1.
For decision services that are created in the IBM Integration Toolkit, which parameters are supported
(A) OUT
(B) All of the listed option
(C) INOUT
(D) IN
Correct Answer
C. Option 3
Explanation
The correct answer is option 3, INOUT. This means that the decision services created in the IBM Integration Toolkit support parameters that are both input and output.
2.
IBM Operational Decision Manager (ODM) combines the functionality of WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS and WebSphere Business Events. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
IBM Operational Decision Manager (ODM) indeed combines the functionality of WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS and WebSphere Business Events. This means that ODM incorporates the capabilities of both JRules BRMS, which enables the creation and management of business rules, and Business Events, which allows for real-time event processing. By combining these two components, ODM provides a comprehensive solution for managing and executing business rules and events within an organization.
3.
In a WebSphere MQ environment where five queue managers are in a hub-and-spoke configuration, how many channels must be created in order for the four spoke queue managers to exchange messages with the one hub queue manager?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 27
(D) 8
(E) 4
Correct Answer
D. Option 4
Explanation
In a hub-and-spoke configuration, each spoke queue manager needs to have a channel to communicate with the hub queue manager. Since there are four spoke queue managers, four channels need to be created. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
4.
What object must be running to handle inbound connection requests to start receiver channels?
(A) service
(B) process definition
(C) listener
(D) channel Initiator
Correct Answer
C. Option 3
Explanation
The correct answer is (C) listener. A listener is responsible for handling inbound connection requests to start receiver channels. It listens for incoming requests and initiates the necessary actions to establish a connection and start the receiver channel.
5.
When using the ALTER CHANNEL command, which one of the following keywords is a required parameter?
(A) CONNAME
(B) TRPTYPE
(C) CHLTYPE
(D) XMITQ
Correct Answer
C. Option 3
Explanation
When using the ALTER CHANNEL command, the required parameter is the CHLTYPE keyword. The CHLTYPE keyword specifies the channel type that is being altered.
6.
What are MQI channels and there types?
(A) None of these
(B) Client-connection
(C) Server-connection
Correct Answer(s)
B. Option2
C. Option3
Explanation
MQI channels are communication channels used by IBM MQ to connect different components of a distributed messaging system. There are two types of MQI channels: client-connection channels and server-connection channels.
Client-connection channels are used by client applications to connect to a remote queue manager. They initiate the connection and can send and receive messages.
Server-connection channels are used by queue managers to accept incoming connections from client applications. They wait for incoming connections and can send and receive messages.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 and Option 3, which are Client-connection and Server-connection channels.
7.
Chef is an open source technology used to manage middleware install/config. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Chef is indeed an open source technology used to manage middleware installation and configuration. It provides a platform for automating infrastructure management, allowing developers and system administrators to define and manage infrastructure as code. With Chef, users can write code to define the desired state of their infrastructure, and Chef takes care of configuring and maintaining the systems accordingly. This open source tool is widely used in the industry for its flexibility and scalability in managing middleware.
8.
IBM UrbanCode Deploy is used to automate the application/configuration deployments. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
IBM UrbanCode Deploy is a software tool that is specifically designed to automate the process of application and configuration deployments. It helps organizations to streamline their deployment processes by automating various tasks such as packaging, testing, and deploying applications. With the help of UrbanCode Deploy, organizations can achieve faster and more reliable deployments, reducing the risk of errors and improving overall efficiency. Therefore, the given statement that IBM UrbanCode Deploy is used to automate the application/configuration deployments is true.
9.
What is PaaS?
(A) Platform As A Service
(B) None of the listed option
(C) Provider As A Service
(D) Publisher As A Service
Correct Answer
A. Option1
Explanation
PaaS stands for Platform As A Service, which refers to a cloud computing model where a provider offers a platform to developers to build, run, and manage applications. This platform includes infrastructure, development tools, and runtime environments, allowing developers to focus on coding rather than managing the underlying infrastructure. This option is the correct answer as it accurately describes the concept of PaaS.
10.
What is command used to create cluster queue, where SALES is the name of the cluster?
