 180 days and requires members to subsist in a government mess. This term is used to describe the temporary assignment of military personnel to field operations where they are expected to perform their duties in a field environment. It is different from permanent change of assignment, which refers to a long-term change in a military member's duty station. Operational field assignment and temporary field assignment are not accurate terms for this scenario.

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24. Who determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level?

Explanation

Management determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level. As the individuals responsible for overseeing and making decisions within an organization, management has the authority and knowledge to assess the significance of a weakness. They consider factors such as the potential impact on the organization's operations, financial statements, and compliance with regulations. Based on their evaluation, management decides whether to escalate the weakness to a higher level for further action or reporting.

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25. What code stops hardship duty pay?

Explanation

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26. When are allowances forfeited?

Explanation

Allowances are forfeited when a general court-martial includes them in the sentence. This means that if a service member is found guilty of a crime during a general court-martial, the court-martial has the authority to include the forfeiture of allowances as part of the punishment. This could include the loss of certain benefits or financial compensation that the service member would normally receive. It is important to note that allowances are not automatically forfeited in all situations, but only when specifically included in the sentence by a general court-martial.

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27. Which of the four categories for comptroller awards carries the most weight during the selection process?

Explanation

Outstanding Achievement carries the most weight during the selection process for comptroller awards. This category is likely to focus on exceptional accomplishments and significant contributions made by the candidates. It could include achievements such as surpassing targets, implementing innovative strategies, or making significant improvements in financial management. This category is crucial as it highlights the candidate's ability to go above and beyond their regular duties and make a significant impact in their role as a comptroller.

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28. Who is the comptroller focal point for MAJCOM/FM inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is QAM, which stands for Quality Assurance Manager. The QAM is responsible for overseeing and managing the quality assurance program within the MAJCOM/FM inspections. They ensure that all inspections are conducted in accordance with established standards and procedures, and they serve as the focal point for coordinating and communicating inspection activities. The QAM plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and integrity of the inspections process.

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29. The financial services office can process dependency determinations for

Explanation

The financial services office is able to process dependency determinations for Air Force sponsors. This means that they can assess and determine the eligibility of dependents of individuals serving in the Air Force to receive certain financial benefits or support.

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30. Basic allowance for subsistence is not authorized when a member is

Explanation

When a member is in field duty status, it means that they are temporarily assigned to perform military duties in a field environment, such as training exercises or combat operations. During this time, the member is provided with all necessary subsistence, including meals and lodging, by the military. Therefore, the basic allowance for subsistence is not authorized because the member's subsistence needs are already being met by the military.

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31. The maximum number of days you can reimburse a member for temporary lodging expense for a CONUS to CONUS PCS and a CONUS to overseas PCS, respecitively is

Explanation

For a CONUS to CONUS PCS, the maximum number of days you can reimburse a member for temporary lodging expense is 10 days. For a CONUS to overseas PCS, the maximum number of days is 5 days.

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32. What effect does the permanent change of station departure transaction have on payment of cost-of-living allowance?

Explanation

The permanent change of station departure transaction stops the payment of cost-of-living allowance one day prior to the departure date when moving from an OCONUS (Outside Continental United States) location to a CONUS (Continental United States) location. This means that the allowance will no longer be paid starting from the day before the departure.

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33. Which allotment is for a defined period of time?

Explanation

The Combined Federal Campaign is an annual fundraising drive for federal employees, and it is conducted for a defined period of time. During this campaign, federal employees can choose to make voluntary donations to charitable organizations through payroll deductions. Therefore, the Combined Federal Campaign is the allotment that is for a defined period of time.

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34. What items of pay are subject to State Income Tax Withholding?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Same as FITW." This means that the items of pay that are subject to State Income Tax Withholding are the same as those subject to Federal Income Tax Withholding. State Income Tax Withholding is based on the same principles and regulations as Federal Income Tax Withholding, so the items that are subject to withholding are consistent between the two.

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35. Which section of part 2 in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards?

Explanation

Section B of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards. This section provides a detailed outline of the specific objectives that students are expected to achieve during their training, as well as the standards that must be met in order to successfully complete the course. It serves as a guide for instructors and students, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same goals.

