Full Length PMP Simulation Test 4

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Full Length PMP Simulation Test 4 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All of the following processes form part of the Executing process group except:

    • A.

      Performing activities in accordance with the project management plan.

    • B.

      Managing changes to the deliverables.

    • C.

      Completing the work in accordance with the defined quality framework and specification.

    • D.

      Coordinating people and resources.

    Correct Answer
    B. Managing changes to the deliverables.
    Explanation
    Managing changes is part of Integrated Change Control; this is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group.

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  • 2. 

    Which calculation is correct for the To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

    • A.

      AC + (BAC – EV)

    • B.

      (BAC - EV)/(BAC - AC)

    • C.

      BAC/CPIcum

    • D.

      (BAC - EV)/(EAC - AC)

    Correct Answer
    D. (BAC - EV)/(EAC - AC)
    Explanation
    TCPI is the projection of the future cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to achieve a management goal such as the original Budget At Completion (BAC) or a calculated Estimate
    At Completion (EAC)

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  • 3. 

    A Pareto diagram shows:

    • A.

      The 80% of the work that is important.

    • B.

      The qualitative improvement trend demonstrated by implementing a Six Sigma initiative.

    • C.

      A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence.

    • D.

      The 20% of the work that is causing the most issues.

    Correct Answer
    C. A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence.
    Explanation
    A Pareto diagram is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence.It is used to show how many defects were generated by each category of identified cause to allow remedial action to be focussed on the most significant.

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  • 4. 

    Integrated Change Control includes all of the following tools and techniques except:

    • A.

      Project plan updates.

    • B.

      Expert judgement.

    • C.

      Change control meetings.

    • D.

      A change control board to approve or reject changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Project plan updates.
    Explanation
    Integrated Change Control is a process that ensures all changes to a project are identified, documented, evaluated, approved or rejected, and incorporated into the project plan. It involves tools and techniques such as expert judgment, change control meetings, and a change control board. However, project plan updates are not considered a tool or technique of Integrated Change Control. Instead, project plan updates are an output of the Integrated Change Control process, as they reflect the approved changes and their impact on the project plan.

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  • 5. 

    All of the following are true concerning expected monetary value (EMV) except:

    • A.

      Decision tree analysis is more effective using net present values (NPV) in its calculations rather than EMV.

    • B.

      The EMV of an opportunity is generally a positive value.

    • C.

      EMV is a statistical concept that calculates the average value of a future scenario that may, or may not happen by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of it occurring and summing the products.

    • D.

      The EMV of a threat is generally a negative value.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decision tree analysis is more effective using net present values (NPV) in its calculations rather than EMV.
    Explanation
    EMV is calculated by EMV = probability * impact.
    If there are several different possibilities, the EMV is calculated for each option and the EMVs added together to give an overall, value.

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  • 6. 

    Co-location is one of the techniques used to:

    • A.

      Ensure effective control over the work of the project team.

    • B.

      Develop the project team.

    • C.

      Define the organisation structure.

    • D.

      Acquire the project team.

    Correct Answer
    B. Develop the project team.
    Explanation
    Co-location involves placing the active project team members in one location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. This is one of the tools and techniques listed in the Develop Project Team process.

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  • 7. 

    When managing a complex, cross functional project; which of the following structures will give the project manager the most authority?

    • A.

      Balanced matrix.

    • B.

      Strong matrix.

    • C.

      Functional.

    • D.

      Weak matrix.

    Correct Answer
    B. Strong matrix.
    Explanation
    Strong matrix organisations provide the project manager with a similar high level of authority to a projectized organisation and full time project administration staff.

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  • 8. 

    Leadership in a project environment should demonstrate all of the following characteristics except:

    • A.

      The focusing of the efforts of a group of people on achieving a common objective.

    • B.

      High levels of respect and trust.

    • C.

      The ability to get things done through others.

    • D.

      A primary focus on external senior managers and other key stakeholders to ensure the project is a success through managing upwards.

    Correct Answer
    D. A primary focus on external senior managers and other key stakeholders to ensure the project is a success through managing upwards.
    Explanation
    Whilst managing upwards (or advising upwards) is a key skill of the project manager, it is not the primary focus of leadership.

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  • 9. 

    The processes included in project communication management are:

    • A.

      Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Expectations and Report Performance.

    • B.

      Identify Stakeholders, Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.

    • C.

      Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.

    • D.

      Collect Requirements, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Update Project Documentation and Report Performance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Distribute Information, Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Report Performance.
    Explanation
    This is a common type of question. Collect Requirements is a Scope Management process. Update project documentation is an output from a range of processes.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is true concerning the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

    • A.