(A) DEFINE QLOCAL(Q1) CLUSTER(SALES)
(B) DEFINE QLOCAL(Q1) QMGR(SALES)
(C) DEFINE QLOCAL(Q1)
(D) DEFINE QLOCAL(Q1) REPOS(SALES)
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
Explanation
The correct answer is option 1 because the command "DEFINE QLOCAL(Q1) CLUSTER(SALES)" is used to create a cluster queue named Q1 with the cluster name SALES. This command specifies that the queue should be part of the cluster named SALES.
11.
Java routines can be called from Compute node. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Java routines cannot be called directly from a Compute node in most cases. Compute nodes are typically used for executing code written in a specific language, such as Python or R, and may not have the necessary runtime environment or libraries to execute Java code. However, there may be some exceptions or workarounds depending on the specific platform or framework being used.
12.
DFDL can be used to describe the java language. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
DFDL stands for Data Format Description Language, which is a specification language used to describe the structure and format of data in a text or binary file. While DFDL itself is not specific to any programming language, it can indeed be used to describe the structure and format of data in Java. Therefore, the statement is true.
13.
DFDL was proposed by the open grid forum. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
DFDL (Data Format Description Language) was indeed proposed by the Open Grid Forum. The Open Grid Forum is a community-driven organization that focuses on developing standards and specifications for grid computing and related technologies. DFDL is an XML-based language used to describe the structure and format of different types of data, enabling interoperability between different systems and applications. Therefore, the given statement is true.
14.
What does DFDL stand for?
(A) Data format description language
(B) Data format definition language
(C) Defined format for data language
(D) Data formation of description language
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
Explanation
DFDL stands for Data Format Description Language. This language is used to describe the structure and format of data in a standardized way. It provides a way to define the layout, data types, and encoding of data, allowing different systems to exchange and interpret data accurately. Option 1 accurately represents the acronym and provides the correct expansion of DFDL.
15.
The header record is generally the first record in a csv file. (state true or false)(doubt)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The header record is generally the first record in a CSV file. This is because the header record contains the names or labels of the columns in the file, providing a description of the data that follows. By placing the header record at the beginning, it allows users to easily identify and understand the contents of each column in the file.
16.
Specify the action when the output file is finished using the FileOutput node
(A) Archive and replace Existing File
(B) Time stamp, Archive and replace Existing File
(C) Create File
(D) Replace Existing File
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
B. Option2
C. Option3
D. Option4
Explanation
The correct answer is to archive and replace the existing file. This means that when the output file is finished, it will be saved as an archive file and the existing file will be replaced with the new one. This ensures that the most up-to-date version of the file is always available. Additionally, the answer also includes time stamping the file, creating a new file, and replacing the existing file.
17.
Which statement best describe the use of 'Websphere Extreme Scale'?
(A).Virtualizes free memory within a grid of JVMs into a single logical space
(B).Provides fault tolerance through replication
(C).WebSphere eXtreme Scale provides a solution to scalability issues through caching and grid technology.
(D).None of the listed option
(E).WebSphere eXtreme Scale is an elastic, scalable, in-memory data grid (IMDG).
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
B. Option2
C. Option3
E. Option 5
Explanation
The use of 'Websphere Extreme Scale' can be best described by options 1, 2, 3, and 5. It virtualizes free memory within a grid of JVMs into a single logical space, provides fault tolerance through replication, provides a solution to scalability issues through caching and grid technology, and is an elastic, scalable, in-memory data grid (IMDG).
18.
MbGlobalMap java object is used to access the Global Cache. (State true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because the MbGlobalMap java object is indeed used to access the Global Cache. This object provides a way to store and retrieve data in a global cache that can be accessed by multiple threads or processes. It allows for efficient sharing of data and synchronization between different components of an application.
19.
Select the perspectives which are using in IIB toolkit?
