Host Defense Practice Exam 2

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1. Hyperacute rejection is characterized in all of the following ways except...

Explanation

thickening of the intima occurs along with the fibrotic processes of chronic rejection

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Host Defense Practice Exam 2 - Quiz

This is the practice exam sent out for the second Host Defense test.

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2. What type of hypersensitivity disease is Goodpasture's Syndrome?

Explanation

Auto-antibody (against type IV collagen in kidneys, lungs)

"prepared mind syndrome" - discovered that patient didn't produce type IV collagen because his tissues didn't cause reaction when exposed to Goodpasture serum (Goodpasture is atopic -- serum should cause the same problem when inserted into an unaffected individual)

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3. Which complement component and biological activity are incorrectly paired?

Explanation

C5a-9 all form the membrane attack complex that makes a membrane pore
C3b coats antigen (opsonization)
C3a, C4a, and C5a are all anaphylatoxins
C5a is a chemoattractant for neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and monocytes (think "Chanel #5")

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4. Under the hyper-hygiene hypothesis, which of the following factors contributes to allergic hypersensitivity?

Explanation

Early exposure to childhood illnesses may "set" normal Th1 and Th2 responses to subsequent environmental antigen exposure. Allergies are rarer in large families and with early day care. Lack of early exposure to infectious Ag and underproduction of Tregs are associated with risk of developing allergies.

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5. All of the following are examples of Host-versus-graft disease except

Explanation

Bone marrow transplant: graft-versus-host disease

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6. Which of the following statements is true:

Explanation

B - polyclonal, not monoclonal ("frustrated" B-cells )
c - Type III, not Type I
d - both platelets and fibrin are found where an IC binds to FcgR on vascular endothelium

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7. Which of the following would directly regulate formation of the membrane attack complex?

Explanation

CD59 prevents C8/9 association and pore assembly of MAC
Factor H, Factor I and CD46 all regulate C3b's C5 convertase activity
Factor I and CD46 regulate C4b's C3 convertase activity
CD55 regulates C3 convertase in all pathways by accelerating decay (think "55 raises speed-limit"
C1 INH, in classical pathway, dissociates C1r and C1s from C1q

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8. Which of the following statements is true:

Explanation

A - UVB light (not UVA) stimulates antigen presentation
B - estogen increase likelihood of developing autoimmune disorders (likelihood is highest between puberty and menopause)
C - accumulation of ICs cause all of these problems (high FcR concentration in skin and kidney)
D - SLE is an example of Type III hypersensitivity (IC disease)

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9. Tregs regulate in all of the following ways except...

Explanation

Tregs (regulatory T cells) play a crucial role in immune regulation by suppressing excessive immune responses. They achieve this through various mechanisms such as competition with other immune cells, inhibiting dendritic cells (DCs), secreting TGF-B (transforming growth factor-B), and inhibiting T-cell activation. However, Tregs do not secrete INF-g (interferon-gamma), which is a cytokine produced by other immune cells to enhance immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is "Secreting INF-g."

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10. Which of the following is an antigen-transporting cell?

Explanation

M-cells transport antigens from the lumen of the GI tract and the bronchioles

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11. A deficiency of complement component C1 would cause increased susceptibility to:

Explanation

lack of early classical components (C1, C2, C4) won't lead to overwhelming infection, but will decrease IC clearance and lead to IC disease

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12. In order to combat diptheria toxin (extracellular toxin), you would do all of the following except...

Explanation

TMMI response will not help reduce the effects of the toxins

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13. Which of the following properties is NOT shared by basophils and mast cells?

Explanation

Basophils circulate; mast cells reside in tissue sites

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14. Choose the answer that best describes the role of an adjuvant in providing immunization.

Explanation

An adjuvant is a substance that is added to a vaccine to enhance the immune response to the antigen. In this case, the adjuvant is described as a peptide that is attached to a polysaccharide antigen. The role of this adjuvant is to help induce a T-dependent response, which means it activates T cells to recognize and respond to the antigen. By doing so, it helps in the development of memory cells, which provide long-term immunity against the antigen.

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15. What are the effects of corticosteroids in an individual experiencing an allergic response and at what point do they act in the immune response?