      The PMI WBS and PRINCE2 product breakdown structure (PBS) are effectively the same thing.

    • B.

      The WBS is the same as the organisational breakdown structure (OBS).

    • C.

      The WBS is a deliverable oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.

    • D.

      The WBS is the bill of materials (BoM) needed to accomplish the work of the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. The WBS is a deliverable oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.
    Explanation
    The difference between the PBS and the WBS is the PBS only contains the products to be delivered, the WBS contains all of the work needed to achieve the project’s objectives including all of the deliverables (not just the ‘product’). Non-product elements in the WBS include project management work, safety and hygiene work, etc.

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  • 11. 

    All of the following are true of cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contracts, except:

    • A.

      The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs incurred performing the contract work.

    • B.

      The seller receives a fixed fee calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project cost.

    • C.

      The fee does not change based on the performance of the seller.

    • D.

      The seller receives a fee calculated as a fixed percentage of the actual project cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. The seller receives a fee calculated as a fixed percentage of the actual project cost.
    Explanation
    CPFF contracts pay a fixed fee to the seller based on the initial estimated value of the work. The only time the fee will change is if the buyer changes the scope of the work.

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  • 12. 

    During a meeting with some of your project's stakeholders, you are asked to add to the project's scope of work.  The project records contain correspondence from before the Charter was signed in which the project sponsor specifically declined the work being requested by these stakeholders.  The BEST thing for you to do is:

    • A.

      Tell the stakeholders the work cannot be added.

    • B.

      Evaluate the cost and time impacts of adding the work.

    • C.

      Add the work if it can be accommodated within the existing budget.

    • D.

      Talk to the sponsor and let her know of the request.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell the stakeholders the work cannot be added.
    Explanation
    PMI expects the project manager to manage! The best thing to do first is try to resolve the problem with the stakeholders. Only is that fails should the problem be escalated to the sponsor.

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  • 13. 

    Analogous estimating when applied to a duration is:

    • A.

      Based on expert judgement and is consequently more accurate than standard critical path estimating.

    • B.

      Used when there is a limited amount of detailed information available.

    • C.

      A calculation based on a three point estimate using a modified BETA distribution.

    • D.

      The same as ‘bottom up’ estimating.

    Correct Answer
    B. Used when there is a limited amount of detailed information available.
    Explanation
    Analogous estimating uses the duration from a similar completed activity or project as the basis for the current estimate. This is a ‘top down’ estimating technique used when there is little detailed information available.

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  • 14. 

    The code of accounts:

    • A.

      Is the system used to keep track of purchases and contracts.

    • B.

      Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure.

    • C.

      Links the work breakdown structure to the schedule task identifier.

    • D.

      Is the alpha-numeric reference used in the organisations accounts system to identify cost centres.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure.
    Explanation
    The chart of accounts refers to the accounting system, the code of accounts to the WBS. Whilst these should be linked, they are not the same.

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  • 15. 

    A procurement audit will consider all of the following except:

    • A.

      The changes in market conditions between the contract date and the current time.

    • B.

      Any successes or failures in the process that warrant recognition.

    • C.

      The complete procurement process from initial planning through to the administration of the procurement.

    • D.

      Any lessons learned that can be applied to future procurement processes.

    Correct Answer
    A. The changes in market conditions between the contract date and the current time.
    Explanation
    PMBOK audits are focused on process improvement. They review how the system is working to learn lessons to apply to future procurements both within the project and on other projects within the
    organisation.

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  • 16. 

    The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics except:

    • A.

      It is a technique to reduce bias and prevent any one person from exerting undue influence.

    • B.

      It is a way to reach a consensus of experts.

    • C.

      It is an Oracle® database application used to optimise future outcomes.

    • D.

      Individual experts are unaware of who else is participating in the process.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is an Oracle® database application used to optimise future outcomes.
    Explanation
    The Delphi technique is a facilitated process to reach a consensus of experts using questions and feedback. Only the facilitator is aware of who is participating.

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  • 17. 

    A binding contract is legally created when:

    • A.

      The formal contract documents are signed by your senior management.

    • B.

      When your legal department advises the contract is acceptable.

    • C.

      The formal contract documents are signed by official representatives of both parties.

    • D.

      There is an offer, acceptance, performance and consideration.

