Flow Cytometry Pre-rotation Test

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| By Nblevy
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Flow Cytometry Pre-rotation Test - Quiz

This is an assessment of your knowledge of flow cytometry. Take it at the beginning of your flow cytometry rotation and again after one week. You can then take until you get a score of 100%. Send results of each score to me.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Parameters measured in the use of flow cytometry for the diagnosis of hematologic malignancies include all of the following except

    • A.

      Forward angle light scatter

    • B.

      Right angle light scatter

    • C.

      Bound antibody surface flourescence

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    All of these parameters can be used in the analysis

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  • 2. 

    Forward angle light scatter is proportional to:

    • A.

      Cell size

    • B.

      Nuclear/cytoplasmic complexity

    • C.

      Ploidy

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell size
    Explanation
    Forward angle light scatter is proportional to cell size because larger cells will scatter more light than smaller cells. This is because larger cells have a larger surface area and more internal structures that can scatter the incident light. Therefore, when measuring forward angle light scatter, the intensity of the scattered light can be used as an indicator of the cell size.

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  • 3. 

    Right angle side scatter is proportional to

    • A.

      Cell size

    • B.

      Nuclear/cytoplasmic complexity

    • C.

      Ploidy

    Correct Answer
    B. Nuclear/cytoplasmic complexity
    Explanation
    Right angle side scatter is a measurement used in flow cytometry to assess the complexity of a cell. It provides information about the internal structure and granularity of the cell. Nuclear/cytoplasmic complexity refers to the differences in complexity between the nucleus and the cytoplasm of a cell. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that the right angle side scatter is proportional to nuclear/cytoplasmic complexity, as an increase in complexity would result in a higher scatter signal.

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  • 4. 

    The intensity of CD45 flourescence on lymphoblasts is

    • A.

      Brighter than on mature lymphocytes

    • B.

      Weaker thanon mature lymphocytes

    • C.

      The same as on mature lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. Weaker thanon mature lympHocytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weaker than on mature lymphocytes". This suggests that the intensity of CD45 fluorescence on lymphoblasts is lower compared to mature lymphocytes. CD45 is a protein found on the surface of immune cells, including lymphocytes. Lymphoblasts are immature lymphocytes that have not fully developed, so it is expected that they would have lower levels of CD45 compared to mature lymphocytes.

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  • 5. 

    The immunophenotype of B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia includes all of the following except

    • A.

      CD19

    • B.

      CD5

    • C.

      CD23

    • D.

      CD10

    Correct Answer
    D. CD10
    Explanation
    The immunophenotype of B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia typically includes CD19, CD5, and CD23. CD10 is not typically expressed in B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

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  • 6. 

    The typical flow immunophenotype of mantle cell lymphoma includes all of the following except

    • A.

      CD19

    • B.

      CD5

    • C.

      CD23

    • D.

      FMC7

    Correct Answer
    C. CD23
    Explanation
    Although CD23 is usually absent, a minority of mantle cell lymphomas are CD23 weak positive. Hence correlation with the intensity of light chain expression, expression of FMC7 and other antibodies such as CD79a, as well as cytogenetic/FISH studies may be necessary in definitive DDX.

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  • 7. 

    The typical flow immunophenotype of Burkitt lymphoma includes all of the following except

    • A.

      CD19

    • B.

      CD10

    • C.

      Monoclonal surface light chain

    • D.

      CD5

    Correct Answer
    D. CD5
    Explanation
    Burkitt lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma that typically expresses CD19, CD10, and monoclonal surface light chain. However, it does not express CD5. CD5 is commonly found on B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) cells, but it is not present on Burkitt lymphoma cells. Therefore, CD5 is the correct answer as it is not part of the typical flow immunophenotype of Burkitt lymphoma.

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  • 8. 

    The typical flow immunophenotype of follicular lymphoma includes all of the following except

    • A.

      CD19

    • B.

      CD10

    • C.

      Monoclonal surface light chain

    • D.

      CD5

    Correct Answer
    D. CD5
    Explanation
    Follicular lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma that typically expresses CD19, CD10, and monoclonal surface light chain. However, CD5 is not typically expressed in follicular lymphoma. CD5 is a marker that is commonly associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), but it is not a characteristic marker of follicular lymphoma. Therefore, CD5 is the correct answer as it is not typically part of the flow immunophenotype of follicular lymphoma.

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  • 9. 

    Can you distinguish Burkitt lymphoma from follicular lymphoma by flow cytometric analysis?

  • 10. 

    What antigen do we use in flow cytometric analysis to distinguish acute promyelocytic leukemia from other types of acute myeloid leukemia?

    • A.

      CD13

    • B.

      CD33

    • C.

      CD117

    • D.