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36. Nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to

Explanation

The correct answer is SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January. This is because the nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January. The other options, MAJCOM by 31 December and SAF/FMPC by 31 December, have earlier deadlines and do not align with the given information.

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37. A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management control objectives is known as

Explanation

A material weakness refers to a condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management control objectives. It indicates a deficiency in the design or operation of internal controls that could adversely affect the organization's ability to prevent or detect errors or fraud in financial reporting. Unlike a control weakness, which may not have a significant impact, a material weakness is considered more severe and requires immediate attention and remediation. It is a term commonly used in the field of auditing to identify and address significant control deficiencies.

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38. How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?

Explanation

In a non-leap year, the month of February has 28 days. If a member enters active duty on 19 February, they would receive pay for the remaining days of that month, which is 10 days. Additionally, they would receive pay for the entire month of March, which is 31 days. Therefore, the member would receive a total of 41 days of pay. Since the options provided are 9, 10, 11, and 12, the correct answer is 12.

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39. To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for

Explanation

To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for VSP.

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40. Which allotment class is for voluntarily liquidating delinquent federal income taxes?

Explanation

The correct answer is T. The letter "T" represents the allotment class for voluntarily liquidating delinquent federal income taxes.

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41. The Thrift Savings Plan is operated solely for the benefit of the participants and their beneficiaries by the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board. The Thrift Savings Plan is operated by this board, which ensures that the plan is managed in the best interest of the participants and their beneficiaries. This board is responsible for overseeing the investment options, administration, and overall management of the Thrift Savings Plan.

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42. What information is obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process?

Explanation

The information obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process includes functional area job tasks. This means that the process helps in identifying and documenting the specific tasks that are performed within a particular job or functional area. This information is crucial for understanding the requirements and responsibilities of different roles within an organization or industry. It helps in developing job descriptions, training programs, and career development plans.

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43. What is the first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay?

Explanation

The first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay is to verify the source document. This is important to ensure that the pay is being processed correctly and for the appropriate reason. By verifying the source document, it helps to confirm the eligibility of the individual for receiving the pay and prevents any potential errors or fraudulent claims.

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44. What action must DFAS take if the Defense Finance and Accounting Service center cannot convince a bank to waive charges against an employee's account because of faulty delivery of pay?

Explanation

If the Defense Finance and Accounting Service center cannot convince a bank to waive charges against an employee's account due to faulty delivery of pay, DFAS must reimburse the employee and provide letters of explanation to any holder of dishonored checks. This means that DFAS will compensate the employee for any charges incurred and will also inform anyone who received a bounced check about the situation. This ensures that the employee is not financially burdened due to the error and that any affected parties are informed and provided with an explanation.

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45. What is the preferred style for conflict resolution?

Explanation

Collaborating is the preferred style for conflict resolution because it involves actively working together to find a solution that satisfies the needs and interests of all parties involved. This approach promotes open communication, trust, and cooperation, allowing for the exploration of different perspectives and the generation of creative solutions. By collaborating, individuals can build stronger relationships and achieve mutually beneficial outcomes, fostering a positive and productive work environment.

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46. Which of the following is not a type of inquiry requesdt in Defense Joint Military Pay System?

Explanation

The Defense Joint Military Pay System includes various types of inquiry requests such as FID, Table, and Group. However, Individual is not a type of inquiry request in the system. This suggests that the system does not have a specific category or option for individual inquiry requests.

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47. What would you do in CMS, after you enter a member's social security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case section?

Explanation

After entering a member's social security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case section in CMS, the next step would be to select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu. This is likely because the pull-down menu contains a list of subjects or categories that are relevant to the case, and selecting the appropriate subject helps to categorize and organize the information accurately.

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48. Duties such as Security Forces and the Air Force Band are authorized which clothing allowance?

Explanation

Supplemental clothing allowance is authorized for duties such as Security Forces and the Air Force Band. This means that in addition to the standard clothing allowance, individuals in these roles are provided with extra funds to cover the cost of specific clothing items required for their duties. The supplemental allowance recognizes the unique clothing needs of these positions and ensures that personnel have the necessary attire to perform their duties effectively.