    Correct Answer
    D. There is an offer, acceptance, performance and consideration.
    Explanation
    Contracts do not have to be in writing or signed. Whilst it is difficult to enforce the terms of a verbal contracts the law will recognise the validity of the agreement.
    The four basic requirements for a contract are:
    - Someone makes an offer to do something,
    - The offer is accepted unconditionally,
    - There is an intention or actual performance of the offer,
    - There is an intention or actual transfer of a valuable consideration
    (the consideration does not have to be money, just of value).

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  • 18. 

    The basic decision making styles normally used by project managers include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Coin flip (random).

    • B.

      Command.

    • C.

      Consultation.

    • D.

      Rational choice theory

    Correct Answer
    D. Rational choice theory
    Explanation
    Rational choice theory is a framework for understanding and often formally modelling social and economic behaviour. The 4 options in the PMBOK are command, consultation, consensus and coin flip. Coin flip is used when it really does not matter which option is chosen as long as there is a decision (eg, should we meet at McDonald’s or Burger King for lunch).

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  • 19. 

    FPIF is an acronym for:

    • A.

      Fixed Price Incentive Fee

    • B.

      Firm Price Incentive Free

    • C.

      Fixed Price Indicator Factor

    • D.

      Fast Performance Incentive Fee

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed Price Incentive Fee
    Explanation
    FPIF is a form of contract where the seller can earn an incentive fee on top of its fixed price for the work if it achieves a specified objective such as a zero accident or defect rate or completion before a specified target date.

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  • 20. 

    The Control Costs process includes all of the following except:

    • A.

      Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated costs.

    • B.

      Influencing factors that create changes in the authorised cost baseline.

    • C.

      Developing the cost performance baseline.

    • D.

      Acting to bring expected cost overruns within acceptable limits.

    Correct Answer
    C. Developing the cost performance baseline.
    Explanation
    Developing the cost performance baseline is part of the Determine Budget process. All of the other options are listed as inclusions in the Control Costs process.

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  • 21. 

    All of the following statements are true about product and project life cycles except:

    • A.

      Generally a product lifecycle is contained within a project lifecycle.

    • B.

      A project life cycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of phases that may be sequential or overlapping.

    • C.

      A product lifecycle is determined by the organisation and generally consists of sequential phases.

    • D.

      Generally a project lifecycle is contained within a product lifecycle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Generally a product lifecycle is contained within a project lifecycle.
    Explanation
    Products are created, marketed, upgraded and eventually retired or decommissioned. The phases are determined by the organisation. Projects are used to create the product, upgrade the product and
    potentially decommission the product. Projects typically fit within or form one phase of the overall product lifecycle. The phases of a project’s lifecycle (eg, design, build, install) are different to the ‘project management phases’ discussed in the PMBOK; project management phases are synonymous with the five process groups. The five process groups (initiate, plan, execute, monitor & control, and close) occur at different levels of intensity in each project, and each phase of a project.

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  • 22. 

    As part of a successful communication, the receiver is responsible for:

    • A.

      Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and acknowledged.

    • B.

      Making sure the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly and acknowledged.

    • C.

      Making sure the information is clear and complete, understood and agreed with.

    • D.

      Listening actively to ensure all of the information is received.

    Correct Answer
    B. Making sure the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly and acknowledged.
    Explanation
    Communication can be written or oral, therefore ‘d’ is not the best answer. Both the sender and receiver need to use active listening if the communication is oral. The sender is responsible for making sure the information is clear and complete, not the receiver. For a communication to be successful the receiver needs to acknowledge its receipt to the sender, the receiver does not have to agree with the information.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following people developed management theories focused on motivation except:

    • A.

      Maslow.

    • B.

      McGregor.

    • C.

      Hertzberg.

    • D.

      Deming.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deming.
    Explanation
    W. Edwards Deming is a quality guru.

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  • 24. 

    The project charter has all of the following characteristics except:

    • A.

      Its primary use is to authorise the start of a project or phase.

    • B.

      It provides the project manager with authority to apply resources and expend money on project activities.

    • C.

      Its primary use is to request bids or proposals for the work it defines.

    • D.

      The project charter can be created by the person external to the project, responsible for the authorisation of the work, or that person can delegate the creation of the project charter to the project manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Its primary use is to request bids or proposals for the work it defines.
    Explanation
    Statements of work (SOW) and other procurement documents are used to request bids or proposals. The work of creating the project charter can be delegated to the project manager; however, the charter should be signed by the person responsible for authorising the project.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are true concerning enterprise environmental factors (EEF) except:

    • A.

      EEF do not include the organisations purchasing guidelines because this type of function is managed by the Accounts Department.