      HLA-DR

    Correct Answer
    D. HLA-DR
    Explanation
    HLA-DR is used as an antigen in flow cytometric analysis to distinguish acute promyelocytic leukemia from other types of acute myeloid leukemia. This is because HLA-DR expression is typically absent or low in acute promyelocytic leukemia, while it is expressed in other types of acute myeloid leukemia. Therefore, the presence or absence of HLA-DR can help differentiate between these two types of leukemia.

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  • 11. 

    Bone marrow flow cytometric analysis detects a population with the following profile. What is your diagnosis?Positive: CD19, CD20, CD103, CD123, monoclonal surface light chain, with bright expressionNegative: CD5, CD10, CD138

    • A.

      B cell lymphoma of follicular origin

    • B.

      Mantle cell lymphoma

    • C.

      Hairy cell leukemia

    • D.

      Margina zone B cell lymphoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Hairy cell leukemia
    Explanation
    The given flow cytometric profile shows positive expression of CD19, CD20, CD103, CD123, monoclonal surface light chain, and negative expression of CD5, CD10, CD138. This pattern is consistent with the diagnosis of Hairy cell leukemia. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal B lymphocytes that express CD19, CD20, CD103, and CD123, and show monoclonal surface light chain expression. Additionally, hairy cell leukemia typically lacks expression of CD5, CD10, and CD138, which is in line with the given profile.

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  • 12. 

    List three antigens that can be used to distinguish B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia from Burkitt lymphoma

    Correct Answer
    dim versus bright CD45 expression, nuclear tdt expression, absence of surface light chain expression
    Explanation
    The three antigens that can be used to distinguish B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia from Burkitt lymphoma are dim versus bright CD45 expression, nuclear tdt expression, and absence of surface light chain expression. In B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the CD45 expression is dim, while in Burkitt lymphoma, it is bright. Nuclear tdt expression is present in B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia but absent in Burkitt lymphoma. Additionally, B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia shows an absence of surface light chain expression, whereas Burkitt lymphoma does not. These differences in antigen expression patterns can help differentiate between the two conditions.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following lymphomas will never express CD5

    • A.

      Burkitt lymphoma

    • B.

      Small lymphocytic lymphoma/CLL

    • C.

      Marginal zone B cell lymphoma

    • D.

      Large B cell lymphoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Burkitt lympHoma
    Explanation
    Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell lymphoma that is characterized by the presence of c-Myc gene rearrangement. It typically presents as a rapidly growing tumor in children and young adults. Unlike the other lymphomas listed, Burkitt lymphoma does not express CD5. CD5 is a marker commonly found on T cells and a subset of B cells, but it is not expressed in Burkitt lymphoma. Therefore, Burkitt lymphoma is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 14. 

    Flow cytometric analysis of bone marrow yielded a dominant population with the following immunophenotype. What is your diagnosis?Positive: CD45 dim, CD7, CD2, CD5, CD4, CD8Negative:CD19, CD20, surface light chain, CD3, HLA-DR

    Correct Answer
    T lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia
    Explanation
    The given immunophenotype shows a dominant population of cells that are positive for CD45 dim, CD7, CD2, CD5, CD4, and CD8. These markers are commonly seen in T lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia, which is a type of cancer that affects immature T cells. The absence of CD19, CD20, surface light chain, CD3, and HLA-DR further supports this diagnosis, as these markers are typically not expressed in T lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia. Therefore, based on the immunophenotype, the diagnosis is T lymphoblastic lymphoma/leukemia.

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  • 15. 

    The best immunophenotypic profile for identifying T cell lymphoma by flow cytometric analysis is

    • A.

      Marked predominance of CD4 versus CD8

    • B.

      Marked predominance of CD8 versus CD4

    • C.

      Loss of expression of some but not all T cell antigens

    • D.

      Expression of HLA-DR

    Correct Answer
    C. Loss of expression of some but not all T cell antigens
    Explanation
    Loss of expression of some but not all T cell antigens is the best immunophenotypic profile for identifying T cell lymphoma by flow cytometric analysis. This is because T cell lymphomas often show aberrant or partial loss of expression of T cell antigens, such as CD2, CD3, CD5, and CD7, while maintaining expression of other T cell antigens. This loss of expression pattern can help differentiate T cell lymphoma from reactive T cell populations, which typically show intact expression of these antigens.

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  • 16. 

    What antigen do we use in flow cytometry to distinguish erythroid differentiation?

    Correct Answer
    Glycophorin
    Explanation
    Glycophorin is used as an antigen in flow cytometry to distinguish erythroid differentiation. Glycophorin is a protein found on the surface of red blood cells, and its expression increases during erythroid differentiation. By detecting the presence of glycophorin using flow cytometry, we can identify and analyze the different stages of erythroid differentiation.

