Computer Quiz Questions On Networking
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Here are some amazing and interesting quiz questions on computer networking. Let's start and learn more about it!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
BIG-IP Local Traffic Manager works with Web applications only.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
BIG-IP LTM can manage network traffic for all types of IP-based applications.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The BIG-IP command line "config" script and the BIG-IP Web Configuration Utility serve the same purpose.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the BIG-IP command line "config" script and the BIG-IP Web Configuration Utility do not serve the same purpose. The command line "config" script is used for making changes and configurations to the BIG-IP system through the command line interface, while the Web Configuration Utility is a graphical user interface that allows users to make changes and configurations to the BIG-IP system through a web browser.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The default IP address for the BIG-IP management port is 192.168.1.245. This IP address was chosen for a special reason. Why did F5 choose this?
- A.
It took 245 days to develop the BIG-IP product
- B.
F5 in hexadecimal equals 245 in decimal
- C.
It took245 developers to create the BIG-IP product
- D.
You can create 245 words from the letters contained in BIG-IP Local Traffic Manager
Correct Answer
B. F5 in hexadecimal equals 245 in decimal -
- 4.
During the licensing process, BIG-IP generates a dossier that contains: (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
A license file
- B.
An IP address for BIG-IP
- C.
Login credentials
- D.
Hardware information
- E.
A registration key
Correct Answer(s)
D. Hardware information
E. A registration keyExplanation
During the licensing process, BIG-IP generates a dossier that contains hardware information and a registration key. The hardware information is necessary for the licensing process as it helps identify the specific device and its capabilities. The registration key is a unique code provided by the licensing authority to activate and validate the license for the BIG-IP device. The other options, such as a license file, an IP address for BIG-IP, and login credentials, may be required for the overall setup and configuration of the device but are not specifically generated during the licensing process.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When using the automatic licensing method, you must still manually place the license file in the correct directory on BIG-IP
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
When using the automatic licensing method, the license file is automatically placed in the correct directory on BIG-IP. Therefore, there is no need to manually place the license file in the correct directory.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In the Setup Utility Basic Network Configuration, you can configure which of the following items? (Check all that apply.)
- A.
External VLAN
- B.
BIG-IP host name
- C.
Username and password for administrative access
- D.
IP address for BIG-IP management port
- E.
Internal VLAN
- F.
None of these choices
Correct Answer(s)
A. External VLAN
E. Internal VLANExplanation
In the Setup Utility Basic Network Configuration, you can configure the External VLAN and Internal VLAN. These settings allow you to define the virtual local area networks that the BIG-IP system will be connected to. By configuring the External VLAN, you can specify the network that will be used for external traffic, while the Internal VLAN allows you to define the network for internal traffic. This configuration is important for properly routing and managing network traffic within the BIG-IP system.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following methods can you use for accessing the BIG-IP command line interface? (You may choose multiple answers.)
- A.
SSH
- B.
Telnet
- C.
Serial Console
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer(s)
A. SSH
C. Serial ConsoleExplanation
The correct answer is SSH and Serial Console. SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that allows secure remote access to the command line interface of the BIG-IP device. It provides encrypted communication and authentication. The Serial Console is another method for accessing the command line interface, which requires a physical connection to the device using a serial cable. Telnet is not a valid method for accessing the BIG-IP command line interface as it is not secure and is considered a less secure alternative to SSH.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following options are valid resource levels you can assign to a BIG-IP module? (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
Minimum
- B.
None
- C.
Nominal
- D.
Zero
- E.
Automatic
- F.
Average
- G.
Maximum
- H.
Dedicated
Correct Answer(s)
A. Minimum
B. None
C. Nominal
H. DedicatedExplanation
The valid resource levels that can be assigned to a BIG-IP module are Minimum, None, Nominal, and Dedicated. These resource levels represent different allocation levels for the module's resources. "Minimum" indicates the lowest level of resources required for the module to function properly. "None" suggests that no additional resources are allocated to the module. "Nominal" represents a moderate level of resource allocation. "Dedicated" means that the module has exclusive access to a specific set of resources.Rate this question:
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- 9.
