Full Length PMP Simulation Test 4

1. Which of the following is Deming's formula for continuous improvement?

Plan-Act-Check-Do

Plan-Do-Check-Act

Check-Plan-Do-Act

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B - Deming's model is Plan-Do- Check-Act

Explanation

B - Deming's model is Plan-Do- Check-Act

2. The Make-or-Buy analysis is a technique that is used as part of the Plan Procurements process. It is used to determine whether a particular product or service can be produced by the project team or should be purchased. The analysis to arrive at a decision should include:

Indirect costs only

Direct as well as Indirect costs

Direct costs only

Staffing costs only

B - The analysis should include both indirect as well as direct costs.

Explanation

B - The analysis should include both indirect as well as direct costs.

3. One of the project team members had a teleconference with a customer representative who was reviewing some of the deliverables and discussed some changes in the product requirements. Your project team member discusses the changes with you and feels that these are necessary for the project. You agree with the team member's view. As a project manager, you should ensure that:

Ask the project team member to go ahead with the changes.

The changes are documented and they follow the change management process to become an Approved Change request.

Summarize the changes and archive your discussion with the team member as a future record.

Ask the team member to ignore the changes.

B - All changes should be formally documented in writing. Any verbally discussed but undocumented changes should not be processed or implemented

Explanation

B - All changes should be formally documented in writing. Any verbally discussed but undocumented changes should not be processed or implemented

4. The Executive VP of Finance has informed you that you will be the project manager for an energy audit the company is performing in order to save expenses. He has tasked you with identifying stakeholders and to start documenting the assumptions and constraints. Your project is in what process group?

Initiating

Planning

Monitoring & Controlling

Executing

A - Identifying stakeholders, assumptions and constraints are all part of developing the project charter, which is an output of the Initiating Process Group.

Explanation

A - Identifying stakeholders, assumptions and constraints are all part of developing the project charter, which is an output of the Initiating Process Group.

5. You are just starting on a project as project manager. The project sponsor indicates to you that she would like to have a monthly Project Status meeting to review the progress of the project. She would also like to receive weekly status updates by email. These requirements are documented in the:

Scope statement

Communications management plan

Project charter

Organizational plan

B - As part of communication planning, stakeholder communication requirements are gathered and documented in the communications management plan. This forms a subsidiary of the project management plan.

Explanation

B - As part of communication planning, stakeholder communication requirements are gathered and documented in the communications management plan. This forms a subsidiary of the project management plan.

6. The formula for Cost Variance is:

CV=EV-AC

CV=AC-EV

CV=BAC-(AC-EV)

CV=SV-BC

A - CV equals earned value (EV) minus actual cost (AC)

Explanation

A - CV equals earned value (EV) minus actual cost (AC)

7. Megamart is estimating the cost of a new ERP system using the costs of an earlier ERP system project as the basis for the cost. This is what type of estimating?

Analogous

Resource-based

Judgment-based

SWAG

A - Analogous cost estimating m means using the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Analogous cost estimating is frequently used to estimate costs when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project (e.g., in the early phases).

Explanation

A - Analogous cost estimating m means using the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Analogous cost estimating is frequently used to estimate costs when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project (e.g., in the early phases).

8.

Which of the following is true concerning the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

The PMI WBS and PRINCE2 product breakdown structure (PBS) are effectively the same thing.

The WBS is the same as the organisational breakdown structure (OBS).

The WBS is a deliverable oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.

The WBS is the bill of materials (BoM) needed to accomplish the work of the project.

The difference between the PBS and the WBS is the PBS only contains the products to be delivered, the WBS contains all of the work needed to achieve the project’s objectives including all of the deliverables (not just the ‘product’). Non-product elements in the WBS include project management work, safety and hygiene work, etc.

Explanation

The difference between the PBS and the WBS is the PBS only contains the products to be delivered, the WBS contains all of the work needed to achieve the project’s objectives including all of the deliverables (not just the ‘product’). Non-product elements in the WBS include project management work, safety and hygiene work, etc.

9.

When managing a complex, cross functional project; which of the following structures will give the project manager the most authority?

Balanced matrix.

Strong matrix.

Functional.

Weak matrix.

Strong matrix organisations provide the project manager with a similar high level of authority to a projectized organisation and full time project administration staff.

Explanation

Strong matrix organisations provide the project manager with a similar high level of authority to a projectized organisation and full time project administration staff.

10.

FPIF is an acronym for:

Fixed Price Incentive Fee

Firm Price Incentive Free

Fixed Price Indicator Factor

Fast Performance Incentive Fee

FPIF is a form of contract where the seller can earn an incentive fee on top of its fixed price for the work if it achieves a specified objective such as a zero accident or defect rate or completion before a specified target date.

Explanation

FPIF is a form of contract where the seller can earn an incentive fee on top of its fixed price for the work if it achieves a specified objective such as a zero accident or defect rate or completion before a specified target date.

11. All of the following are characteristics of a project, EXCEPT:

Has a definite beginning and end

Temporary

Progressively elaborated

Ongoing Effort

D - Projects are not repeated on an ongoing basis (e.g. quarterly) these are classified as Operations.

Explanation

D - Projects are not repeated on an ongoing basis (e.g. quarterly) these are classified as Operations.

12. Control Schedule is part of which Project Management process group?

Monitoring and controlling

Planning

Executing

Initiating

A - Control Schedule is part of the monitoring and controlling process group.

Explanation

A - Control Schedule is part of the monitoring and controlling process group.

13. You are working on a project where a negative risk has occurred. However, you have no contingency plan for this risk. You call a meeting and a solution is devised to change the workflow until a permanent solution can be implemented. This is an example of?

Work Item

Workaround

Work Package

Reserve plan

B - Any time there is no contingency plan in place, but the risk must be addressed it is a workaround.

Explanation

B - Any time there is no contingency plan in place, but the risk must be addressed it is a workaround.

14. Projects are often started as a result of an external factor such as market demand for a new product, a new legislative or regulatory mandate, or a change in technology. This results in the creation of ______ by an entity or organization external to the project organization.

The project charter

The project scope

The project budget.

The project kickoff

A - A project initiator or sponsor external to the project organization, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project, issues the project charter in response to some sort of stimulus.

Explanation

A - A project initiator or sponsor external to the project organization, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project, issues the project charter in response to some sort of stimulus.

15. A project manager of a project that was contracted on a Time and Material basis finds that some of the tasks have been taking lesser time than planned. On average each team member has required only 30 hours to accomplish work which was planned for 40 hours during the week. The project manager should:

Avoid mentioning these kinds of savings on status reports.

B - You would need to report the status accurately to the customer even if it means losing some revenue.

Explanation

B - You would need to report the status accurately to the customer even if it means losing some revenue.

16. Lynn is the project manager of a project. She creates a structure similar to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). However, instead of being arranged according to the project deliverables, it is arranged according to the team's existing departments and units. The project activities / work packages are listed against each existing department. This would be called:

An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

A Department Breakdown Structure (DBS)

A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

A Hierarchical Breakdown Structure (HBS)

A - Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is the correct answer. This is a useful way of listing project activities. An operational department such as Information Technology or purchasing can see all of its project responsibilities by looking at its portion of the OBS.

Explanation

A - Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is the correct answer. This is a useful way of listing project activities. An operational department such as Information Technology or purchasing can see all of its project responsibilities by looking at its portion of the OBS.