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49. When are residents of Arizona exempt from State Income Tax Withholding?

Explanation

Arizona residents are never exempt from State Income Tax Withholding (SITW). This means that regardless of whether they are serving inside the state, outside the state, or even if they are assigned overseas, they are still required to pay SITW.

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50. Which document can you use to verify a person's relationship to a primary dependent (those not needing a dependency determination)?

Explanation

A final adoption decree is a legal document issued by a court that establishes the legal relationship between an adoptive parent and a child. This document proves that the person is the legal parent of the dependent through adoption. Therefore, it can be used to verify a person's relationship to a primary dependent.

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51. To be eligible to deposit funds into the Savings Deposit Program, a person must be in the area of responsibility for at least

Explanation

To be eligible to deposit funds into the Savings Deposit Program, a person must have been in the area of responsibility for more than 90 days. This means that the individual must have spent at least 91 days in the designated area in order to be eligible to deposit funds into the program.

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52. The member or the member's commander can apply for this type of indebtedness relief

Explanation

Remission refers to the act of forgiving or canceling a debt or obligation. In this context, the member or the member's commander can apply for this type of indebtedness relief. This means that either the member themselves or their commanding officer can request for their debt to be forgiven or canceled. This could be due to various reasons such as financial hardship or extenuating circumstances.

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53. What is actually more important then the underlying quality of the product or service you provide when providing customer service?

Explanation

When providing customer service, customer perception is more important than the underlying quality of the product or service. This is because customers' perception of the product or service will ultimately determine their satisfaction and loyalty. Even if the product or service is of high quality, if customers perceive it negatively, they are likely to have a negative experience and may not return or recommend it to others. On the other hand, if customers perceive the product or service positively, they are more likely to be satisfied and become loyal customers. Therefore, understanding and managing customer perception is crucial for successful customer service.

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54. If allotments must be stopped to satisfy the two-thirds rule for deductions, how do you determine the allotments to stop?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The member chooses the allotments to stop." This means that if allotments need to be stopped in order to meet the two-thirds rule for deductions, it is up to the individual member to decide which allotments to stop. This allows for personal choice and decision-making in determining which allotments are most important to the member and should be continued, and which ones can be stopped to satisfy the requirement.

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55. Which process tool provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area?

Explanation

A quality assurance review is a process tool that provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area. This review helps to ensure that the functional area is operating in compliance with established standards and procedures. It allows the comptroller to assess the quality of the processes and identify any areas that need improvement or corrective actions. The quality assurance review helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the functional area's operations.

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56. The maximum number of days authorized for temporary lodging allowance is

Explanation

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57. Dishonored commisarry checks are

Explanation

Dishonored commissary checks are not subject to the two-thirds rule. This means that even if the check is dishonored or returned due to insufficient funds, the amount owed does not need to be limited to two-thirds of the debtor's disposable pay. Instead, the full amount of the debt can be collected. The two-thirds rule typically applies to other types of debts, but not to dishonored commissary checks.

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58. After how many days is a delinquent travel charge card cancelled?

Explanation

A delinquent travel charge card is cancelled after 90 days. This means that if a travel charge card is not paid off within 90 days, it will be cancelled. This is likely a measure taken by the card issuer to ensure that outstanding balances are not left unpaid for an extended period of time. Cancelling the card after 90 days of delinquency helps to protect the issuer from potential financial loss and encourages cardholders to make timely payments.

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59. Which Defense Joint Military Pay System transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members not appearing on the Off-line Reporting Control roster?

Explanation

The SC04 transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members who do not appear on the Off-line Reporting Control roster. This indicator allows these members to have access to their pay records, even if they are not listed on the roster.

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60. Who ensures that two ISSOs are appointed at each field site?

Explanation

The Financial Services Office ensures that two ISSOs (Information Systems Security Officers) are appointed at each field site. ISSOs are responsible for implementing and managing the security of information systems within an organization. The Financial Services Office, being responsible for financial operations, likely plays a role in overseeing the appointment and allocation of resources for ISSOs at field sites to ensure the security of financial information and systems.