SCCP is the BIG-IP operating system responsible for processing client traffic.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement is false. SCCP is not the BIG-IP operating system responsible for processing client traffic. SCCP stands for Signaling Connection Control Part, which is a protocol used in telecommunication networks for call setup, signaling, and controlling. The BIG-IP operating system responsible for processing client traffic is called TMOS (Traffic Management Operating System).Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following keystrokes launches the configuration menu for the secondary operating system?
- A.
Esc )
- B.
Esc ]
- C.
Esc [
- D.
Esc (
- E.
Esc }
- F.
Esc {
Correct Answer
D. Esc (Explanation
Pressing the Esc ( keystroke launches the configuration menu for the secondary operating system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A node contains:
- A.
IP Address only
- B.
IP Address and Port
- C.
Port only
Correct Answer
A. IP Address onlyExplanation
A node contains an IP address only. This means that the node is identified and located on a network solely by its IP address, without any additional information such as a port number.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Pool members typically contain:
- A.
IP Address only
- B.
Port only
- C.
IP Address and Port
Correct Answer
C. IP Address and PortExplanation
Pool members typically contain both an IP address and a port. The IP address is used to identify the specific device or server within a network, while the port number is used to identify the specific application or service running on that device. Together, the IP address and port allow for the proper routing and delivery of network traffic to the intended destination.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A Virtual Server typically contains:
- A.
Port only
- B.
IP Address and Port
- C.
IP Address only
Correct Answer
B. IP Address and PortExplanation
A virtual server typically contains an IP address and port. The IP address is used to identify the virtual server within a network, while the port number is used to specify the specific service or application running on the virtual server. This combination of IP address and port allows incoming network traffic to be directed to the correct virtual server and service.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The Virtual Server process never translates the Port.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement is false. The Virtual Server process does translate the port. In a virtual server environment, the virtual server acts as an intermediary between the client and the actual server. It receives requests from the client and forwards them to the appropriate server. During this process, the virtual server may need to translate the port number to ensure that the request reaches the correct server. Therefore, the statement that the Virtual Server process never translates the port is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Why might a network packet not traverse BIG-IP and the return path correctly?
- A.
Pool members not configured correctly
- B.
Response packet is not directed back through BIG-IP
- C.
No Pool configured for the Virtual Server
- D.
No Virtual Server (listener) configured
- E.
None of these options
Correct Answer(s)
A. Pool members not configured correctly
B. Response packet is not directed back through BIG-IP
C. No Pool configured for the Virtual Server
D. No Virtual Server (listener) configuredExplanation
The network packet might not traverse BIG-IP and the return path correctly if the pool members are not configured correctly, meaning that the packet is not being directed to the appropriate resources. Additionally, if the response packet is not directed back through BIG-IP, it will not follow the correct path. Furthermore, if no pool is configured for the virtual server or if there is no virtual server (listener) configured at all, the packet will not be able to traverse BIG-IP properly.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Select the dynamic Load Balancing Modes from the list below:
- A.
Fastest
- B.
Ratio
- C.
Predictive
- D.
Least Connections
- E.
Round Robin
- F.
Observed
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fastest
C. Predictive
D. Least Connections
F. ObservedExplanation
The given answer includes the load balancing modes that are based on different algorithms. "Fastest" mode selects the server with the fastest response time, "Predictive" mode predicts the server with the least load based on historical data, "Least Connections" mode directs traffic to the server with the fewest active connections, and "Observed" mode monitors the servers and directs traffic to the one with the fewest failed responses. These modes help distribute the workload efficiently and improve performance in a dynamic load balancing setup.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply)
- A.
Monitors are used to determine the health or status of a Node or Pool Member
- B.
Monitors generally test a specific Node or Member for an expected response
- C.