Explanation

Corticosteroids act by inhibiting the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines during the late reaction of an allergic response. Pro-inflammatory cytokines are molecules that promote inflammation and immune responses. By inhibiting their production, corticosteroids help to reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms associated with allergies. This action occurs during the late phase of the immune response, which is characterized by the release of cytokines and the recruitment of immune cells to the site of inflammation.

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16. C3 and C5 convertases are involved in which pathway(s)?

Explanation

All three pathways involve activity of C3 convertase and C5 convertase

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17. Onset of symptoms associated with X-linked Agammaglobulinemia develop later in infancy than problems associated with SCID.  For X-linked Agammaglobulinemia, this is in part due to the mother's maternal Ab conferring immunity for 6-9 months post-partum.  Why doesn't the maternal antibody help the SCID patients as much and why is the IgG pooled antibody administration not the preferred treatment choice for SCID patients?

Explanation

The only treatment "routinely" available for SCID is bone marrow/stem cell transplantation.

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18. Which is Type III hypersensitivity?

Explanation

Systemic Lupus - Type III, immune complex hypersensitivity (inability to properly dispose of IC)
Allergic Rhinitis - Type I, IgE mediated allergy
Goodpasture's Syndrome - Type II, auto-immunity to type IV collagen
A positive TB skin test - Type IV, TMMI -> granuloma
Grave's Disease - Type II, auto-antibodies to TSH receptor -> hyperthyroidism

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19. What is the major way the body clears excess immune complexes?

Explanation

B, C and E are all true, but they are not the major clearance mechanisms.

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20. Commensal bacteria...

Explanation

Immature dendritic cells take up commensal bacteria, give weak signals to induce regulatory T-cell formation (inhibiting immune response and developing tolerance to the commensal bacteria). Destruction of commensal bacteria (eg. by antibiotics) allows pathogens (eg. clostridium difficile) to penetrate epithelial cells, bind to dendritic cells, make them mature and form immune response.

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21. Some SCID patients cannot be treated with a bone marrow transplant because they have no sibs that match and there is no donor in the registry who is an MHC match, so they are sometimes treated with gene transfer.  What is the reason for a rare gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma found in SCID gene transfer patients?

Explanation

The rare gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma found in SCID gene transfer patients is caused by the point of insertion of the viral vector. When gene transfer is used as a treatment for SCID patients, a viral vector is used to insert the corrected gene into the patient's cells. However, in some cases, the point of insertion of the viral vector can disrupt the normal functioning of the cells and lead to the development of lymphoma.

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22. A patient is stung by a bee for the second time and develops urticaria, what isotype antibodies are being produce against the bee venom antigen and is this an appropriate immune response to bee venom?

Explanation

When a person is stung by a bee for the second time and develops urticaria, it indicates an allergic reaction. In this case, both IgE and IgG antibodies are being produced against the bee venom antigen. While IgE is the primary antibody involved in allergic reactions, the presence of IgG suggests a secondary immune response. This inappropriate immune response to bee venom can lead to symptoms such as urticaria.

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23. When an antigen is consumed orally, the key feature that distinguishes the induction of a response and the induction of tolerance is...

Explanation

When an antigen is consumed orally, the key feature that distinguishes the induction of a response and the induction of tolerance is inflammation. Inflammation is a natural response of the body to infection or injury, and it involves the release of various immune cells and molecules to fight against pathogens. In the case of consuming an antigen, if inflammation occurs, it indicates that the immune system is recognizing the antigen as a threat and will mount a response against it. On the other hand, if there is no inflammation, it suggests that the immune system is tolerating the antigen and not initiating a response.

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24. Which of the following is not a symptom of selective IgA deficiency?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Subcutaneous mycoses in adulthood". Selective IgA deficiency is a condition where the body lacks or produces very low levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA). This deficiency can result in various symptoms, including a family history of IgA deficiency or agammaglobulinemia, a high incidence of oral infections, frequency of respiratory infections, and chronic diarrhea. However, subcutaneous mycoses, which are fungal infections that affect the skin and underlying tissues, are not typically associated with selective IgA deficiency.

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25. The genetic defect allowing infants to have BCG (intracellular pathogen) is most likely the result of:

Explanation

need TMMI for intracellular pathogen

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26. Which of the following is an absolute requirement for an allergic reaction to occur?