17. Your manager has provided you with a draft project charter and immediately asks you to provide an analysis of the risks on the project. Which of the following would BEST help this effort?

A conversation with a team member from a similar project that failed in the past.

Project Scope statement from the project planning process.

An article from PM Network Magazine

Resource plan from the project planning process

A - Since you were handed a draft project charter the project is still in the initiation phase. Therefore, the only correct answer is talk to a team member from a similar project that failed.

Explanation

A - Since you were handed a draft project charter the project is still in the initiation phase. Therefore, the only correct answer is talk to a team member from a similar project that failed.

18.

All of the following statements concerning the project scope statement are true except:

It is an output of the Verify Scope process.

It describes the project’s deliverables and the work needed to create them.

It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations.

It provides a common understanding of the project’s scope among the project’s stakeholders.

The project scope statement is an output from the Define Scope process. Clearly documenting work that is ‘out of scope’ helps everyone. A typical example is a project may be scoped to develop training
materials for the product being developed, but not to conduct the training. A clear statement that ‘All training will be undertaken by others and is outside of the scope of this project’ prevents stakeholders expecting the project team will undertake the initial training or ‘train-the-trainer’ training. If these requirements are needed, they can be brought into the project’s scope through a change management process.

Explanation

The project scope statement is an output from the Define Scope process. Clearly documenting work that is ‘out of scope’ helps everyone. A typical example is a project may be scoped to develop training
materials for the product being developed, but not to conduct the training. A clear statement that ‘All training will be undertaken by others and is outside of the scope of this project’ prevents stakeholders expecting the project team will undertake the initial training or ‘train-the-trainer’ training. If these requirements are needed, they can be brought into the project’s scope through a change management process.

19. You have a schedule activity that can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any subsequent activities. This is an example of?

Free Float

Lead Float

Total Float

Lag Float

A - The question given is the definition of free float.

Explanation

A - The question given is the definition of free float.

20.

The project charter has all of the following characteristics except:

Its primary use is to authorise the start of a project or phase.

It provides the project manager with authority to apply resources and expend money on project activities.

Its primary use is to request bids or proposals for the work it defines.

Statements of work (SOW) and other procurement documents are used to request bids or proposals. The work of creating the project charter can be delegated to the project manager; however, the charter should be signed by the person responsible for authorising the project.

Explanation

Statements of work (SOW) and other procurement documents are used to request bids or proposals. The work of creating the project charter can be delegated to the project manager; however, the charter should be signed by the person responsible for authorising the project.

21. Which of these statements is true?

The cost of correcting mistakes through an inspection is much lesser than the cost of preventing them.

The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.

B - This is one of the basic tenets of project and quality management. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.

Explanation

B - This is one of the basic tenets of project and quality management. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.

22. A project manager is managing a project where there are teams located in remote locations in order to obtain cost savings. This is in line with organizational guidelines which require that at least 25% of work should be done from a remote location. This is an example of:

A constraint

A necessity

A choice

An assumption

A - This is an example of a constraint. Constraints are factors that can limit the project management team's options. An organizational mandate requiring that a certain part of the team operate from a different location to obtain cost savings is a constraint that the project management team needs to incorporate into their planning.

Explanation

A - This is an example of a constraint. Constraints are factors that can limit the project management team's options. An organizational mandate requiring that a certain part of the team operate from a different location to obtain cost savings is a constraint that the project management team needs to incorporate into their planning.

23. You are working on an upgrade to a call distribution system for a call center, however you are finding it extremely difficult to get the proper resources assigned and tasks completed because the Call Center Manager is in control of the budget. You have just realized that you work in what type of an organization?

Balanced Matrix

Functional

Strong Matrix

Projectized

B - The functional manager, in this case, the Call Center Manager, controls the budget in Functional and Weak Matrix organizations.

Explanation

B - The functional manager, in this case, the Call Center Manager, controls the budget in Functional and Weak Matrix organizations.

24. Which of the following is not a Project Time Management process?

Source Activities

Estimate Activity Resources

Define Activities

Sequence Activities

A - The Project Time Management processes include Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity resources, Estimate Activity durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.

Explanation

A - The Project Time Management processes include Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity resources, Estimate Activity durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.

25.

The cost of quality includes all of the following except:

Buying professional indemnity insurance.

The cost of defects and rework caused by failing to achieve requirements.

The cost of inspecting and appraising conforming products produced by the project.

Preventing non-conformance to requirements.

Buying insurance is a risk transference process (the risk is transferred to the insurer).
The cost of quality (COQ) is the direct costs incurred in prevention, inspection and repairs.

Explanation

Buying insurance is a risk transference process (the risk is transferred to the insurer).
The cost of quality (COQ) is the direct costs incurred in prevention, inspection and repairs.

26. Which of the following processes deals with maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes for incorporation into the project management plan?

Perform Integrated Change Control

Direct and Manage Project Execution

Develop Project Management Plan

Monitor and Control Project Work

A - Maintaining the integrity of baselines is done in the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This process is conducted from project inception through project completion.

Explanation

A - Maintaining the integrity of baselines is done in the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This process is conducted from project inception through project completion.

27. You are managing a fund raising golf tournament that has a hole-in-one contest. However, your company can't afford to pay the $1,000,000 if someone does get a hole in one, so they have elected to take out an insurance policy in the event that someone does get lucky. This is an example of?

Sharing

Mitigation

Transference

Avoidance

C - The use of insurance to shift the negative impact of a risk, in this case the payment of $1,000,000 is an example of transference.

Explanation

C - The use of insurance to shift the negative impact of a risk, in this case the payment of $1,000,000 is an example of transference.

28. A large construction project for a logistics company will require the expenditure of a large amount of capital. The finance group works with the project manager to project set limits when expenses will be incurred in a given project, and determine if there are ways to smooth out or levelize the spending to avoid a single large expenditure one quarter and none the next. This is an example of:

Levelized Billing

Funding Limit Reconciliation

A financial review

Rescheduling

B - Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are usually undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore, the expenditure of funds is reconciled with the funding limits set by the customer or performing organization on the disbursement of funds for the project.

Explanation

B - Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are usually undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore, the expenditure of funds is reconciled with the funding limits set by the customer or performing organization on the disbursement of funds for the project.

29. Indicating the need for catering services to be provided to consultants during the entire first month of a special event can be noted on the schedule with a _____________

Critical resources

Hammock Activity

Direct activity

Resource Identifier

B - A broader more comprehensive summary activity is sometimes referred to as a hammock activity, and extends over an entire segment of a project.

Explanation

B - A broader more comprehensive summary activity is sometimes referred to as a hammock activity, and extends over an entire segment of a project.

30. A project manager determines that there are 15 communication channels in the project. The number of stakeholders in the project must then be:

15 stakeholders

6 stakeholders

8 stakeholders

105 stakeholders

B - The correct answer is 6. The number of channels = n(n-1)/2 where n is the number of stakeholders. The answer cannot be 105 since the number of stakeholders will be less than the communication channels. The option 15 is eliminated since it is the same as the number of stake holders. Options remaining are 6 and 8. Calculating with 6 gives 6 X 5 / 2 = 15 and with 8 gives 8 X 7 /2 = 28. So the answer is 6.