Monitors can determine why devices are not working
- D.
Monitors continue checking Nodes or Members even after marking them down
- E.
Monitors are used to determine the performance of a Virtual Server
Correct Answer(s)
A. Monitors are used to determine the health or status of a Node or Pool Member
B. Monitors generally test a specific Node or Member for an expected response
D. Monitors continue checking Nodes or Members even after marking them downExplanation
Monitors are used to determine the health or status of a Node or Pool Member. This means that monitors are used to check if a Node or Pool Member is functioning properly or if there are any issues with it.
Monitors generally test a specific Node or Member for an expected response. This means that monitors are designed to test a specific Node or Member and check if it responds as expected.
Monitors continue checking Nodes or Members even after marking them down. This means that even if a Node or Member is marked as down, monitors still continue to check it to see if it becomes available again.
These statements explain the purpose and behavior of monitors in a network or server environment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
F5 recommends a timeout value that is 2 times the interval plus 1 second (2n + 1).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
F5 does not recommend a timeout value that is 2 times the interval plus 1 second. The correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 19.
If the interval is set at 5 seconds and the timeout is 16 seconds then if there are no positive responses, 4 monitor checks will have been issued before the timeout value is reached.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If the interval is set at 5 seconds and the timeout is 16 seconds, it means that the system will check for a positive response every 5 seconds. Since the timeout is set at 16 seconds, it means that if there are no positive responses within this time frame, the timeout value will be reached. Therefore, if there are no positive responses, it would take 4 monitor checks (4 x 5 seconds = 20 seconds) before the timeout value of 16 seconds is reached. Hence, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which items below can a Monitor be assigned to? (Check all that apply.)
- A.
Pool
- B.
Self IP's
- C.
Node
- D.
Virtual Server
- E.
Pool Member
Correct Answer(s)
A. Pool
C. Node
E. Pool MemberExplanation
A monitor can be assigned to a pool, node, and pool member. A monitor is used to check the health and availability of a resource. By assigning a monitor to a pool, it ensures that the pool only includes healthy members. Similarly, by assigning a monitor to a node, it ensures that the node is healthy and available to handle traffic. Lastly, a monitor can also be assigned to a pool member to specifically check the health of that member.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A Profile is used for? (Check all that apply.)
- A.
Defining the Virtual Server's IP Address
- B.
Defining the traffic behaviour of a Virtual Server
- C.
Terminating a client SSL session on the BIG-IP rather than the Pool Members
- D.
Defining the Pool Members' TCP Port
Correct Answer(s)
B. Defining the traffic behaviour of a Virtual Server
C. Terminating a client SSL session on the BIG-IP rather than the Pool MembersExplanation
A profile is used to define the traffic behavior of a virtual server and to terminate a client SSL session on the BIG-IP rather than the pool members. Profiles allow for customization and configuration of specific features and functionalities for a virtual server, such as load balancing algorithms, SSL termination, and traffic management policies. By defining the traffic behavior and SSL termination on the BIG-IP, the load can be balanced efficiently and securely without burdening the pool members with these tasks.Rate this question:
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- 22.
One advantage of Profiles is their settings cab be applied across multiple Virtual Servers.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Profiles in this context refer to a set of predefined configurations or settings that can be applied to multiple virtual servers. By using profiles, administrators can easily manage and maintain consistent settings across multiple virtual servers, saving time and effort. This advantage allows for efficient management and ensures that the desired settings are uniformly applied, making the statement "One advantage of Profiles is their settings can be applied across multiple Virtual Servers" true.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Custom Profiles are stored in the /config/bigip.conf file?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Custom Profiles are stored in the /config/bigip.conf file because this file is the main configuration file for the BIG-IP system. It contains all the configuration settings for the system, including custom profiles. Storing custom profiles in this file allows for easy management and access to these profiles.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which statements are true concerning Persistence? (Choose all that apply)
- A.
Persistence is configured on the Pool
- B.
