FMGE Past Questions - Obs And Gynae -05

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  • 1/20 Questions

    The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Australia
    • Asia.
    • North America
    • Western Europe
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'fmge past questions - obs and gynae -05' assesses key knowledge in Obstetrics and Gynecology, covering topics like aspermia, ultrasound markers for trisomy 21, gestational trophoblastic disease, and more, relevant for FMGE March 2005 exam preparations.

Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Maternal obesity

    • Prolonged pregnancy.

    • Previous large infant

    • Short stature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Short stature.
    Explanation
    The risk factors associated with macrosomia include maternal obesity, prolonged pregnancy, and previous large infant. Short stature, on the other hand, is not typically considered a risk factor for macrosomia.

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  • 3. 

    Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • 2.5 cm.

    • 3.0 cm

    • 3.5 cm.

    • 4.0 cm.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.5 cm.
    Explanation
    A shorter cervical length is associated with an increased risk of preterm delivery. This is because the cervix plays a crucial role in supporting the pregnancy and keeping the fetus inside the uterus until full term. A shorter cervix may indicate cervical insufficiency, which means that the cervix is unable to stay closed and firm during pregnancy, increasing the risk of preterm labor and delivery. Therefore, a cervical length of 2.5 cm is more likely to be associated with an increased risk of preterm delivery compared to longer cervical lengths.

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  • 4. 

    Aspermia is the term used to describe:  Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Absence of semen

    • Absence of sperm in ejaculate

    • Absence of sperm motility

    • Occurrence of abnormal sperm

    Correct Answer
    A. Absence of semen
    Explanation
    Aspermia is the term used to describe the absence of semen. Semen is the fluid that is released during ejaculation and contains sperm. Therefore, if there is no semen present, it means that there is no fluid being released during ejaculation. This can be caused by various factors such as blockages in the reproductive system or hormonal imbalances.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in fetus:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Echogenic foci in heart .

    • Hyperechogenic bowel.

    • Choroid plexus cysts.

    • Nuchal edema.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuchal edema.
    Explanation
    Nuchal edema is associated with the greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in the fetus. Nuchal edema refers to the accumulation of fluid at the back of the fetal neck, which can be detected through ultrasound. It is a soft marker for trisomy 21 and is often seen in affected fetuses. Echogenic foci in the heart, hyperechogenic bowel, and choroid plexus cysts are also ultrasound markers for trisomy 21, but they are not associated with as high of a risk as nuchal edema.

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  • 6. 

    The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Interspinous diameter.

    • Diagonal conjugate.

    • True conjugate.

    • Intertuberous diameter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interspinous diameter.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the interspinous diameter. The true pelvis is divided into three planes: the inlet, the midplane, and the outlet. The interspinous diameter refers to the distance between the two ischial spines, which is the narrowest part of the midplane. It is an important measurement in obstetrics as it determines the ability of the baby's head to pass through the pelvis during childbirth.

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  • 7. 

    The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • 8-10 weeks.

    • 10-12 weeks

    • 12-14 weeks.

    • 14-16 weeks.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-12 weeks
    Explanation
    During the period of 10-12 weeks of gestation, the chorion villous biopsy is considered to be the best time for prenatal diagnosis. This is because during this time, there is a sufficient amount of fetal tissue available for sampling, and the risk of complications is relatively low. Additionally, at this stage, the chorionic villi are well-developed and can provide accurate genetic information for prenatal testing.

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  • 8. 

    The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Choriocarcinoma.

    • Dysgerminoma.

    • Embryonal cell tumor

    • Malignant teratoma.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysgerminoma.
    Explanation
    Dysgerminoma is the most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary. Germ cell tumors arise from the cells that give rise to eggs in the ovary. Dysgerminoma is a malignant tumor that usually occurs in young women and is characterized by large, uniform cells with clear cytoplasm. It is highly sensitive to radiation and chemotherapy, making it a treatable tumor. Choriocarcinoma is a rare and aggressive tumor, embryonal cell tumor is a type of malignant tumor that contains tissues from all three germ layers, and malignant teratoma is a tumor that contains tissues from multiple germ layers and can be benign or malignant.

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  • 9. 

    The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • 46 XX.

    • 46 XY.

    • 47 XXY.

    • 45 XO.

    Correct Answer
    A. 46 XY.
    Explanation
    Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) is a condition where individuals with male chromosomes (XY) have a reduced ability to respond to male sex hormones (androgens). This results in incomplete development of male sexual characteristics. The karyotype of a patient with AIS is typically 46 XY, meaning they have 46 chromosomes with the presence of both X and Y sex chromosomes. This is because individuals with AIS have a mutation in the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome, which affects the body's response to androgens. Therefore, the correct answer is 46 XY.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.

    • Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.

    • Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants

    • Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.
    Explanation
    Seizure frequency does not increase in approximately 70% of women with epilepsy during pregnancy.

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  • 11. 

    Misoprostal has been found to be effective in all of the following except:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Missed abortion.

    • Induction of labour.

    • Menorrhagia.

    • Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage (PPH).

    Correct Answer
    A. Menorrhagia.
    Explanation
    Misoprostol is a medication that is commonly used in gynecology and obstetrics. It is effective in the induction of labor, prevention of post-partum hemorrhage, and treatment of missed abortion. However, it is not typically used for the treatment of menorrhagia, which refers to abnormally heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is menorrhagia.