Explanation

B - The correct answer is 6. The number of channels = n(n-1)/2 where n is the number of stakeholders. The answer cannot be 105 since the number of stakeholders will be less than the communication channels. The option 15 is eliminated since it is the same as the number of stake holders. Options remaining are 6 and 8. Calculating with 6 gives 6 X 5 / 2 = 15 and with 8 gives 8 X 7 /2 = 28. So the answer is 6.

31. There are a number of risks that have been identified in your project, however the team has elected not to change the project plan to deal with the risk, but they have established a contingency reserve of money in the event some of these risks are triggered. This is an example of what type of risk mitigation technique?

Contingent Response Strategy

Active acceptance

Passive acceptance

Avoidance

B - Recognizing the risk and not changing the plan, but making some contingencies in the event the risk is triggered is an example of active acceptance. Passive acceptance would be if no contingencies were put in place and avoidance would be correct if the project plan were modified.

Explanation

B - Recognizing the risk and not changing the plan, but making some contingencies in the event the risk is triggered is an example of active acceptance. Passive acceptance would be if no contingencies were put in place and avoidance would be correct if the project plan were modified.

32.

Which calculation is correct for the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

AC + (BAC – EV)

(BAC - EV)/(BAC - AC)

BAC/CPIcum

(BAC - EV)/(EAC - AC)

TCPI is the projection of the future cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to achieve a management goal such as the original Budget At Completion (BAC) or a calculated Estimate
At Completion (EAC)

Explanation

TCPI is the projection of the future cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to achieve a management goal such as the original Budget At Completion (BAC) or a calculated Estimate
At Completion (EAC)

33.

Analogous estimating when applied to a duration is:

Based on expert judgement and is consequently more accurate than standard critical path estimating.

Used when there is a limited amount of detailed information available.

A calculation based on a three point estimate using a modified BETA distribution.

The same as ‘bottom up’ estimating.

Analogous estimating uses the duration from a similar completed activity or project as the basis for the current estimate. This is a ‘top down’ estimating technique used when there is little detailed information available.

Explanation

Analogous estimating uses the duration from a similar completed activity or project as the basis for the current estimate. This is a ‘top down’ estimating technique used when there is little detailed information available.

34. The following text is an example of ___________________. "WBS Element 2.3.1.8. - System Deployment Testing Planning - This element includes the effort to identify requirements for and methodology of testing systems to be deployed."

A resource breakdown structure

A scope baseline

A bill of materials

A WBS dictionary entry

D - The WBS dictionary is a companion document to the WBS. The detailed content of the components contained in the WBS, including work packages and control accounts, can be described in the WBS dictionary.

Explanation

D - The WBS dictionary is a companion document to the WBS. The detailed content of the components contained in the WBS, including work packages and control accounts, can be described in the WBS dictionary.

35. Throughout various project meetings you have documented differences in opinion, situations to be investigated and emerging or unanticipated responsibilities. These are all inputs to what document?

RACI Chart

Issue Log

Risk Register

Project Performance Appraisals

B - These are all inputs to an issue log. The issue log is a written document and helps address obstacles that can prevent the team from achieving its goals.

Explanation

B - These are all inputs to an issue log. The issue log is a written document and helps address obstacles that can prevent the team from achieving its goals.

36.

Integrated Change Control includes all of the following tools and techniques except:

Project plan updates.

Expert judgement.

Change control meetings.

A change control board to approve or reject changes.

Integrated Change Control is a process that ensures all changes to a project are identified, documented, evaluated, approved or rejected, and incorporated into the project plan. It involves tools and techniques such as expert judgment, change control meetings, and a change control board. However, project plan updates are not considered a tool or technique of Integrated Change Control. Instead, project plan updates are an output of the Integrated Change Control process, as they reflect the approved changes and their impact on the project plan.

Explanation

Integrated Change Control is a process that ensures all changes to a project are identified, documented, evaluated, approved or rejected, and incorporated into the project plan. It involves tools and techniques such as expert judgment, change control meetings, and a change control board. However, project plan updates are not considered a tool or technique of Integrated Change Control. Instead, project plan updates are an output of the Integrated Change Control process, as they reflect the approved changes and their impact on the project plan.

37. You are a project manager for your company. Part of the project requires producing 10,000 widgets, which your company will outsource. The company has agreed to pay all related costs and 5% of the estimated project costs. What type of contract has been negotiated?

Time and Material contract

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract

Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract

Fixed-price contract

B - This is an example of a Cost-Plus- Fixed-Fee contract. This type of contract determines the profit element as a fixed percentage of the estimated project cost.

Explanation

B - This is an example of a Cost-Plus- Fixed-Fee contract. This type of contract determines the profit element as a fixed percentage of the estimated project cost.

38. You are a consulting project manager and are reviewing the scope of your project and realize that several requirements are not measurable. However ,they are tied to milestone payments you will receive for work on this project.What is the best way to handle this?

A. Delete the requirements in question. if a requirement in not measurable, it is not valid

B. Notify project stakeholders that the requirements have not been elaborated adequately,and must be reviewed by the team?

C. Request a contract modification on the basis of invalid requirements.

D. Modify the text of the requirements yourself.If a requirement is not measurable ,it is not valid.

B - Project stakeholders must be notified; not only must a requirement be measurable to be valid,it must also meet stakeholder satisfaction. Unilaterally modifying or deleting a requirement ,or requesting a contract change to remove ties to invalid requirements to ensure payment does not necessarily result in stakeholder satisfaction. In this case it also represents a possible conflict of interest between the project manager and the best interests of hiring company. The code of ethics requires practitioners to uphold standards of fairness, honesty, and to put the interests of the project ahead of those of the project manager. [Reference - PMBOK 4th Edition, page 111 & PMI Code of ethics and professional conduct,page 2-5] [Prof. Responsibility]

Explanation

B - Project stakeholders must be notified; not only must a requirement be measurable to be valid,it must also meet stakeholder satisfaction. Unilaterally modifying or deleting a requirement ,or requesting a contract change to remove ties to invalid requirements to ensure payment does not necessarily result in stakeholder satisfaction. In this case it also represents a possible conflict of interest between the project manager and the best interests of hiring company. The code of ethics requires practitioners to uphold standards of fairness, honesty, and to put the interests of the project ahead of those of the project manager. [Reference - PMBOK 4th Edition, page 111 & PMI Code of ethics and professional conduct,page 2-5] [Prof. Responsibility]

39. Breaking down project deliverables into smaller components is called:

Work breakdown structure

Deconstruction

Tasking

Decomposition

D - Decomposition is the subdivision of project deliverables into smaller more manageable components, until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level.

Explanation

D - Decomposition is the subdivision of project deliverables into smaller more manageable components, until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level.

40. Your company is way behind schedule in the deployment of a government mandated change to a health care processing system that must be in production by the end of the year. You and your team have met and decided to hire an additional 50 programmers to work with the existing staff on the activities in order to meet the due date. This is an example of what?

Resource Leveling

Fast Tracking

Crashing

Risk Transference

C - Crashing is a specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. Typical approaches for crashing a schedule include reducing activity durations and increasing the assignment of resources.

Explanation

C - Crashing is a specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. Typical approaches for crashing a schedule include reducing activity durations and increasing the assignment of resources.

41.

The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics except:

It is a technique to reduce bias and prevent any one person from exerting undue influence.

It is a way to reach a consensus of experts.

It is an Oracle® database application used to optimise future outcomes.