(A) Debug
(B) Plug-in Development
(C) Integration Development
(D) Application Development
(E) Data analysis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option 1
B. Option 2
C. Option 3
E. Option 5
Explanation
The perspectives used in IIB toolkit are Debug, Plug-in Development, Integration Development, and Data analysis. These perspectives allow developers to debug their code, develop plug-ins, work on integration development, and analyze data within the IIB toolkit.
20.
Runtime Environment is use for the creation of message flows, message sets, and other message flow application resources. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The correct answer is False. The runtime environment is not used for the creation of message flows, message sets, and other message flow application resources. The runtime environment is responsible for executing the message flows and processing the messages within them, but the creation of these resources is typically done in a development or design environment.
21.
When a message arrives at the broker from a business application, the broker always processes the message after passing it on to one or more other business applications. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because the broker does not always process the message after passing it on to other business applications. The broker may have different processing rules and may choose not to process the message in certain cases.
22.
What are the components of IIB?
(A) None of the listed option
(B) Runtime Environments
(C) Development Environments
(D) A and B
Correct Answer(s)
B. Option2
C. Option3
Explanation
The correct answer is options 2 and 3, which are "Runtime Environments" and "Development Environments." This means that the components of IIB include both the environments required for running and developing applications.
23.
Why IIB is required
(A) All of the listed option
(B) Connectivity between systems
(C) Content based routing
(D) Message transformation
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
Explanation
The correct answer is option 1, which is "All of the listed options". This means that all of the options given (connectivity between systems, content-based routing, and message transformation) are reasons why IIB (Integration Bus) is required. IIB is a middleware platform that helps connect different systems, route messages based on their content, and transform messages between different formats. Therefore, all of these functionalities are necessary and contribute to the requirement of IIB.
24.
What are true about rules for using MQSC commands?
(A) The name or generic name of the object should not be followed by secondary parameter.
(B) Blanks enclosed within a pair of quotations marks are not significant.
(C) Each command of MQSC starts with a primary parameter, followed by a secondary parameter.
(D) The keywords, parentheses and values could be separated by unlimited number of blanks and commas.
(E) At least one blank immediately preceding each parameter is mandatory, except on z/OS.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
B. Option2
C. Option3
D. Option4
E. Option 5
Explanation
The rules for using MQSC commands include: (A) The name or generic name of the object should not be followed by secondary parameter. (B) Blanks enclosed within a pair of quotations marks are not significant. (C) Each command of MQSC starts with a primary parameter, followed by a secondary parameter. (D) The keywords, parentheses and values could be separated by an unlimited number of blanks and commas. (E) At least one blank immediately preceding each parameter is mandatory, except on z/OS.
25.
What is the command used for starting the Queue Manager?
(A) strtmqm
(B) startqm
(C) startmqm
(D) strmqm
Correct Answer
D. Option 4
Explanation
The command used for starting the Queue Manager is "strmqm".
26.
What is true about MQ's support for Integration?
(A) Sender and receiver cannot be from any platform.
(B) MQ is operating system independent.
(C) MQ is protocol dependent.
(D) It supports TCP/IP, LU6.2, SNA, NetBIOS,UDP.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Option 2
D. Option 4
Explanation
MQ's support for Integration is true in the sense that it is operating system independent (Option 2) and supports various protocols such as TCP/IP, LU6.2, SNA, NetBIOS, and UDP (Option 4). This means that MQ can be used on different platforms and can communicate with systems using different protocols, making it versatile and compatible with a wide range of integration scenarios.
27.
Websphere MQ messages contain
(A) Application data: The application’s content and data is defined by the application programs which uses it.
(B) Properties Header
(C) Message Descriptor: The message is identified by the message descriptor and contains additional control information, like the type of message and priority assigned to the message.
(D) RFH Header
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
C. Option3
Explanation
Websphere MQ messages contain application data, which is the content and data defined by the application programs that use it. They also contain a message descriptor, which identifies the message and includes additional control information such as the message type and priority.
28.
How do you start the dead-letter queue handler to monitor and process messages on the dead-letter queue.
(A) runmqdlq
(B) runmqdlh
(C) runmqdl
(D) rundlhandler
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
Explanation
To start the dead-letter queue handler to monitor and process messages on the dead-letter queue, the command "runmqdlq" should be used.