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  • 12. 

    Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Coarctation of aorta

    • Fallot’s tetrology.

    • Ebstein’s anomaly

    • Transposition of great arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Transposition of great arteries
    Explanation
    Infants of diabetic mothers have an increased risk of developing congenital heart defects, with the most common being transposition of the great arteries. In this condition, the positions of the pulmonary artery and aorta are switched, leading to poor oxygenation of the blood. This anomaly requires surgical intervention soon after birth to correct the positioning of the arteries and improve blood flow.

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  • 13. 

    The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Methotrexate.

    • Misoprostol.

    • Actinomycin-D.

    • RU 486.

    Correct Answer
    A. Misoprostol.
    Explanation
    Misoprostol is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy because it is a prostaglandin analog that is primarily used for medical abortion and to induce labor. It is not effective in treating ectopic pregnancy, which is a potentially life-threatening condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat ectopic pregnancy by stopping the growth of the embryo, Actinomycin-D is an anticancer drug that can be used in the treatment of gestational trophoblastic disease, and RU 486 (Mifepristone) is another medication used for medical abortion but not specifically indicated for ectopic pregnancy.

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  • 14. 

    All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Anemia.

    • Pregnancy induced hypertension.

    • Maternal heart disease

    • Gestational diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Gestational diabetes
    Explanation
    Gestational diabetes is not a cause of intrauterine growth retardation. Intrauterine growth retardation refers to the poor growth of a fetus during pregnancy. It can be caused by various factors such as anemia, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and maternal heart disease. However, gestational diabetes, which is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels during pregnancy, does not directly cause intrauterine growth retardation. Instead, it can lead to other complications such as macrosomia (large birth weight) in the baby.

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  • 15. 

    Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.

    • Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein

    • Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase

    • Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase
    Explanation
    Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase is the most sensitive biochemical parameter to detect open spina bifida. Acetyl cholinesterase is an enzyme that is produced by the fetus and is present in higher concentrations in the amniotic fluid when there is a neural tube defect such as spina bifida. Therefore, measuring the levels of acetyl cholinesterase in the amniotic fluid can help in the early detection of open spina bifida. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein and amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein are also used as markers for neural tube defects, but amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase is considered to be the most sensitive. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase is not a marker for open spina bifida.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Androgens.

    • Raloxifene.

    • Isoflavones.

    • Tibolone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Raloxifene.
    Explanation
    Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It is primarily used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Unlike other options listed, such as androgens, isoflavones, and tibolone, which have shown some efficacy in reducing hot flushes, raloxifene has not been found to have a significant impact on hot flushes in menopausal women. Therefore, the correct answer is raloxifene.

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  • 17. 

    Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:   Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • IUCD.

    • Depo-provera.

    • Diaphragm.

    • Oral contraceptive pills.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm.
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease because it does not contain any hormones that could potentially worsen the condition. Unlike oral contraceptive pills and Depo-provera, which contain hormones, the diaphragm is a barrier method that does not affect hormone levels in the body. Additionally, the diaphragm does not require any surgical procedures like IUCD, making it a safer option for a patient with heart disease.

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  • 18. 

    In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Serum HCG

    • Serum alphafetoprotein

    • Serum lactic dehydrogenase

    • Serum inhibin

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum lactic dehydrogenase
    Explanation
    In a case of dysgerminoma of the ovary, serum lactic dehydrogenase is likely to be raised. Dysgerminoma is a type of germ cell tumor that commonly occurs in the ovary. Serum lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is a non-specific marker that can be elevated in various types of malignancies, including dysgerminoma. LDH is an enzyme that is released from cells when there is tissue damage or cell death. Therefore, an increase in LDH levels can indicate the presence of an active tumor and can be used as a marker for monitoring treatment response or disease progression in dysgerminoma.

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  • 19. 

    Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Hepatitis-B.

    • Cholera.

    • Rabies.

    • Yellow fever.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholera.
    Explanation
    Cholera vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy because the safety of the vaccine has not been established for pregnant women. It is important to avoid any potential risks to the developing fetus, and therefore, pregnant women should not receive the cholera vaccine.

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  • 20. 

    The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is:    Gynaecology & OBSTETRICS (M.C.I./F.M.G.E. 2005 MARCH)

    • Endometrial tuberculosis.

    • Premature ovarian failure.

    • Polycystic ovarian syndrome.

    • Sheehan’s syndrome. D. Sheehan’s

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometrial tuberculosis.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Endometrial tuberculosis. Endometrial tuberculosis is a common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India. Tuberculosis can affect the reproductive organs, including the endometrium, leading to inflammation and scarring. This can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and result in amenorrhoea. Premature ovarian failure is another possible cause of secondary amenorrhoea, but it is not as common in India as endometrial tuberculosis. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a hormonal disorder that can cause irregular periods, but it is not typically associated with secondary amenorrhoea. Sheehan's syndrome is a condition where the pituitary gland is damaged during childbirth, leading to hormonal imbalances and amenorrhoea, but it is not as common as endometrial tuberculosis in India.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 23, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Fmgs India
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