Individual experts are unaware of who else is participating in the process.

The Delphi technique is a facilitated process to reach a consensus of experts using questions and feedback. Only the facilitator is aware of who is participating.

Explanation

The Delphi technique is a facilitated process to reach a consensus of experts using questions and feedback. Only the facilitator is aware of who is participating.

42. You are negotiating a contract with a seller. You want to go in for a Fixed price type of contract. The seller uses a different terminology for the fixed price type of contract. He is most probably referring to it as a:

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract

A Time and material contract

Lump sum contract

Cost-Plus-Fee contract

C - A fixed price contract is synonymous with a lump sum contract. This type of contract involves a fixed total price or a lump sum for a well-defined product.

Explanation

C - A fixed price contract is synonymous with a lump sum contract. This type of contract involves a fixed total price or a lump sum for a well-defined product.

43. Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called____________.

A schedule network analysis

An arrow diagram

A backward pass

A forward pass

C - Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called a backward pass.

Explanation

C - Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called a backward pass.

44.

The code of accounts:

Is the system used to keep track of purchases and contracts.

Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure.

Links the work breakdown structure to the schedule task identifier.

Is the alpha-numeric reference used in the organisations accounts system to identify cost centres.

The chart of accounts refers to the accounting system, the code of accounts to the WBS. Whilst these should be linked, they are not the same.

Explanation

The chart of accounts refers to the accounting system, the code of accounts to the WBS. Whilst these should be linked, they are not the same.

45. The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all others?

Talk to the customer about the impact of the change

Change the risk management plan

Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate

Analyze the impacts of the change with the team

D - The first thing you should always do is assess the impact of the change with the team, then determine options and then go to management.

Explanation

D - The first thing you should always do is assess the impact of the change with the team, then determine options and then go to management.

46. All of the following processes form part of the Executing process group except:

Performing activities in accordance with the project management plan.

Managing changes to the deliverables.

Completing the work in accordance with the defined quality framework and specification.

Coordinating people and resources.

Managing changes is part of Integrated Change Control; this is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group.

Explanation

Managing changes is part of Integrated Change Control; this is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group.

47.

All of the following people developed management theories focused on motivation except:

Maslow.

McGregor.

Hertzberg.

Deming.

W. Edwards Deming is a quality guru.

Explanation

W. Edwards Deming is a quality guru.

48.

All of the following are true concerning expected monetary value (EMV) except:

Decision tree analysis is more effective using net present values (NPV) in its calculations rather than EMV.

The EMV of an opportunity is generally a positive value.

The EMV of a threat is generally a negative value.

EMV is calculated by EMV = probability * impact.
If there are several different possibilities, the EMV is calculated for each option and the EMVs added together to give an overall, value.

Explanation

EMV is calculated by EMV = probability * impact.
If there are several different possibilities, the EMV is calculated for each option and the EMVs added together to give an overall, value.

49. The Stakeholder Committee has been given a report that shows zero schedule variance. However, the first milestone in the project was missed, and will cause a delay in the project. What type of item was not reported correctly?

Resource management plan

Risk analysis

Critical path status

Communications plan variance

C - The critical path is the sequence of schedule activities that determines the duration of the project.

Explanation

C - The critical path is the sequence of schedule activities that determines the duration of the project.

50. The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to:

Forecast future performance based on past performance

Calculate the number of days left in the project

Calculate the value provided to the customer

Calculate the profitability of the project

A - The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to forecast future performance based on past performance.

Explanation

A - The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to forecast future performance based on past performance.

51.

The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows:

The connections between activities and project team members.

The delegation of responsibility through the hierarchically organised management structure.

Accountabilities to assist in team performance appraisals.

The sequence of activities a named resource is responsible for accomplishing.

The RAM chart is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members.

Explanation

The RAM chart is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members.

52. The key difference between Verify Scope and Perform Quality Control is:

Verify Scope is concerned with meeting the quality standards specified.

Verify Scope is concerned with the acceptance of deliverables.

Verify Scope does not apply in projects that have been cancelled.

Verify Scope can never be performed in parallel with quality control.

B - Verify Scope differs from Perform Quality Control in that Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the deliverables, while Perform Quality Control is primarily concerned with meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.

Explanation

B - Verify Scope differs from Perform Quality Control in that Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the deliverables, while Perform Quality Control is primarily concerned with meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.

53. As part of the Close Procurements process, the project manager prepared a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, to include with the final project files. This is called a:

Procurement file

Documentation file

Closure report

Closure file

A - This detailed set of documentation is called a Procurement file

Explanation

A - This detailed set of documentation is called a Procurement file

54. During your weekly project status meetings your set some time aside on the agenda to review the risk register by looking at all the risks, if the response plans are still appropriate and adding or deleting risks. This is an example of?

Performance Measurement

Trend Analysis

Risk Reassessment

Risk Audit

C - All of the answers listed are tools/techniques of Monitor and Control Risks. The regular review of your risk register for appropriateness (e.g., responses, identified risks, etc.) is an example of risk reassessment.

Explanation

C - All of the answers listed are tools/techniques of Monitor and Control Risks. The regular review of your risk register for appropriateness (e.g., responses, identified risks, etc.) is an example of risk reassessment.

55. The State of New York has contracted your company to provide a claims payment system for Medicaid benefits. In the contract there is a clause that indicates that the State of New York can review your work processes and deliverables. This is an example of?

Performance Report

Record Management System

Deliverables Checklist

Inspections and Audits

D - When a buyer puts in a contract that they can review work and deliverables it is an example of an inspection and audit.

Explanation

D - When a buyer puts in a contract that they can review work and deliverables it is an example of an inspection and audit.

56. As the project manager of a project, you have needed to estimate certain activity durations before all project team members were acquired. On acquisition of the project team, you find that the actual competency levels of the acquired team members are much lower than what you had anticipated. In such a case, you will:

Make no changes to the schedule.

Ask the project team members to meet the original schedule by putting in overtime if required.

Make changes to activity duration and schedule incorporating the changed competency levels.

Inform the customer that the project is behind schedule.

C - The appropriate action is to make changes to the project schedule and activity durations depending on the actual competency of the team. Asking the project team members to put in overtime or informing the customer that the project is late are too drastic in nature given the stage of the project.

Explanation

C - The appropriate action is to make changes to the project schedule and activity durations depending on the actual competency of the team. Asking the project team members to put in overtime or informing the customer that the project is late are too drastic in nature given the stage of the project.

57. The cost estimates for a project are in the range of +/- 5 %. What phase is the project likely to be in?

Closing phase

Preliminary phase

Initial phase

Intermediate phase

A - The project is likely to be in a closing phase since the range of estimates is quite narrow. Early on in the project, there is less cost information available and the range of estimates is much higher. As the project progresses, the degree of accuracy improves.

Explanation

A - The project is likely to be in a closing phase since the range of estimates is quite narrow. Early on in the project, there is less cost information available and the range of estimates is much higher. As the project progresses, the degree of accuracy improves.

58.

All of the following are true concerning enterprise environmental factors (EEF) except:

EEF do not include the organisations purchasing guidelines because this type of function is managed by the Accounts Department.

EEF include the tools, systems and software that comprise the project management information system (PMIS).

EEF incorporates the organisation’s culture, structure and processes.

EEF include all relevant laws, regulations and standards imposed by all levels of government, industry bodies and society.