    • B.

      EEF include the tools, systems and software that comprise the project management information system (PMIS).

    • C.

      EEF incorporates the organisation’s culture, structure and processes.

    • D.

      EEF include all relevant laws, regulations and standards imposed by all levels of government, industry bodies and society.

    Correct Answer
    A. EEF do not include the organisations purchasing guidelines because this type of function is managed by the Accounts Department.
    Explanation
    EEF refer to both the internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence a project. Purchasing guidelines constrain the project management’s options in respect of acquiring goods and services.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following statements concerning the project scope statement are true except:

    • A.

      It is an output of the Verify Scope process.

    • B.

      It describes the project’s deliverables and the work needed to create them.

    • C.

      It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations.

    • D.

      It provides a common understanding of the project’s scope among the project’s stakeholders.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is an output of the Verify Scope process.
    Explanation
    The project scope statement is an output from the Define Scope process. Clearly documenting work that is ‘out of scope’ helps everyone. A typical example is a project may be scoped to develop training
    materials for the product being developed, but not to conduct the training. A clear statement that ‘All training will be undertaken by others and is outside of the scope of this project’ prevents stakeholders expecting the project team will undertake the initial training or ‘train-the-trainer’ training. If these requirements are needed, they can be brought into the project’s scope through a change management process.

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  • 27. 

    The cost of quality includes all of the following except:

    • A.

      Buying professional indemnity insurance.

    • B.

      The cost of defects and rework caused by failing to achieve requirements.

    • C.

      The cost of inspecting and appraising conforming products produced by the project.

    • D.

      Preventing non-conformance to requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Buying professional indemnity insurance.
    Explanation
    Buying insurance is a risk transference process (the risk is transferred to the insurer).
    The cost of quality (COQ) is the direct costs incurred in prevention, inspection and repairs.

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  • 28. 

    The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows:

    • A.

      The connections between activities and project team members.

    • B.

      The delegation of responsibility through the hierarchically organised management structure.

    • C.

      Accountabilities to assist in team performance appraisals.

    • D.

      The sequence of activities a named resource is responsible for accomplishing.

    Correct Answer
    A. The connections between activities and project team members.
    Explanation
    The RAM chart is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members.

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  • 29. 

    Project management process groups have all of the following characteristics except:

    • A.

      All of the process groups are needed on all projects and all of their interactions apply to each phase of a project as well as the overall project.

    • B.

      The process groups are seldom one time, discrete events; they are overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.

    • C.

      Where a project is divided into phases, the process groups are invoked as appropriate.

    • D.

      The process groups are linked by the outputs they produce.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the process groups are needed on all projects and all of their interactions apply to each pHase of a project as well as the overall project.
    Explanation
    Whilst all of the process groups should occur in each project at an appropriate level of intensity, ALL of the processes and interactions within and between process groups are not required on every project or in every phase of a project.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following represent a discretionary dependency?

    • A.

      Not starting design until all of the approvals have been received.

    • B.

      Waiting the specified 72 hours before stripping formwork from a newly poured concrete slab.

    • C.

      Applying a start-to-start link between two tasks in a PDM network.

    • D.

      Applying a lag of 4 days between two tasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not starting design until all of the approvals have been received.
    Explanation
    Any link between two tasks (or activities) may be discretionary or mandatory. The link types in a Precedence network (PDM) are:
    - Finish-to-start
    - Start-to-start
    - Finish-to-finish
    - Start-to-finish.
    A lead or a lag may be applied to any of the link types.

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  • 31. 

    Lynn is the project manager of a project. She creates a structure similar to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). However, instead of being arranged according to the project deliverables, it is arranged according to the team's existing departments and units. The project activities / work packages are listed against each existing department. This would be called:

    • A.

      An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

    • B.

      A Department Breakdown Structure (DBS)

    • C.

      A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

    • D.

      A Hierarchical Breakdown Structure (HBS)

    Correct Answer
    A. An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
    Explanation
    A - Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is the correct answer. This is a useful way of listing project activities. An operational department such as Information Technology or purchasing can see all of its project responsibilities by looking at its portion of the OBS.

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  • 32. 

    You are negotiating a contract with a seller. You want to go in for a Fixed price type of contract. The seller uses a different terminology for the fixed price type of contract. He is most probably referring to it as a:

    • A.

      Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract

    • B.

      A Time and material contract

    • C.

      Lump sum contract

    • D.