Applications are the reason for configuring Persistence
- C.
Persistence changes the load balancing behaviour of a Virtual Server
- D.
New client traffic is treated the same way as returning client traffic
Correct Answer(s)
B. Applications are the reason for configuring Persistence
C. Persistence changes the load balancing behaviour of a Virtual ServerExplanation
Persistence is a feature that is configured on the Pool, not the Virtual Server. It allows for maintaining session information for a client across multiple requests, which is particularly useful for applications that require stateful connections. By configuring Persistence, applications can ensure that client requests are consistently directed to the same server, which can improve performance and maintain session integrity. Therefore, the statement "Applications are the reason for configuring Persistence" is true. Additionally, Persistence does change the load balancing behavior of a Virtual Server by directing client traffic to the same server based on the configured Persistence method. Thus, the statement "Persistence changes the load balancing behavior of a Virtual Server" is also true.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A Persistence Profile can be associated to a:
- A.
Pool Member
- B.
Virtual Server
- C.
Client
- D.
Node
- E.
Pool
Correct Answer
B. Virtual ServerExplanation
A Persistence Profile can be associated with a Virtual Server to maintain session persistence for client requests. By associating a Persistence Profile with a Virtual Server, the load balancer can ensure that subsequent requests from the same client are consistently directed to the same server in the pool, based on the defined persistence method. This helps in maintaining session state and providing a seamless user experience.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following can be configured on a Source Address Persistence Profile?
- A.
Mask
- B.
Statistics
- C.
IP Address of the Pool Member
- D.
IP Address of the client
- E.
Timeout
Correct Answer(s)
A. Mask
E. TimeoutExplanation
A Source Address Persistence Profile is used to maintain persistence for a client's requests based on the source IP address. The "Mask" option allows for configuring a subnet mask to determine the range of IP addresses that should be considered for persistence. The "Timeout" option allows for setting a time limit for how long the persistence should be maintained. Therefore, both "Mask" and "Timeout" can be configured on a Source Address Persistence Profile. The other options, such as "Statistics", "IP Address of the Pool Member", and "IP Address of the client" are not applicable for configuring a Source Address Persistence Profile.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Source Address Persistence can be effectively used with an HTTPS Virtual Server.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Source Address Persistence can be effectively used with an HTTPS Virtual Server because HTTPS is a secure protocol that encrypts data between the client and the server. Source Address Persistence allows the server to maintain a consistent connection with the client by using the client's source IP address. This is important for HTTPS connections as it ensures that the encrypted session is maintained and the client's requests are consistently routed to the same server. Therefore, it is true that Source Address Persistence can be effectively used with an HTTPS Virtual Server.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which Cookie Persistence Mode is typically preferred when the web server application does not already use cookies?
- A.
Insert Mode
- B.
Rewrite Mode
- C.
Passive Mode
Correct Answer
A. Insert ModeExplanation
Insert Mode is typically preferred when the web server application does not already use cookies. In Insert Mode, the load balancer inserts a cookie into the HTTP response sent to the client. This cookie contains information about the server to which the client should be directed for subsequent requests. This allows the load balancer to maintain session persistence by directing the client to the same server for each subsequent request. This mode is useful when the web server application does not have built-in support for cookies and requires the load balancer to handle the persistence mechanism.Rate this question:
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- 29.
If you're going to configure Cookie Persistence, which other two Profiles must be configured for that Virtual Server?
- A.
UDP Profile
- B.
FTP Profile
- C.
TCP Profile
- D.
SSL Profile
- E.
HTTP Profile
Correct Answer(s)
C. TCP Profile
E. HTTP ProfileExplanation
To configure Cookie Persistence, two other profiles must be configured for the virtual server: TCP Profile and HTTP Profile. The TCP Profile is necessary to handle the TCP connections and ensure proper communication between the client and the server. The HTTP Profile is required to process and manage HTTP requests and responses. These two profiles work together to enable the virtual server to maintain session persistence based on cookies.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the default Administrative State?