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61. Which Defense Joint Military Pay System profile is used to verify electronic funds transfer payments?

Explanation

The Defense Joint Military Pay System profile used to verify electronic funds transfer payments is JPBXPFL.

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62. Which of the following is NOT characterized as a Case Management System (CMS) case?

Explanation

A Case Management System (CMS) is a software solution that helps organizations manage and track cases or incidents. It typically includes features such as document management, workflow automation, and issue tracking. In this context, "Documents" can be characterized as a case within a CMS, as it refers to the management of documents related to a case. Therefore, the correct answer is "Documents" because it is not NOT characterized as a CMS case.

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63. When a member has a tax levy deducted, what happens to future tax returns?

Explanation

If a member has a tax levy deducted, it means that the IRS has taken a portion of their tax refund to apply it towards the levy. This means that if there is a refund due to the member, the IRS will use that refund to pay off the levy instead of giving it back to the member. Therefore, the future tax returns are affected because any refund due will be applied to the levy.

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64. Which of the following receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract?

Explanation

Physicians in grades 0-6 and below receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract.

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65. Which section of the leave and earning statement lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date?

Explanation

The section of the leave and earning statement that lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date is "Remarks". This section provides a summary of the employee's earnings and deductions for the current year, including any additional remarks or notes related to their pay. It helps the employee understand their overall entitlements and deductions over the course of the year.

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66. What percentage of the utility/recurring maintenance allowance is used when computing monthly overseas housing allowance without dependents?

Explanation

The correct answer is 75. This means that 75% of the utility/recurring maintenance allowance is used when computing the monthly overseas housing allowance without dependents. This suggests that a significant portion of the allowance is allocated towards covering the costs of utilities and regular maintenance for the housing.

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67. Which section of the leave and earning statement lists the member's expiration term of service?

Explanation

The ID section of the leave and earning statement lists the member's expiration term of service. This section typically includes important information about the member, such as their name, rank, and service number. It is likely that the expiration term of service is included in this section to provide a clear record of when the member's service is expected to end.

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68. What percentage rate is the social security portion of Federal Income Tax Withholding?

Explanation

The social security portion of Federal Income Tax Withholding is 6.2%. This means that 6.2% of an individual's income is withheld for social security taxes.

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69. How do members reimburse the government for cost charge transportation requests?

Explanation

Members reimburse the government for cost charge transportation requests by making a casual payment. This means that they pay the government directly in cash or through other means as a one-time payment for the transportation services provided. The reimbursement is not prorated or treated as a debt, and there is no pre-purchase of transportation before travel.

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70. Additional uniform and equipment allownace is paid to officers at the rate of

Explanation

Officers receive an additional uniform and equipment allowance upon each entry on active duty. This means that every time an officer enters active duty, they are paid $200 as a uniform and equipment allowance.

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71. At a minimum, how often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management?

Explanation

Performance indicators should be reviewed annually to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management. This timeframe allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the indicators' effectiveness and relevance in measuring the organization's progress towards its goals. It also provides sufficient time to collect and analyze data, identify any necessary adjustments or improvements, and make informed decisions based on the findings. Quarterly or monthly reviews may be too frequent and may not allow for a thorough assessment of long-term trends and patterns. Biannually reviews may not provide enough timely feedback to address emerging issues or changes in the organization's performance.

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72. When cooking facilities are available, computation for TLA is based on what percentage of MI&E rate

Explanation

When cooking facilities are available, the computation for TLA (Temporary Living Allowance) is based on 50% of the MI&E (Meals and Incidental Expenses) rate. This means that half of the MI&E rate is used to calculate the TLA when cooking facilities are accessible.

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73. If a member believes that charges (debt) incurred from excess cost for shipment of household goods is incorrect, the member must submit a letter of rebuttal to the local travel management office withhin

Explanation

If a member believes that charges incurred from excess cost for shipment of household goods is incorrect, they must submit a letter of rebuttal to the local travel management office within 30 days after notification. This means that the member has a limited time frame to dispute the charges and provide their argument against them. Waiting longer than 30 days may result in the member losing their opportunity to challenge the charges.