      Cost-Plus-Fee contract

    Correct Answer
    C. Lump sum contract
    Explanation
    C - A fixed price contract is synonymous with a lump sum contract. This type of contract involves a fixed total price or a lump sum for a well-defined product.

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  • 33. 

    A construction project requires that governmental environmental hearings be held prior to site preparation. What kind of a dependency is this?

    • A.

      Mandatory dependency

    • B.

      Discretionary dependency

    • C.

      Soft logic

    • D.

      External dependency

    Correct Answer
    D. External dependency
    Explanation
    D - This is called an external dependency. It involves a relationship between project and non-project activities (for example: governmental environmental hearings).

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  • 34. 

    A manager asked to see a list of milestones in the project. This would be available as an output from the:

    • A.

      Sequence Activities phase

    • B.

      Define Scope phase

    • C.

      Estimate Activity Durations

    • D.

      Define Activities phase

    Correct Answer
    D. Define Activities pHase
    Explanation
    D - The list of milestones is available as an output from the Define Activities phase.

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  • 35. 

    One of the project team members had a teleconference with a customer representative who was reviewing some of the deliverables and discussed some changes in the product requirements. Your project team member discusses the changes with you and feels that these are necessary for the project. You agree with the team member's view. As a project manager, you should ensure that:

    • A.

      Ask the project team member to go ahead with the changes.

    • B.

      The changes are documented and they follow the change management process to become an Approved Change request.

    • C.

      Summarize the changes and archive your discussion with the team member as a future record.

    • D.

      Ask the team member to ignore the changes.

    Correct Answer
    B. The changes are documented and they follow the change management process to become an Approved Change request.
    Explanation
    B - All changes should be formally documented in writing. Any verbally discussed but undocumented changes should not be processed or implemented

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  • 36. 

    A project manager of a project that was contracted on a Time and Material basis finds that some of the tasks have been taking lesser time than planned. On average each team member has required only 30 hours to accomplish work which was planned for 40 hours during the week. The project manager should:

    • A.

      Report the accurate status to your manager and send a separate report stating that each team member was busy for 40 hours

    • B.

      Report this accurately on the status report and ensure that activities are re-planned as necessary, to keep the team completely occupied.

    • C.

      Report on the status report that each team member was busy for 40 hours, and use the time saved for other activities not related to the project.

    • D.

      Avoid mentioning these kinds of savings on status reports.

    Correct Answer
    B. Report this accurately on the status report and ensure that activities are re-planned as necessary, to keep the team completely occupied.
    Explanation
    B - You would need to report the status accurately to the customer even if it means losing some revenue.

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  • 37. 

    There are a number of risks that have been identified in your project, however the team has elected not to change the project plan to deal with the risk, but they have established a contingency reserve of money in the event some of these risks are triggered. This is an example of what type of risk mitigation technique?

    • A.

      Contingent Response Strategy

    • B.

      Active acceptance

    • C.

      Passive acceptance

    • D.

      Avoidance

    Correct Answer
    B. Active acceptance
    Explanation
    B - Recognizing the risk and not changing the plan, but making some contingencies in the event the risk is triggered is an example of active acceptance. Passive acceptance would be if no contingencies were put in place and avoidance would be correct if the project plan were modified.

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  • 38. 

    Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore the expenditure of funds is frequently reconciled with the disbursement of funds for the project. This is known as:

    • A.

      Disbursement reconciliation

    • B.

      Expenditure Reconciliation

    • C.

      Budget Reconciliation

    • D.

      Funding Limit Reconciliation

    Correct Answer
    D. Funding Limit Reconciliation
    Explanation
    D - This is known as Funding Limit reconciliation. This will necessitate the scheduling of work to be adjusted to smooth or regulate those expenditures.

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  • 39. 

    The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to:

    • A.

      Forecast future performance based on past performance

    • B.

      Calculate the number of days left in the project

    • C.

      Calculate the value provided to the customer

    • D.

      Calculate the profitability of the project

    Correct Answer
    A. Forecast future performance based on past performance
    Explanation
    A - The Earned Value Management methodology can be used as a means to forecast future performance based on past performance.

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  • 40. 

    The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all others?

    • A.

      Talk to the customer about the impact of the change

    • B.

      Change the risk management plan

    • C.

      Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate

    • D.

      Analyze the impacts of the change with the team

    Correct Answer
    D. Analyze the impacts of the change with the team
    Explanation
    D - The first thing you should always do is assess the impact of the change with the team, then determine options and then go to management.

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  • 41. 

    A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) dictionary supports the WBS and is a companion document to the WBS. Which of the following is not included in the WBS dictionary?

    • A.

      List of schedule milestones

    • B.

      Resource assigned

    • C.

      Contract Information

    • D.

      Code of Account Identifier

    Correct Answer
    B. Resource assigned
    Explanation
    B - Resource assignments are not part of the WBS dictionary.

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  • 42. 

    The State of New York has contracted your company to provide a claims payment system for Medicaid benefits. In the contract there is a clause that indicates that the State of New York can review your work processes and deliverables. This is an example of?

    • A.

      Performance Report

    • B.

      Record Management System

    • C.

      Deliverables Checklist

    • D.

      Inspections and Audits

    Correct Answer
    D. Inspections and Audits
    Explanation
    D - When a buyer puts in a contract that they can review work and deliverables it is an example of an inspection and audit.

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  • 43. 

    Control Schedule is part of which Project Management process group?

    • A.

      Monitoring and controlling

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Executing

    • D.

      Initiating

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring and controlling
    Explanation
    A - Control Schedule is part of the monitoring and controlling process group.

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  • 44. 

    Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. They often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until the foundation has been built. This type of dependency is also called:

    • A.

      Soft logic

    • B.

      Unilateral dependency

    • C.

      Fixed logic

    • D.

      Hard logic

    Correct Answer
    D. Hard logic
    Explanation
    D - Mandatory dependencies are also referred to as hard logic.

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  • 45. 

    You are a project manager for your company. Part of the project requires producing 10,000 widgets, which your company will outsource. The company has agreed to pay all related costs and 5% of the estimated project costs. What type of contract has been negotiated?

    • A.

      Time and Material contract

    • B.

      Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract

    • C.

      Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract

    • D.

      Fixed-price contract

    Correct Answer
    B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract
    Explanation
    B - This is an example of a Cost-Plus- Fixed-Fee contract. This type of contract determines the profit element as a fixed percentage of the estimated project cost.

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  • 46. 

    A special cause may also be referred to as:

    • A.

      Foreign cause

    • B.

      Assignable cause

    • C.

      Atypical cause

    • D.

      Normal cause

    Correct Answer
    B. Assignable cause
    Explanation
    B - A special cause is also referred to as an assignable cause.

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  • 47. 

    Jack is the project manager of a project and is looking at the schedule of work. He adjusts a few of the schedule milestones and imposes date constraints for some of the work packages. The most likely reason that may need him to do this is:

    • A.

      Many of the work packages have been completed and he wants to change the dates on subsequent ones.

    • B.

      His manager has requested him to change the milestone dates.

    • C.

      To allow time for a project status presentation.

    • D.

      To regulate expenditure of funds so that they can be reconciled against the disbursement of funds for the project.

    Correct Answer
    D. To regulate expenditure of funds so that they can be reconciled against the disbursement of funds for the project.
    Explanation
    D - Reconciliation of the funding limits is a key reason why scheduling of work may need to be adjusted to smooth or regulate expenditures in relation to the disbursement of funds for the project.

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  • 48. 

    As a project manager, you are concerned with both Prevention and Inspection of errors in a work product. The difference between Prevention and Inspection is:

    • A.

      Inspection is work done by the Quality Control (QC) team whereas Prevention is work done by the Quality Assurance (QA) team

    • B.

      Inspection refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas prevention refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

    • C.

      Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

    • D.

      Inspection and Prevention refer to the same activity depending on what stage of the project the activity is done.

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.
    Explanation
    C - Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

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  • 49. 

    Which of these statements is true?

    • A.

      The cost of correcting mistakes through an inspection is much lesser than the cost of preventing them.

    • B.

      The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.

    • C.

      It does not matter where a defect is captured as long as the finished work product does not have a defect.

    • D.

      The cost of correcting mistakes through an inspection is more or less that same as the cost of preventing them since the same effort goes into both activities.

    Correct Answer
    B. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.
    Explanation
    B - This is one of the basic tenets of project and quality management. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much lesser than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection.

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  • 50. 

    The project manager of a long term project to develop a new medical device waits to include the details of later phase deliverables on the WBS until such time as those deliverables are more clearly defined. This is an example of:

    • A.

      Iterative planning

    • B.

      Balanced planning

    • C.

      Deferred planning

    • D.

      Rolling wave planning

    Correct Answer
    D. Rolling wave planning
    Explanation
    D - Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far into the future. The project management team usually waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified so the details of the WBS can be developed. This technique is sometimes referred to as rolling wave planning.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 13, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Agilep3
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