Explanation

An allergic reaction occurs when the immune system becomes sensitized to a specific allergen. Sensitization refers to the initial exposure to the allergen, which triggers the production of specific IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, leading to their activation. When the allergen is encountered again, it binds to the IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, causing the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine. This results in the symptoms of an allergic reaction. Therefore, a sensitization event is an absolute requirement for an allergic reaction to occur.

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27. Which of the following is not characteristic of a Superantigen?

Explanation

Bacterial superantigen binds to alpha chain on MHC class II and B chain on TCR.
Superantigens are found in unprocessed form; are not bound to conventional antigen-binding site.

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28. Which of the following distinguishes an Arthus reaction from a normal inflammatory response?

Explanation

Arthus reactions are so large because a large amount of preexisting antibodies complex to form IC with the antigen. In a normal response, there's a delay in IC formation while B-cells produce antibody. In both situations, IC activates neutrophils via FcR and CR1. Activated neutrophils release IL-8 which recruits more neutrophils to the site. A painful inflammatory response occurs, and excess IC are carried to the liver bound to erythrocytes via CR1 receptors. In an Arthus reaction, CR1-medicated IC disposal is immediately overwhelmed.

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29. In regards to the immune system failing during response to a tumor antigen, choose the correct event that takes place during this malfunction of the immune system.

Explanation

In this scenario, the malfunction of the immune system occurs when chemokines secreted by the tumor induce a Th0 cell to transform into a Treg cell. Treg cells are regulatory T cells that suppress the immune response, providing protection for the tumor. This malfunction allows the tumor to evade destruction by the immune system. The other options do not directly relate to the immune system failing during response to a tumor antigen.

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30. Leprosy can induce a Th1 or Th2 response depending on (??).  All of the following would be considered in a vaccine against leprosy except:

Explanation

All of the others promote a Th1 response; don't want to suppress Th1 response with IL-10.

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31. Which of the following correctly describes IgA?

Explanation

Serum IgA is mostly monomeric, while secretory IgA is mostly dimeric (joined by J chain). The production of sIgA requires plasma cells of lamina propria AND epithelial cells of mucosa.

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32. Which one of these cells is probably not bone-marrow derived?

Explanation

FDC is an antigen-retaining cell with Iccosomes on it; FDCs seem to be derived from reticular stromal cells

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33.

Explanation

T-cells at autoimmune sites are producing IL-17 (not INF-gamma). The transcription factor for Th17 is Ror. DCs at these sites produce IL-23 and IL-6, not IL-12. T-Bet is a Th1 transcription factor. GATA3 is a Th2 transcription factor.

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34. Mast cells do NOT contain:

Explanation

Mast cells don't contain thrombopoeitin, which would cause hematopoietic stem cells to form platelets and contribute to blood clotting. Mast cells do not promote clotting at all; they oppose it by secreting heparin.

Mast cells do contain histamine, heparin, GM-CSF and TNF-alpha

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35. Which of the following would not be a good example of a strategy used by a virus to evade the immune response?

Explanation

Virus would induce CD4, 25 Tcell proliferation to block immune response against it, but by upregulating TGF-B. Viruses *do* produce soluble cytokine receptors.

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36. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)?

Explanation

Patients with CVI have lots of B-cells, and no or very low IgG. The IgG itself is not abnormal; the levels are abnormally low. Terminal B-cell differentiation is defective, plasma cells do not form, and antibodies are not produced.
This is different from X-linked agammaglobulinemia, in which there is a defect in EARLY B-cell development and there are few or no B-cells present (therefore no plasma cells, no Ig of any kind)

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37. Which of the following is not a reason why there is a wide disparity of symptoms experienced by a large population of humans after being infected with a virus?

Explanation

The given answer is "none of the above" because all of the options listed are reasons why there is a wide disparity of symptoms experienced by a large population of humans after being infected with a virus. Some individuals may have too few or mutated TLRs, inherent polymorphism is found at each level including MHC, TLR, cytokines, and DCs, having the "wrong" TLR can cause an ineffective or pathologic response, and having too many TLRs can create a hyper-response and cause collateral damage. Therefore, none of the options can be excluded as a reason for the wide disparity of symptoms.