- A.
Forced Offline
- B.
Unavailable
- C.
Disabled
- D.
Enabled
Correct Answer
D. EnabledExplanation
The default administrative state refers to the initial setting or status of a system or device. In this case, the correct answer is "Enabled." This means that the system or device is initially set to be operational or active. It is not forced offline, unavailable, or disabled by default.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An administrator can administratively change the state of: (Choose 3)
- A.
Virtual Servers
- B.
Pool Members
- C.
Pools
- D.
Nodes
- E.
Profiles
Correct Answer(s)
A. Virtual Servers
B. Pool Members
D. NodesExplanation
An administrator has the ability to change the state of Virtual Servers, Pool Members, and Nodes. This means they can modify the operational status or configuration settings of these components. By having administrative control over these entities, the administrator can effectively manage and control the behavior and functionality of the network infrastructure. However, they do not have the same level of control over Pools and Profiles, as these are typically managed at a higher level or by specialized roles within the network administration team.Rate this question:
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- 32.
All Administrative States client connections, until the session terminates or times-out.
- A.
Initiate
- B.
Reset
- C.
Disable
- D.
Maintain
- E.
Suspend
Correct Answer
D. MaintainExplanation
The correct answer is "maintain". This means that all administrative states are responsible for keeping client connections active and functional until the session either ends or times out.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A BIG-IP Virtual Server can terminate client SSL sessions, thus offloading this work from the Pool members.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A BIG-IP Virtual Server has the capability to handle client SSL sessions, which means it can handle the encryption and decryption of SSL/TLS connections made by clients. By doing so, the Virtual Server can offload this resource-intensive task from the Pool members, which are the servers that actually process the client requests. This offloading helps to distribute the workload more efficiently and allows the Pool members to focus on other tasks, improving overall performance and scalability.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following are advantages to using client-side SSL Termination on BIG-IP? Select all that apply.
- A.
BIG-IP is able to perform HTTP cookie persistence and apply iRules
- B.
It simplifies certificate management
- C.
Server performance is enhanced
- D.
Pool members do not need SSL Accelerator cards
- E.
BIG-IP performance is enhanced
Correct Answer(s)
A. BIG-IP is able to perform HTTP cookie persistence and apply iRules
B. It simplifies certificate management
C. Server performance is enhanced
D. Pool members do not need SSL Accelerator cardsExplanation
Client-side SSL termination on BIG-IP offers several advantages. Firstly, it enables BIG-IP to perform HTTP cookie persistence and apply iRules, allowing for advanced traffic management and customization. Secondly, it simplifies certificate management by centralizing SSL certificates on BIG-IP rather than on individual servers. Thirdly, server performance is enhanced as the SSL decryption and encryption processes are offloaded to BIG-IP, reducing the workload on the servers. Lastly, pool members do not require SSL Accelerator cards, saving costs and simplifying the infrastructure. Overall, these advantages make client-side SSL termination a beneficial choice for organizations using BIG-IP.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If you are concerned about encryption between BIG-IP and the Pool members, you should not use SSL Termination.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
If you are concerned about encryption between BIG-IP and the Pool members, you should use SSL Termination. SSL Termination allows the BIG-IP to decrypt the incoming SSL traffic and then re-encrypt it before sending it to the Pool members. This ensures that the traffic between the BIG-IP and the Pool members is encrypted. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following statements are true? (Check all that apply)
- A.
If you are using a redundant pair, you can install your SSL certificates and keys on the second system by synchronizing from the first
- B.
A Server SSL Profile requires an SSL certificate for creation
- C.
Self-signed certificates are recommended for internal use only
- D.
A Client SSL Profile requires an SSL certificate for creation
Correct Answer(s)
A. If you are using a redundant pair, you can install your SSL certificates and keys on the second system by synchronizing from the first
C. Self-signed certificates are recommended for internal use only
D. A Client SSL Profile requires an SSL certificate for creationExplanation
The first statement is true because when using a redundant pair, the SSL certificates and keys can be installed on the second system by synchronizing them from the first system. The second statement is false because a Server SSL Profile does not require an SSL certificate for creation. The third statement is true because self-signed certificates are generally recommended for internal use only. The fourth statement is true because a Client SSL Profile does require an SSL certificate for creation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
You should never use the default Server SSL Profile without adding customizations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Using the default Server SSL Profile without any customizations is not necessarily a bad practice. The default profile is designed to provide a secure SSL configuration out of the box. However, depending on the specific requirements and security needs of the application, additional customizations may be necessary. Therefore, it is not always true that you should never use the default Server SSL Profile without adding customizations.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Your company has a requirement for application traffic to be encrypted from the client to BIG-IP, but BIG-IP must be able to examine the data unencrypted. Which of the following Profiles are required to ensure this functionality? (Select all the apply)
- A.
UDP Profile
- B.
Server SSL Profile
- C.
HTTP Profile
- D.
TCP Profile
- E.
Cookie-Persistence Profile
- F.
Client SSL Profile
Correct Answer(s)
D. TCP Profile
F. Client SSL ProfileExplanation
To ensure that application traffic is encrypted from the client to BIG-IP while still allowing BIG-IP to examine the data unencrypted, two profiles are required. The TCP Profile is necessary to handle the TCP traffic and ensure proper communication between the client and BIG-IP. The Client SSL Profile is needed to encrypt the traffic from the client to BIG-IP, allowing for secure communication.Rate this question:
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- 39.
NATs can be used to map many IP Addresses to one NAT Address
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
NATs (Network Address Translations) are used to map many private IP addresses to one public IP address. This allows multiple devices within a private network to share a single public IP address when communicating with devices outside of the network. Therefore, the given statement is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following statements are true about NATs?
- A.
NATs are created in the Web Configuration Utility from the NATs tab within the Local Traffic section
- B.
NATs support bi-directional traffic, either to the NAT Address or from the Origin Address
- C.
NATs are only supported in one direction, to the NAT Address
- D.
NATs are created in the Web Configuration Utility by first selecting the SNATs tab, then NATs within the Local Traffic section
- E.
There is no Port configuration option for NATs
Correct Answer(s)
B. NATs support bi-directional traffic, either to the NAT Address or from the Origin Address
D. NATs are created in the Web Configuration Utility by first selecting the SNATs tab, then NATs within the Local Traffic section
E. There is no Port configuration option for NATsExplanation
NATs support bi-directional traffic, meaning that they can handle traffic going to the NAT Address or coming from the Origin Address. They are created in the Web Configuration Utility by first selecting the SNATs tab, then NATs within the Local Traffic section. Additionally, there is no Port configuration option for NATs, indicating that port configuration is not available for NATs.Rate this question:
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- 41.
According to the RFCs, SNAT stands for Source Network Address Translation
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
According to the RFCs, SNAT stands for Source Network Address Translation. This statement is false. SNAT actually stands for Source Network Address Translation, which is a technique used in computer networking to translate the source IP address of a packet to a different IP address.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Both SNAT and Virtual Server processing can occur on a packet as it passes through BIG-IP
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Both SNAT and Virtual Server processing can occur on a packet as it passes through BIG-IP. This means that when a packet is being processed by the BIG-IP device, it can undergo both SNAT (Source Network Address Translation) and Virtual Server processing. SNAT involves modifying the source IP address of the packet, while Virtual Server processing involves directing the packet to the appropriate virtual server based on its destination IP address. Therefore, it is true that both SNAT and Virtual Server processing can occur on a packet as it passes through BIG-IP.Rate this question:
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- 43.