EEF refer to both the internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence a project. Purchasing guidelines constrain the project management’s options in respect of acquiring goods and services.

Explanation

EEF refer to both the internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence a project. Purchasing guidelines constrain the project management’s options in respect of acquiring goods and services.

59. Administrative closure involves all the activities in a step-by-step manner to satisfy various completion and exit criteria for the project. This is part of which Project M Management Knowledge Area?

Project Communication management

Project Scope Management

Project Integration Management

Project Procurement Management

C - The Administrative Closure activities are part of the Close Project or Phase process under the Project Integration Management knowledge Area.

Explanation

C - The Administrative Closure activities are part of the Close Project or Phase process under the Project Integration Management knowledge Area.

60.

During a meeting with some of your project's stakeholders, you are asked to add to the project's scope of work. The project records contain correspondence from before the Charter was signed in which the project sponsor specifically declined the work being requested by these stakeholders. The BEST thing for you to do is:

Tell the stakeholders the work cannot be added.

Evaluate the cost and time impacts of adding the work.

Add the work if it can be accommodated within the existing budget.

Talk to the sponsor and let her know of the request.

PMI expects the project manager to manage! The best thing to do first is try to resolve the problem with the stakeholders. Only is that fails should the problem be escalated to the sponsor.

Explanation

PMI expects the project manager to manage! The best thing to do first is try to resolve the problem with the stakeholders. Only is that fails should the problem be escalated to the sponsor.

61.

All of the following statements are true about product and project life cycles except:

Generally a product lifecycle is contained within a project lifecycle.

A project life cycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of phases that may be sequential or overlapping.

A product lifecycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of sequential phases.

Generally a project lifecycle is contained within a product lifecycle.

Products are created, marketed, upgraded and eventually retired or decommissioned. The phases are determined by the organisation. Projects are used to create the product, upgrade the product and
potentially decommission the product. Projects typically fit within or form one phase of the overall product lifecycle. The phases of a project’s lifecycle (eg, design, build, install) are different to the ‘project management phases’ discussed in the PMBOK; project management phases are synonymous with the five process groups. The five process groups (initiate, plan, execute, monitor & control, and close) occur at different levels of intensity in each project, and each phase of a project.

Explanation

Products are created, marketed, upgraded and eventually retired or decommissioned. The phases are determined by the organisation. Projects are used to create the product, upgrade the product and
potentially decommission the product. Projects typically fit within or form one phase of the overall product lifecycle. The phases of a project’s lifecycle (eg, design, build, install) are different to the ‘project management phases’ discussed in the PMBOK; project management phases are synonymous with the five process groups. The five process groups (initiate, plan, execute, monitor & control, and close) occur at different levels of intensity in each project, and each phase of a project.

62. Bottom-up Cost estimating is typically motivated by the size and complexity of:

The project management software

The statistical relationship between historical data and other variables.

The project budget.

The individual schedule activity or work package

D - Bottom-up estimating involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail. Generally activities with smaller associated effort increase the accuracy of the schedule activity cost estimates.

Explanation

D - Bottom-up estimating involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail. Generally activities with smaller associated effort increase the accuracy of the schedule activity cost estimates.

63. On a control chart, a source of variation that is not inherent in the system, is not predictable and is intermittent is called a:

Normal Cause

Specific Cause

Common Cause

Special Cause

D - These types of causes are called Special causes.

Explanation

D - These types of causes are called Special causes.

64. The project manager controls the interfacing and overlapping areas of the organization's procurement processes, and the project schedule with processes from this area:

Project Human Resource Management

Project Scope Management

Project Risk Management

Project Integration Management

D - Project Integration Management includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project management process groups.

Explanation

D - Project Integration Management includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project management process groups.

65.

As part of a successful communication, the receiver is responsible for:

Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and acknowledged.

Making sure the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly and acknowledged.

Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and agreed with.

Listening actively to ensure all of the information is received.

Communication can be written or oral, therefore ‘d’ is not the best answer. Both the sender and receiver need to use active listening if the communication is oral. The sender is responsible for making sure the information is clear and complete, not the receiver. For a communication to be successful the receiver needs to acknowledge its receipt to the sender, the receiver does not have to agree with the information.

Explanation

Communication can be written or oral, therefore ‘d’ is not the best answer. Both the sender and receiver need to use active listening if the communication is oral. The sender is responsible for making sure the information is clear and complete, not the receiver. For a communication to be successful the receiver needs to acknowledge its receipt to the sender, the receiver does not have to agree with the information.

66.

Co-location is one of the techniques used to:

Ensure effective control over the work of the project team.

Develop the project team.

Define the organisation structure.

Acquire the project team.

Co-location involves placing the active project team members in one location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. This is one of the tools and techniques listed in the Develop Project Team process.

Explanation

Co-location involves placing the active project team members in one location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. This is one of the tools and techniques listed in the Develop Project Team process.

67. The Quality Policy is the intended direction of a performing organization with regard to quality. As a project manager in a performing organization, you find that the organization lacks a formal quality policy. What should be done in such a case?

The project management team need not develop a quality policy since the performing organization does not have one.

The project management team needs to obtain the quality policy from the customer.

A quality policy is a 'nice-to-have' and is not required for every project.

The project management team will need to develop a quality policy for the project.

D - The project management team will need to develop a quality policy for the project if the performing organization does not have a formal policy. It is also the responsibility of the project management team to ensure that the project stakeholders are fully aware of the policy.

Explanation

D - The project management team will need to develop a quality policy for the project if the performing organization does not have a formal policy. It is also the responsibility of the project management team to ensure that the project stakeholders are fully aware of the policy.

68. A decision tree is a Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis technique that is structured around using a Decision Tree Diagram. It describes a situation under consideration and the implications of each of the available choices and the possible scenarios. A Decision Tree Diagram shows how to make a decision between alternative capital strategies known as:

Alternative nodes

Questionpoints

Decision nodes

Checkpoints

C - The decision points are known as Decision nodes. The decision tree incorporates the cost of each available choice, the possibilities of each of the available choices and possible scenarios. It shows how to make a decision between alternative capital strategies (decision node) when the environment is not known with certainty.

Explanation

C - The decision points are known as Decision nodes. The decision tree incorporates the cost of each available choice, the possibilities of each of the available choices and possible scenarios. It shows how to make a decision between alternative capital strategies (decision node) when the environment is not known with certainty.

69.

Project management process groups have all of the following characteristics except:

The process groups are seldom one time, discrete events; they are overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.

Where a project is divided into phases, the process groups are invoked as appropriate.

The process groups are linked by the outputs they produce.

Whilst all of the process groups should occur in each project at an appropriate level of intensity, ALL of the processes and interactions within and between process groups are not required on every project or in every phase of a project.

Explanation

Whilst all of the process groups should occur in each project at an appropriate level of intensity, ALL of the processes and interactions within and between process groups are not required on every project or in every phase of a project.

70. Anne is the project manager of a project. She has evaluated certain responses from prospective sellers and wants to select a contract model which will transfer risk to the seller. Which of the following should she select in order to achieve this?

Time and Material contract

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract

Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract

Fixed price contract

D - A Fixed price contract allows the buyer to transfer risk to the seller.

Explanation

D - A Fixed price contract allows the buyer to transfer risk to the seller.