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74. Who appoints the quality assurance manager to have the primary responsibility for administering the Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is FM. This is because FM stands for Facility Manager, who is responsible for overseeing the administration of the Quality Assurance Program. The Facility Manager is typically appointed by the organization or company to ensure that quality standards are met and maintained.

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75. How many options are there for accomplishing retroactive collections?

Explanation

There are three options available for accomplishing retroactive collections.

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76. If a financial servies officer denies a member's request for a repayment period of 12 months, who can approve the repayment request?

Explanation

The wing commander can approve the repayment request if a financial services officer denies a member's request for a repayment period of 12 months.

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77. The rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is based on

Explanation

The correct answer is "years of aviation service only." This means that the rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is solely determined by the number of years they have served in aviation. Other factors such as grade, type of aircraft, and years of officer service do not affect the rate of pay for this incentive.

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78. When determining eligibility for family separation allowance-II (FSA-II), you should

Explanation

When determining eligibility for family separation allowance-II (FSA-II), it is important to always include the 31st day of the month. This means that regardless of the specific dates of departure and return, the 31st day should always be included when calculating the eligibility for FSA-II. This ensures that the full month is accounted for when determining the allowance.

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79. If a member has been overpaid basic allowance for housing and is separating withinn 30 days, you need to

Explanation

If a member has been overpaid basic allowance for housing and is separating within 30 days, the correct action to take is to verify if the reenlistment transaction has not been received and begin collection action immediately. This means checking if the member has submitted any paperwork or taken any steps towards reenlisting, as this could affect the overpayment and collection process. If no reenlistment transaction has been received, it is necessary to start collecting the overpaid amount from the member as soon as possible.

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80. After contacting a member concerning a tax levy, within how many workdays must the member report to the financial services office to be briefed on resolving the debt?

Explanation

After contacting a member concerning a tax levy, the member must report to the financial services office within 3 workdays to be briefed on resolving the debt. This implies that there is a sense of urgency in addressing the tax levy and taking immediate action to resolve the debt.

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81. What figure is used as the basis for Federal Insurance Contributions Act tax?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Total gross pay for each pay period." The Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) tax is based on the total gross pay for each pay period. This tax is a federal payroll tax that is used to fund Social Security and Medicare programs. It is calculated as a percentage of an employee's gross wages and is deducted from their paycheck. The total gross pay includes all earnings before any deductions or taxes are taken out.

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82. A member who only serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives how many days of basic pay?

Explanation

A member who serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives 22 days of basic pay because both the start and end dates are included in the calculation. The member serves for a total of 22 days, which corresponds to the period from 15 March to 5 April, inclusive.

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83. Within how many days must the Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing be completed?

Explanation

The Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing must be completed within 45 days. This time frame allows for a thorough review and resolution of any outstanding debts or questionable financial transactions. It ensures that the listing is updated and accurate in a timely manner, providing the necessary information for further actions or decisions to be made.

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84. When a member changes his or her state of legal residence to Idaho, process an FK04 to

Explanation

When a member changes their state of legal residence to Idaho, it is necessary to stop state income tax withholding. This means that the member will no longer have state income tax withheld from their wages or income. This is because they are now a resident of Idaho and will be subject to Idaho state income tax laws and regulations. Stopping state income tax withholding ensures that the member's wages are not being withheld for a state they no longer reside in.

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85. An officer serving in a qualified hazardous duty area without entitlement to hostile fire pay is entitled to a tax exclusion equal to

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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86. Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is FMO. The FMO, or Financial Management Office, determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP). This office is responsible for managing the financial aspects of military operations, including determining eligibility for various pay and benefits. They would review the member's duty assignment and determine if it meets the criteria for receiving HDIP.

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87. A member enters the Air Force in January 1997. When will the first payment of standard clothing maintenance allowance he paid?

Explanation

The first payment of the standard clothing maintenance allowance will be paid at the end of the month in January 2000. This is because the member enters the Air Force in January 1997, and the standard clothing maintenance allowance is typically paid after three years of service. Therefore, the first payment will be made in January 2000, which is three years after the member's entry into the Air Force.

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