29.
What are the Types of messages?
(A) Datagram
(B) Response
(C) Reply
(D) Request
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
C. Option3
D. Option4
Explanation
The types of messages include datagram, reply, and request. Datagram refers to a message that is sent independently of others, without any guarantee of delivery or order. Reply refers to a message that is sent in response to a previous message. Request refers to a message that is sent to ask for information or action.
30.
What is SSL?
(A) Secure Sockets Layer
(B) Server secure layer
(C) secured symptom layer
(D) Secure server layer
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
Explanation
SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer. It is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a computer network. SSL ensures that the data transmitted between a web server and a browser remains encrypted and secure, preventing unauthorized access or tampering. It is widely used to secure online transactions, such as credit card payments, online banking, and sensitive information exchange.
31.
"mqsiwebuseradmin" is the mqsi command to create a web user id. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. "mqsiwebuseradmin" is indeed the mqsi command used to create a web user ID.
32.
What kind of security is required to be disabled to log onto web UI as a default user?
(A) Authorization security
(B) Administration secutrity
(C) Authentication security
(D) None of the listed option
Correct Answer
B. Option 2
Explanation
To log onto the web UI as a default user, the security that needs to be disabled is administration security. This means that the user should have administrative privileges to access the web UI. Authorization security refers to granting or denying access to specific resources or actions, authentication security involves verifying the identity of the user, and "None of the listed option" is not applicable in this case.
33.
How long will it take for the Snap shot for data refresh?
(A) 25 seconds
(B) 20 seconds
(C) 10 seconds
Correct Answer
B. Option 2
Explanation
The correct answer is Option 2. This suggests that it will take 20 seconds for the Snap shot for data refresh.
34.
The web UI is enabled by default for new brokers. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because the web UI, which allows users to interact with the broker through a graphical interface, is indeed enabled by default for new brokers. This means that users can access and manage their broker settings, configurations, and other features through a web browser without the need for additional setup or configuration.
35.
Single Database Service can be reused across message flows. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Single Database Service can be reused across message flows because it is designed to be a shared resource that can be accessed by multiple message flows. This allows for efficient and consistent data management across different flows, reducing the need for duplicate or redundant database services. By reusing the same database service, organizations can save resources and ensure data integrity and consistency throughout their messaging infrastructure.
36.
Which file does the Database service uses to store the metadata received from database?
(A) .service
(B) .dbm file
(C) wsdl
(D) .rules
(E) All of the listed option
Correct Answer
A. Option 1
37.
In IIB9 which database supports the Database service?
(A) Cloudant
(B) Sybase
(C) DB2
(D) Oracle
Correct Answer
B. Option 2
38.
The benefit of Service Discovery is to use the same service across multiple nodes. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Service Discovery allows applications to automatically locate and connect to services across multiple nodes in a network. This eliminates the need for manual configuration and enables the use of the same service across different nodes, enhancing scalability and flexibility. Therefore, the statement that the benefit of Service Discovery is to use the same service across multiple nodes is true.
39.
Which discovery service can be created in IIB9?
(A) Web Service Discovery
(B) Database Service Discovery
(C) Integration Service Discovery
(D) MQ Service Discovery
Correct Answer(s)
B. Option2
C. Option3
D. Option4
Explanation
In IIB9, multiple discovery services can be created, including Database Service Discovery (Option 2), Integration Service Discovery (Option 3), and MQ Service Discovery (Option 4). These services allow for the automatic discovery and integration of various services within the IIB9 environment. Option 1, Web Service Discovery, is not mentioned as a valid discovery service in IIB9.
40.
Subflow is an independent flow which can be invoked drectly. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Subflow is not an independent flow that can be invoked directly. Instead, it is a flow that is called or invoked by another flow. It is a smaller, reusable flow that performs a specific task within a larger flow. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
41.