71. As a project manager, you are concerned with both Prevention and Inspection of errors in a work product. The difference between Prevention and Inspection is:

Inspection and Prevention refer to the same activity depending on what stage of the project the activity is done.

C - Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

Explanation

C - Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

72. The project manager of a long term project to develop a new medical device waits to include the details of later phase deliverables on the WBS until such time as those deliverables are more clearly defined. This is an example of:

Iterative planning

Balanced planning

Deferred planning

Rolling wave planning

D - Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far into the future. The project management team usually waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified so the details of the WBS can be developed. This technique is sometimes referred to as rolling wave planning.

Explanation

D - Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far into the future. The project management team usually waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified so the details of the WBS can be developed. This technique is sometimes referred to as rolling wave planning.

73. Defense Dynamics has been awarded a fixed price project to design and build a military cargo jet. The design team is looking at ways to increase the cargo capacity of the plane while keeping manufacturing costs and the fuel efficiency of the final product within specific limits. The engineers on this team have identified factors that affect capacity, costs, and fuel efficiency and have created a statistical model of how these factors impact each other. The outcome of this model is a design with the highest cargo capacity and fuel efficiency at the lowest cost possible. What type of mathematical model is this called?

Outcome-based Hypothesis

Basis Benchmarking

Cost of Quality

Design of Experiments

D - Design of Experiments is a statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production

Explanation

D - Design of Experiments is a statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production

74. Fill in the blank: ______________ includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

Statement of Work

Project Time Management

Project Scope Management

Work breakdown structure

C - Project scope management is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

Explanation

C - Project scope management is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

75. For many procurement items, the procuring organization can either prepare its own independent estimates or have an estimate of costs prepared by an outside professional estimator. This estimate serves as a:

Potential-cost estimate

Expected-cost estimate

Benchmark estimate

Must-cost estimate

C - This serves as a benchmark estimate. Significant differences in estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient or the prospective sellers either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the procurement statement of work.[

Explanation

C - This serves as a benchmark estimate. Significant differences in estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient or the prospective sellers either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the procurement statement of work.[

76. A construction project requires that governmental environmental hearings be held prior to site preparation. What kind of a dependency is this?

Mandatory dependency

Discretionary dependency

Soft logic

External dependency

D - This is called an external dependency. It involves a relationship between project and non-project activities (for example: governmental environmental hearings).

Explanation

D - This is called an external dependency. It involves a relationship between project and non-project activities (for example: governmental environmental hearings).

77.

A procurement audit will consider all of the following except:

The changes in market conditions between the contract date and the current time.

Any successes or failures in the process that warrant recognition.

The complete procurement process from initial planning through to the administration of the procurement.

Any lessons learned that can be applied to future procurement processes.

PMBOK audits are focused on process improvement. They review how the system is working to learn lessons to apply to future procurements both within the project and on other projects within the
organisation.

Explanation

PMBOK audits are focused on process improvement. They review how the system is working to learn lessons to apply to future procurements both within the project and on other projects within the
organisation.

78.

The Control Costs process includes all of the following except:

Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated costs.

Influencing factors that create changes in the authorised cost baseline.

Developing the cost performance baseline.

Acting to bring expected cost overruns within acceptable limits.

Developing the cost performance baseline is part of the Determine Budget process. All of the other options are listed as inclusions in the Control Costs process.

Explanation

Developing the cost performance baseline is part of the Determine Budget process. All of the other options are listed as inclusions in the Control Costs process.

79. Select the best answer: Continuous process improvement reduces _____ and , which allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness.

Process and policy overhead.

Departmental and organization processes

Cost and scope

Waste and non-value added activities.

D - Continuous process improvement reduces waste and non-value-added activities, which allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness.

Explanation

D - Continuous process improvement reduces waste and non-value-added activities, which allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness.

80. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use promotes and reinforces desired behaviors in the project. Creating a plan with established times for rewards ensures that recognition takes place and is not forgotten. This is usually part of the:

Project Dashboard

Company HR plan

Communications Management Plan

Staffing Management Plan

D - The plan for rewards and recognition is part of the Staffing Management plan. The recognition and rewards are developed as part of the Develop Human Resources Plan process.

Explanation

D - The plan for rewards and recognition is part of the Staffing Management plan. The recognition and rewards are developed as part of the Develop Human Resources Plan process.

81. Costs incurred in one area of a project can offset costs in another area of the same project. However, it is not the best practice to consider only the costs of project execution when making project decisions. What must also be considered?

Return on Investment

Total Cost of Ownership

Project Lifecycle Costs

Environmental Impact

C - Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete schedule activities. However, Project Cost Management should also consider the effect of project decisions on the cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the product, service or result of the project.

Explanation

C - Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete schedule activities. However, Project Cost Management should also consider the effect of project decisions on the cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the product, service or result of the project.

82.

Which of the following represent a discretionary dependency?

Not starting design until all of the approvals have been received.

Waiting the specified 72 hours before stripping formwork from a newly poured concrete slab.

Applying a start-to-start link between two tasks in a PDM network.

Applying a lag of 4 days between two tasks.

Any link between two tasks (or activities) may be discretionary or mandatory. The link types in a Precedence network (PDM) are:
- Finish-to-start
- Start-to-start
- Finish-to-finish
- Start-to-finish.
A lead or a lag may be applied to any of the link types.

Explanation

Any link between two tasks (or activities) may be discretionary or mandatory. The link types in a Precedence network (PDM) are:
- Finish-to-start
- Start-to-start
- Finish-to-finish
- Start-to-finish.
A lead or a lag may be applied to any of the link types.

83. Project performance appraisals are different from team performance assessment in that project performance appraisals focus on?

Reducing staff turnover

A Team building effort

How an individual team member is performing on the project.

An evaluation of the project team's effectiveness

C - Project performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing work, rather than how well the team is working together.

Explanation

C - Project performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing work, rather than how well the team is working together.

84. Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore the expenditure of funds is frequently reconciled with the disbursement of funds for the project. This is known as:

Disbursement reconciliation

Expenditure Reconciliation

Budget Reconciliation

Funding Limit Reconciliation

D - This is known as Funding Limit reconciliation. This will necessitate the scheduling of work to be adjusted to smooth or regulate those expenditures.

Explanation

D - This is known as Funding Limit reconciliation. This will necessitate the scheduling of work to be adjusted to smooth or regulate those expenditures.

85. A summary milestone schedule would normally be part of which document?

Project sign-off document

Project charter

Project requirements document

Project scope statement

B - The summary milestone schedule is normally included as part of the project charter which documents the business need, understanding of customer's needs and other high-level items.

Explanation

B - The summary milestone schedule is normally included as part of the project charter which documents the business need, understanding of customer's needs and other high-level items.

86. Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. They often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until the foundation has been built. This type of dependency is also called:

Soft logic

Unilateral dependency

Fixed logic

Hard logic

D - Mandatory dependencies are also referred to as hard logic.

Explanation

D - Mandatory dependencies are also referred to as hard logic.

87.

The processes included in project communication management are:

Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Expectations and Report Performance.

Identify Stakeholders, Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.

Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.

Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Update Project Documentation and Report Performance.

This is a common type of question. Collect Requirements is a Scope Management process. Update project documentation is an output from a range of processes.

Explanation

This is a common type of question. Collect Requirements is a Scope Management process. Update project documentation is an output from a range of processes.

88.