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  • 17. 

    List two antigens used in the flow lab to distinguish megakaryocytic differentiation?

    Correct Answer
    CD41, CD61
    Explanation
    CD41 and CD61 are two antigens used in the flow lab to distinguish megakaryocytic differentiation. CD41, also known as integrin alpha IIb, is a glycoprotein that is expressed on the surface of platelets and megakaryocytes. CD61, also known as integrin beta 3, forms a complex with CD41 and is involved in platelet aggregation and adhesion. By detecting the presence of CD41 and CD61, researchers can identify and study cells that are undergoing megakaryocytic differentiation.

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  • 18. 

    Per 2008 WHO monograph, what is the most specific marker for identifying myeloid differentiation in acute leukemia?

    • A.

      CD33

    • B.

      CD117

    • C.

      Cytoplasmic myeloperoxidase

    • D.

      CD13

    Correct Answer
    C. Cytoplasmic myeloperoxidase
    Explanation
    Cytoplasmic myeloperoxidase is the most specific marker for identifying myeloid differentiation in acute leukemia according to the 2008 WHO monograph. This marker is used to distinguish between different types of leukemia and specifically indicates the presence of myeloid cells. CD33, CD117, and CD13 are also markers used in the diagnosis of leukemia, but cytoplasmic myeloperoxidase is the most specific marker for myeloid differentiation.

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  • 19. 

    Per 2008 WHO monograph, what is the most specific marker identifying T lymphocytic differentiation in acute leukemia?

    • A.

      Surface CD7

    • B.

      Cytoplasmic CD2

    • C.

      Cytoplasmic CD3

    • D.

      Surface CD3

    Correct Answer
    C. Cytoplasmic CD3
    Explanation
    Cytoplasmic CD3 is the most specific marker identifying T lymphocytic differentiation in acute leukemia. This is based on the information provided in the 2008 WHO monograph. The other options, surface CD7 and surface CD3, are not as specific in identifying T lymphocytic differentiation.

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  • 20. 

    Flow cytometric analysis detects a intermediate to large cell population with the following immunophenotype. What is your diagnosisNegative: CD45, CD19, CD20, CD3, CD13, CD33, HLA-DRPositive: CD56 bright

    Correct Answer
    Suspicious for neurendocrine carcinoma
    Explanation
    The flow cytometric analysis shows that the cell population is negative for CD45, CD19, CD20, CD3, CD13, CD33, and HLA-DR, but positive for CD56 bright. This immunophenotype is consistent with neurendocrine carcinoma. Neurendocrine carcinomas are known to have a characteristic immunophenotype, with loss of expression of common leukocyte antigens (such as CD45) and lineage-specific markers (such as CD19, CD20, CD3, CD13, and CD33), while showing positivity for CD56. Therefore, based on the given immunophenotype, the diagnosis of suspicious for neurendocrine carcinoma is appropriate.

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  • 21. 

    What subtype of acute myeloid leukemia often aberrantly co-expresses CD19 and CD56, with down regulation of CD33 and CD13?

    Correct Answer
    Acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)
    Explanation
    Acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21) is a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia that often aberrantly co-expresses CD19 and CD56, with down regulation of CD33 and CD13. This specific chromosomal translocation results in the fusion of the RUNX1 gene on chromosome 21 with the RUNX1T1 gene on chromosome 8. The resulting fusion protein disrupts normal hematopoiesis and leads to the characteristic immunophenotype seen in this subtype of acute myeloid leukemia.

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  • 22. 

    List two antigens and a fluorescent protein that are used for the diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria by flow cytometric analysis

    Correct Answer
    FLAER, CD55, CD59, CD14
    Explanation
    FLAER, CD55, and CD59 are antigens that are used for the diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) by flow cytometric analysis. FLAER is a fluorescent protein that binds to glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchors, which are deficient in PNH cells. CD55 and CD59 are cell surface proteins that are also deficient in PNH cells. By analyzing the expression levels of these antigens using flow cytometry, PNH can be diagnosed. CD14 is not directly used for the diagnosis of PNH but may be included in the analysis for additional information or as a control.

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  • 23. 

    One can distinguish CLL/SLL from monoclonal B cell lymphocytosis by flow immunophenotype.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the answer "False" is that flow immunophenotype cannot be used to distinguish between CLL/SLL and monoclonal B cell lymphocytosis. While flow immunophenotyping is a useful tool in the diagnosis and classification of CLL/SLL, it is not specific enough to differentiate between these two conditions. Additional tests, such as cytogenetic analysis or molecular studies, are required to make a definitive diagnosis. Therefore, the statement provided in the question is incorrect.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 18, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Nblevy
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