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38. Which of the following statements is true:

Explanation

A - due to HYPERacute hypersensitivity
B - patient developing IC disease may just be responding to immunization
C - Anti-C3b and anti-IgG are both used to identify ICs in tissue biopsies

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39. The immediate reaction stage of an allergic reaction is characterized by

Explanation

all other choices are associated with late response

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40. Which of the following disease or afflictions has NOT been thought to be controlled by the use of monoclonal antibodies?

Explanation

Monoclonal antibodies have been used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, Allergies, Transplantation rejection, and B-cell antibody mediated diseases (B lymphoma). However, Hashimoto's disease, an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, has not been thought to be controlled by the use of monoclonal antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are typically used to target specific proteins or cells involved in the disease process, and in the case of Hashimoto's disease, the underlying mechanism does not involve a specific protein or cell target that can be effectively treated with monoclonal antibodies.

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41. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

Explanation

CCL19 and CCL21 attract T-cells, not B-cells.

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42. Which of the following would be unhelpful in determining the antigen/antibody systems and antibody isotypes present in a patient's serum?

Explanation

Serum tryptase (measure of mast cell activation/degranulation) and skin tests are an INDIRECT measure of antigen/antibody system and antibody isotypes. Skin tests may be dangerous if the patient is highly reactive.

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43. Which of the following statements is true:

Explanation

A - in secondary immune response, IgG level is elevated but is never higher than albumin level
B - in SLE, the patient makes antibodies against their actual DNA, not proteins encoded in their DNA
C - the spleen doesn't phagocytize the increased ICs formed during IC disease
D - Serum from a patient with a chronic infection would have increased polyclonal IgG (not IgE) antibodies

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44. Choose the correct choice in each set of answers in the parentheses.  How was the Rh problem solved?
Maternal (APCs/B-cells) are inactivated by Rh specific (IgM/IgG) binding to (FcgRII/FcgRIII).  The associated (ITAM/ITIM) signals the cell to stop (producing antibody/presenting antigen).  This will protect the second Rh+ pregnancy.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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Hyperacute rejection is characterized in all of the following ways...
What type of hypersensitivity disease is Goodpasture's Syndrome?
Which complement component and biological activity are incorrectly...
Under the hyper-hygiene hypothesis, which of the following factors...
All of the following are examples of Host-versus-graft disease except
Which of the following statements is true:
Which of the following would directly regulate formation of the...
Which of the following statements is true:
Tregs regulate in all of the following ways except...
Which of the following is an antigen-transporting cell?
A deficiency of complement component C1 would cause increased...
In order to combat diptheria toxin (extracellular toxin), you would do...
Which of the following properties is NOT shared by basophils and mast...
Choose the answer that best describes the role of an adjuvant in...
What are the effects of corticosteroids in an individual experiencing...
C3 and C5 convertases are involved in which pathway(s)?
Onset of symptoms associated with X-linked Agammaglobulinemia develop...
Which is Type III hypersensitivity?
What is the major way the body clears excess immune complexes?
Commensal bacteria...
Some SCID patients cannot be treated with a bone marrow transplant...
A patient is stung by a bee ...
When an antigen is consumed orally, the key feature that distinguishes...
Which of the following is not a symptom of selective IgA deficiency?
The genetic defect allowing infants to have BCG (intracellular...
Which of the following is an absolute requirement for an allergic...
Which of the following is not characteristic of a Superantigen?
Which of the following distinguishes an Arthus reaction from a normal...
In regards to the immune system failing during response to a tumor...
Leprosy can induce a Th1 or Th2 response depending on (??).  All...
Which of the following correctly describes IgA?
Which one of these cells is probably not bone-marrow derived?
Mast cells do NOT contain:
Which of the following would not be a good example of a strategy used...
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Common Variable...
Which of the following is not a reason why there is a wide disparity...
Which of the following statements is true:
The immediate reaction stage of an allergic reaction is characterized...
Which of the following disease or afflictions has NOT been thought to...
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Which of the following would be unhelpful in determining the...
Which of the following statements is true:
Choose the correct choice in each set of answers in the parentheses....
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