Leadership in a project environment should demonstrate all of the following characteristics except:

The focusing of the efforts of a group of people on achieving a common objective.

High levels of respect and trust.

The ability to get things done through others.

Whilst managing upwards (or advising upwards) is a key skill of the project manager, it is not the primary focus of leadership.

Explanation

Whilst managing upwards (or advising upwards) is a key skill of the project manager, it is not the primary focus of leadership.

89. While rating a proposal, one of the requirements was "The proposed project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional, PMP® " This is an example of:

Constraints

Evaluation Criteria

Assumptions

Requirements

B - This is an example of an evaluation criterion used to rate or score proposals.

Explanation

B - This is an example of an evaluation criterion used to rate or score proposals.

90.

A Pareto diagram shows:

The 80% of the work that is important.

The qualitative improvement trend demonstrated by implementing a Six Sigma initiative.

A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence.

The 20% of the work that is causing the most issues.

A Pareto diagram is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence.It is used to show how many defects were generated by each category of identified cause to allow remedial action to be focussed on the most significant.

Explanation

A Pareto diagram is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence.It is used to show how many defects were generated by each category of identified cause to allow remedial action to be focussed on the most significant.

91. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) dictionary supports the WBS and is a companion document to the WBS. Which of the following is not included in the WBS dictionary?

List of schedule milestones

Resource assigned

Contract Information

Code of Account Identifier

B - Resource assignments are not part of the WBS dictionary.

Explanation

B - Resource assignments are not part of the WBS dictionary.

92. A special cause may also be referred to as:

Foreign cause

Assignable cause

Atypical cause

Normal cause

B - A special cause is also referred to as an assignable cause.

Explanation

B - A special cause is also referred to as an assignable cause.

93. A manager asked to see a list of milestones in the project. This would be available as an output from the:

Sequence Activities phase

Define Scope phase

Estimate Activity Durations

Define Activities phase

D - The list of milestones is available as an output from the Define Activities phase.

Explanation

D - The list of milestones is available as an output from the Define Activities phase.

94. You are setting up your team for the project you are currently working on and you are looking at a chart that shows the programming will be performed by Systems Development, the infrastructure will be implemented by Infrastructure Systems, the customer communication will be handled by the call center. This is an example of what type of chart?

RACI

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

Work Breakdown Structure

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

B - A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged so as to relate the work packages to performing organizational units is an example of Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

Explanation

B - A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged so as to relate the work packages to performing organizational units is an example of Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

95. Analysis of project spending against project budget and calculating the percentage complete of tasks currently underway are examples of:

Delivery management

Earned value

Work performance information

Baseline variance

C - Information on the status of the project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is routinely collected as part of the project management plan execution.

Explanation

C - Information on the status of the project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is routinely collected as part of the project management plan execution.

96.

All of the following are true of cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contracts, except:

The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs incurred performing the contract work.

The seller receives a fixed fee calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project cost.

The fee does not change based on the performance of the seller.

The seller receives a fee calculated as a fixed percentage of the actual project cost.

CPFF contracts pay a fixed fee to the seller based on the initial estimated value of the work. The only time the fee will change is if the buyer changes the scope of the work.

Explanation

CPFF contracts pay a fixed fee to the seller based on the initial estimated value of the work. The only time the fee will change is if the buyer changes the scope of the work.

97. Jack is the project manager of a project and is looking at the schedule of work. He adjusts a few of the schedule milestones and imposes date constraints for some of the work packages. The most likely reason that may need him to do this is:

Many of the work packages have been completed and he wants to change the dates on subsequent ones.

His manager has requested him to change the milestone dates.

To allow time for a project status presentation.

To regulate expenditure of funds so that they can be reconciled against the disbursement of funds for the project.

D - Reconciliation of the funding limits is a key reason why scheduling of work may need to be adjusted to smooth or regulate expenditures in relation to the disbursement of funds for the project.

Explanation

D - Reconciliation of the funding limits is a key reason why scheduling of work may need to be adjusted to smooth or regulate expenditures in relation to the disbursement of funds for the project.

98.

A binding contract is legally created when:

The formal contract documents are signed by your senior management.

When your legal department advises the contract is acceptable.

The formal contract documents are signed by official representatives of both parties.

There is an offer, acceptance, performance and consideration.

Contracts do not have to be in writing or signed. Whilst it is difficult to enforce the terms of a verbal contracts the law will recognise the validity of the agreement.
The four basic requirements for a contract are:
- Someone makes an offer to do something,
- The offer is accepted unconditionally,
- There is an intention or actual performance of the offer,
- There is an intention or actual transfer of a valuable consideration
(the consideration does not have to be money, just of value).

Explanation

Contracts do not have to be in writing or signed. Whilst it is difficult to enforce the terms of a verbal contracts the law will recognise the validity of the agreement.
The four basic requirements for a contract are:
- Someone makes an offer to do something,
- The offer is accepted unconditionally,
- There is an intention or actual performance of the offer,
- There is an intention or actual transfer of a valuable consideration
(the consideration does not have to be money, just of value).

99.

The basic decision making styles normally used by project managers include all of the following except:

Coin flip (random).

Command.

Consultation.

Rational choice theory

Rational choice theory is a framework for understanding and often formally modelling social and economic behaviour. The 4 options in the PMBOK are command, consultation, consensus and coin flip. Coin flip is used when it really does not matter which option is chosen as long as there is a decision (eg, should we meet at McDonald’s or Burger King for lunch).

Explanation

Rational choice theory is a framework for understanding and often formally modelling social and economic behaviour. The 4 options in the PMBOK are command, consultation, consensus and coin flip. Coin flip is used when it really does not matter which option is chosen as long as there is a decision (eg, should we meet at McDonald’s or Burger King for lunch).

100. As part of the Plan Quality process, you create a document which describes the purpose, start and end of processes, their inputs, outputs, data required and the owner and stakeholders of processes. This is called a:

Process metric

Process configuration

Process chart

Process boundary

D - This is called a Process boundary and increases value to the customer by facilitating the identification of waste and non-value added activity.

Explanation

D - This is called a Process boundary and increases value to the customer by facilitating the identification of waste and non-value added activity.

Full Length PMP Simulation Test 4

1. Which of the following is Deming's formula for continuous improvement?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. The Make-or-Buy analysis is a technique that is used as part of the Plan Procurements process. It is used to determine whether a particular product or service can be produced by the project team or should be purchased. The analysis to arrive at a decision should include:

5. You are just starting on a project as project manager. The project sponsor indicates to you that she would like to have a monthly Project Status meeting to review the progress of the project. She would also like to receive weekly status updates by email. These requirements are documented in the:

6. The formula for Cost Variance is:

7. Megamart is estimating the cost of a new ERP system using the costs of an earlier ERP system project as the basis for the cost. This is what type of estimating?

8. Which of the following is true concerning the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

9. When managing a complex, cross functional project; which of the following structures will give the project manager the most authority?

10. FPIF is an acronym for:

11. All of the following are characteristics of a project, EXCEPT:

12. Control Schedule is part of which Project Management process group?

13. You are working on a project where a negative risk has occurred. However, you have no contingency plan for this risk. You call a meeting and a solution is devised to change the workflow until a permanent solution can be implemented. This is an example of?

14. Projects are often started as a result of an external factor such as market demand for a new product, a new legislative or regulatory mandate, or a change in technology. This results in the creation of ______ by an entity or organization external to the project organization.