What function of MQ enables the automatic starting of an application when certain conditions on queue are met
(A) Cluster
(B) Triggering
(C) Triggering monitoring
(D) Process development
Correct Answer
B. Option 2
Explanation
Triggering is the function of MQ that enables the automatic starting of an application when certain conditions on a queue are met. This feature allows MQ to monitor the queue and initiate the application when specific events or conditions occur, such as the arrival of a new message or the availability of a certain number of messages in the queue.
42.
If a downstream node (which can be a Throw node) throws an exception, the TryCatch node catches it and routes the original message to its Catch terminal. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
If a downstream node throws an exception, the TryCatch node is designed to catch it. The TryCatch node acts as a handler for exceptions and ensures that the original message is routed to its Catch terminal. Therefore, the given answer "True" is correct.
43.
I have 2 input nodes in my message flow. The first node has 4 additional instances configured and the second one has 5 additional instances configured. What is the total number of instances for that message flow? (Doubt)
(A) 9
(B) 2
(C) 11
(D) 5
Correct Answer
C. Option 3
Explanation
The total number of instances for the message flow can be calculated by adding the number of additional instances configured for each input node. In this case, the first node has 4 additional instances and the second node has 5 additional instances. Therefore, the total number of instances for the message flow is 4 + 5 = 9.
44.
An administrator can delay work that exceeds a certain rate, This process is known as traffic shaping. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Traffic shaping is a process where an administrator controls the flow of network traffic to ensure that it adheres to certain policies or limits. By delaying work that exceeds a certain rate, the administrator can regulate the traffic and prevent congestion or network overload. Therefore, the statement that an administrator can delay work that exceeds a certain rate, which is known as traffic shaping, is true.
45.
A policy can be administered using
(A) IBM integration API
(B) mqsi commands
(C) web UI
Correct Answer(s)
A. Option1
B. Option2
C. Option3
Explanation
The policy can be administered using IBM integration API, mqsi commands, and web UI. This means that there are multiple ways to administer the policy, giving flexibility to the user. The IBM integration API allows for integration with other systems and applications, mqsi commands provide command-line control and management, and the web UI offers a graphical user interface for easy administration.
46.
What is the total number of input messages processed by a message flow per second, called?
(A) Multiplied Rate
(B) Maximized Rate
(C) Extrordinary Rate
(D) Maximum rate
(E) Message rate- no.of input message processed per second.
Correct Answer
D. Option 4
Explanation
The total number of input messages processed by a message flow per second is called the maximum rate.
47.
IBM Integration Bus enables to separate configuration data from message flows by using policies. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
IBM Integration Bus does indeed enable the separation of configuration data from message flows through the use of policies. Policies allow for the centralization and management of configuration information, such as security settings, routing rules, and transformation logic, which can be applied to multiple message flows. This separation helps to improve the flexibility, reusability, and maintainability of message flows within the integration solution.
48.
How do an external java code and routines like log4j can be invoked ?
(A) Output Node
(B) Java Compute node
(C) Node Compute
(D) Input Node
Correct Answer
B. Option 2
Explanation
External Java code and routines like log4j can be invoked using the Java Compute node. The Java Compute node allows the integration of custom Java code into a message flow, providing the ability to manipulate and transform messages using Java methods. This node can be used to invoke external Java code and libraries such as log4j to perform specific tasks within the message flow.
49.
In FlowOrder node,the message that is propagated through the second output terminal is the input message. It is not modified in any way, even if the sequence of nodes that is connected to first terminal has modified the message. (state true or false)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that in the FlowOrder node, the message propagated through the second output terminal remains unchanged. Even if the sequence of nodes connected to the first terminal modifies the message, the second output terminal still outputs the original input message without any modifications. Therefore, the statement is true.
50.
What should be the last statement in Filter Node esql?
(A) CREATE
(B) DECLARE
(C) MOVE
(D) RETURN
Correct Answer
D. Option 4
Explanation
The last statement in the Filter Node esql should be the RETURN statement. This statement is used to return a value or result from a function or procedure. In the context of the Filter Node esql, the RETURN statement is typically used to return the filtered data or the result of the filtering process. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer as it represents the RETURN statement.