For the initiation packet, a SNAT changes the source address while the Virtual Server changes the destination address.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In an initiation packet, a SNAT (Source Network Address Translation) changes the source address, which means it modifies the IP address of the packet's sender. On the other hand, a Virtual Server changes the destination address, meaning it modifies the IP address of the packet's intended recipient. Therefore, the statement that a SNAT changes the source address while the Virtual Server changes the destination address is true.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Both NATs and SNATs can be configured for a specific port
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Both NATs (Network Address Translations) and SNATs (Source Network Address Translations) cannot be configured for a specific port. They are used to translate IP addresses and not port numbers. NATs and SNATs are used to allow multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address, but they do not have the capability to configure specific ports.Rate this question:
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- 45.
IRules can contain only one event
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "iRules can contain only one event" is false. iRules in F5 Networks' BIG-IP system can contain multiple events. An event in an iRule is a specific condition or trigger that causes the iRule to execute a set of instructions. These events can include HTTP requests, TCP connections, SSL handshakes, and more. iRules are flexible and allow for complex scripting and customization of traffic management on the BIG-IP system. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that iRules can only have one event.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following are the primary four components of an iRule?
- A.
IRule name
- B.
Catchall clause
- C.
Switch clause
- D.
Action declaration
- E.
Event declaration
- F.
Conditional declaration
- G.
Exception statement
Correct Answer(s)
A. IRule name
D. Action declaration
E. Event declaration
F. Conditional declarationExplanation
The primary four components of an iRule are the iRule name, action declaration, event declaration, and conditional declaration. The iRule name is used to identify the iRule. The action declaration specifies the actions to be performed when the iRule is triggered. The event declaration defines the events that will trigger the iRule. The conditional declaration determines when the actions specified in the iRule will be executed based on certain conditions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Do you think it is important to write your iRules as efficiently as possible?
- A.
No. With the computing power available in BIG-IP, the amount of time it takes to process an iRule is negligible
- B.
Yes. Because BIG-IP LTM processes an iRule each time its declared Event occurs, it is important to keep them as small and efficient as possible.
Correct Answer
B. Yes. Because BIG-IP LTM processes an iRule each time its declared Event occurs, it is important to keep them as small and efficient as possible.Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes. Because BIG-IP LTM processes an iRule each time its declared Event occurs, it is important to keep them as small and efficient as possible." This answer explains that it is important to write iRules efficiently because they are processed each time the declared event occurs in BIG-IP LTM. Writing small and efficient iRules helps to optimize the performance and reduce the processing time.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If your iRule contains multiple conditional statements, you can put these conditional statements in any order and always achieve the same result.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the order of conditional statements in an iRule can affect the outcome. The iRule evaluates the conditional statements in the order they are written, and if a condition is met, it executes the corresponding action and exits the iRule. Therefore, changing the order of the conditional statements can change the behavior of the iRule and lead to different results.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If an iRule does not cover all conditions, some conditions could be dropped. The recommended approach for preventing this from happening is to configure BIG-IP to have a default Pool. This is preferable to coding all conditions within the iRule itself.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement suggests that if an iRule does not cover all conditions, some conditions could be dropped. However, the correct answer is false because the recommended approach for preventing this from happening is not to configure BIG-IP to have a default Pool, but rather to code all conditions within the iRule itself.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following do you have to create before creating your iRule?
- A.
Any pool that will be referenced in the iRule you are creating
- B.
The order in which you create the pools, Virtual Servers, and iRules does not matter
- C.
Both the referenced pool(s) and the Virtual Server
- D.
The Virtual Server to which you will map the iRule
Correct Answer
A. Any pool that will be referenced in the iRule you are creatingExplanation
Before creating an iRule, you need to create any pool that will be referenced in the iRule you are creating. This is because the iRule may contain commands or actions that require the use of a pool. By creating the pool first, you ensure that it is available and can be referenced in the iRule when it is created. The order in which you create the pools, Virtual Servers, and iRules does not matter, but the referenced pool(s) must be created before creating the iRule.Rate this question:
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Aug 13, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 01, 2010Quiz Created by
Formula5
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