17. Your manager has provided you with a draft project charter and immediately asks you to provide an analysis of the risks on the project. Which of the following would BEST help this effort?

18. All of the following statements concerning the project scope statement are true except:

19. You have a schedule activity that can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any subsequent activities. This is an example of?

20. The project charter has all of the following characteristics except:

21. Which of these statements is true?

22. A project manager is managing a project where there are teams located in remote locations in order to obtain cost savings. This is in line with organizational guidelines which require that at least 25% of work should be done from a remote location. This is an example of:

24. Which of the following is not a Project Time Management process?

25. The cost of quality includes all of the following except:

26. Which of the following processes deals with maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes for incorporation into the project management plan?

27. You are managing a fund raising golf tournament that has a hole-in-one contest. However, your company can't afford to pay the $1,000,000 if someone does get a hole in one, so they have elected to take out an insurance policy in the event that someone does get lucky. This is an example of?

29. Indicating the need for catering services to be provided to consultants during the entire first month of a special event can be noted on the schedule with a _____________

30. A project manager determines that there are 15 communication channels in the project. The number of stakeholders in the project must then be:

32. Which calculation is correct for the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

33. Analogous estimating when applied to a duration is:

34. The following text is an example of ___________________. "WBS Element 2.3.1.8. - System Deployment Testing Planning - This element includes the effort to identify requirements for and methodology of testing systems to be deployed."

35. Throughout various project meetings you have documented differences in opinion, situations to be investigated and emerging or unanticipated responsibilities. These are all inputs to what document?

36. Integrated Change Control includes all of the following tools and techniques except:

37. You are a project manager for your company. Part of the project requires producing 10,000 widgets, which your company will outsource. The company has agreed to pay all related costs and 5% of the estimated project costs. What type of contract has been negotiated?

38. You are a consulting project manager and are reviewing the scope of your project and realize that several requirements are not measurable. However ,they are tied to milestone payments you will receive for work on this project.What is the best way to handle this?

39. Breaking down project deliverables into smaller components is called:

41. The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics except:

42. You are negotiating a contract with a seller. You want to go in for a Fixed price type of contract. The seller uses a different terminology for the fixed price type of contract. He is most probably referring to it as a:

43. Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called____________.

44. The code of accounts:

45. The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all others?

46. All of the following processes form part of the Executing process group except:

47. All of the following people developed management theories focused on motivation except:

48. All of the following are true concerning expected monetary value (EMV) except:

49. The Stakeholder Committee has been given a report that shows zero schedule variance. However, the first milestone in the project was missed, and will cause a delay in the project. What type of item was not reported correctly?

50. The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to:

51. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows:

52. The key difference between Verify Scope and Perform Quality Control is:

53. As part of the Close Procurements process, the project manager prepared a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, to include with the final project files. This is called a:

54. During your weekly project status meetings your set some time aside on the agenda to review the risk register by looking at all the risks, if the response plans are still appropriate and adding or deleting risks. This is an example of?

55. The State of New York has contracted your company to provide a claims payment system for Medicaid benefits. In the contract there is a clause that indicates that the State of New York can review your work processes and deliverables. This is an example of?

57. The cost estimates for a project are in the range of +/- 5 %. What phase is the project likely to be in?

58. All of the following are true concerning enterprise environmental factors (EEF) except:

59. Administrative closure involves all the activities in a step-by-step manner to satisfy various completion and exit criteria for the project. This is part of which Project M Management Knowledge Area?

61. All of the following statements are true about product and project life cycles except:

62. Bottom-up Cost estimating is typically motivated by the size and complexity of:

63. On a control chart, a source of variation that is not inherent in the system, is not predictable and is intermittent is called a:

64. The project manager controls the interfacing and overlapping areas of the organization's procurement processes, and the project schedule with processes from this area:

65. As part of a successful communication, the receiver is responsible for:

66. Co-location is one of the techniques used to:

67. The Quality Policy is the intended direction of a performing organization with regard to quality. As a project manager in a performing organization, you find that the organization lacks a formal quality policy. What should be done in such a case?

69. Project management process groups have all of the following characteristics except:

70. Anne is the project manager of a project. She has evaluated certain responses from prospective sellers and wants to select a contract model which will transfer risk to the seller. Which of the following should she select in order to achieve this?

71. As a project manager, you are concerned with both Prevention and Inspection of errors in a work product. The difference between Prevention and Inspection is:

72. The project manager of a long term project to develop a new medical device waits to include the details of later phase deliverables on the WBS until such time as those deliverables are more clearly defined. This is an example of:

74. Fill in the blank: ______________ includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

75. For many procurement items, the procuring organization can either prepare its own independent estimates or have an estimate of costs prepared by an outside professional estimator. This estimate serves as a:

76. A construction project requires that governmental environmental hearings be held prior to site preparation. What kind of a dependency is this?

77. A procurement audit will consider all of the following except:

78. The Control Costs process includes all of the following except:

79. Select the best answer: Continuous process improvement reduces _____________ and ________, which allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness.

80. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use promotes and reinforces desired behaviors in the project. Creating a plan with established times for rewards ensures that recognition takes place and is not forgotten. This is usually part of the:

81. Costs incurred in one area of a project can offset costs in another area of the same project. However, it is not the best practice to consider only the costs of project execution when making project decisions. What must also be considered?

82. Which of the following represent a discretionary dependency?

83. Project performance appraisals are different from team performance assessment in that project performance appraisals focus on?

84. Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore the expenditure of funds is frequently reconciled with the disbursement of funds for the project. This is known as:

85. A summary milestone schedule would normally be part of which document?

86. Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. They often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until the foundation has been built. This type of dependency is also called:

87. The processes included in project communication management are:

88. Leadership in a project environment should demonstrate all of the following characteristics except:

89. While rating a proposal, one of the requirements was "The proposed project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional, PMP® " This is an example of:

8.

Which of the following is true concerning the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

9.

When managing a complex, cross functional project; which of the following structures will give the project manager the most authority?

10.

FPIF is an acronym for:

18.

All of the following statements concerning the project scope statement are true except:

20.

The project charter has all of the following characteristics except:

25.

The cost of quality includes all of the following except:

32.

Which calculation is correct for the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

33.

Analogous estimating when applied to a duration is:

36.

Integrated Change Control includes all of the following tools and techniques except:

41.

The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics except:

44.

The code of accounts:

47.

All of the following people developed management theories focused on motivation except:

48.

All of the following are true concerning expected monetary value (EMV) except:

51.

The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows:

58.

All of the following are true concerning enterprise environmental factors (EEF) except:

61.

All of the following statements are true about product and project life cycles except:

65.

As part of a successful communication, the receiver is responsible for:

66.

Co-location is one of the techniques used to:

69.

Project management process groups have all of the following characteristics except:

77.

A procurement audit will consider all of the following except:

78.

The Control Costs process includes all of the following except:

79. Select the best answer: Continuous process improvement reduces _____ and , which allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness.

82.

Which of the following represent a discretionary dependency?

87.

The processes included in project communication management are:

88.

Leadership in a project environment should demonstrate all of the following characteristics except:

90.

A Pareto diagram shows:

96.

All of the following are true of cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contracts, except:

98.

A binding contract is legally created when:

99.

The basic decision making styles normally used by project managers include all of the following except: