Integrated Management Of Childhood Illness (Imci) Quiz

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Integrated Management Of Childhood Illness (Imci) Quiz - Quiz


The IMCI Quiz is designed to help healthcare enthusiasts strengthen their knowledge and skills in managing childhood illnesses effectively. This quiz tests your understanding of key IMCI principles, including disease classification, treatment guidelines, and strategies for improving child survival rates.

All IMCI practice questions are crafted to align with real-world scenarios, providing a practical approach to mastering IMCI protocols. If you are revising for an exam, preparing for clinical practice, or enhancing your expertise, this quiz serves as an excellent resource to assess your readiness.

Disclaimer: This quiz is for educational purposes only. It is not a substitute Read morefor professional training or clinical judgment. Please consult authorized guidelines for actual medical practices.


IMCI Quiz Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    You can classify that a child aged 2 years has fast breathing if he has a respiratory rate of _________. 

    • A.

      60 bpm or more

    • B.

      50 bpm or more

    • C.

      40 bpm or more

    • D.

      Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 40 bpm or more
    Explanation
    A respiratory rate of 40 bpm or more can be classified as fast breathing in a child aged 2 years. This means that if the child is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths per minute or higher, it can be considered as fast breathing. This could indicate an underlying respiratory issue or infection, and further medical attention may be required to evaluate and treat the child's condition.

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  • 2. 

    Baby yuki, 4 months old is not able to breastfeed and chest indrawing is present. This can be classified as ___________. 

    • A.

      Pneumonia

    • B.

      Severe Pneumonia

    • C.

      No Pneumonia: cough or cold

    • D.

      Mild Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    B. Severe Pneumonia
    Explanation
    In infants, symptoms such as difficulty in breastfeeding (or inability to breastfeed) and chest indrawing (a sign of labored breathing where the chest pulls inward during inhalation) are serious indicators of severe pneumonia. These signs suggest that the infant is struggling to breathe and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT a key component of Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI)?

    • A.

      Improving case management skills of healthcare providers 

    • B.

      Strengthening the health system 

    • C.

      Prioritizing specialized care over community-based interventions 

    • D.

      Improving family and community health practices

    Correct Answer
    C. Prioritizing specialized care over community-based interventions 
    Explanation
    IMCI emphasizes a comprehensive approach to child health that includes both individual case management and broader improvements to the healthcare system. It strongly advocates for community-based interventions and family participation in healthcare to promote prevention, early detection, and effective management of childhood illnesses. Prioritizing specialized care over community-based interventions would contradict the core principles of IMCI.

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  • 4. 

    What color is "NO PNEUMONIA: COUGH OR COLD" classified as?

    • A.

      Green

    • B.

      Pink

    • C.

      Yellow

    • D.

      Red

    Correct Answer
    A. Green
    Explanation
    The color "NO PNEUMONIA: COUGH OR COLD" is classified as green. This suggests that the condition described does not indicate pneumonia, but rather a cough or cold. Green is commonly associated with non-serious or mild conditions, indicating that pneumonia is not present in this case.

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  • 5. 

    If the child has wheezing and either fast breathing or chest indrawing present, the nurse should:

    • A.

      Refer URGENTLY to hospital

    • B.

      Give a trial acting inhaled bronchodilator for up to 3 times

    • C.

      Assess vital signs

    • D.

      Give Vitamin A

    Correct Answer
    B. Give a trial acting inhaled bronchodilator for up to 3 times
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to give a trial acting inhaled bronchodilator for up to 3 times. This is because wheezing and either fast breathing or chest indrawing are signs of respiratory distress in a child. Inhaled bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, providing relief from wheezing and improving breathing. Giving a trial of the bronchodilator up to 3 times allows for assessment of its effectiveness in relieving the symptoms. If the symptoms do not improve or worsen, the child should be urgently referred to the hospital for further evaluation and management. Assessing vital signs is important, but the immediate intervention should be the administration of the bronchodilator. Giving Vitamin A may be beneficial for respiratory health in general, but it is not the most appropriate immediate action in this case.

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  • 6. 

    Dysentery is classified if:

    • A.

      There is dehydration.

    • B.

      Stools are watery.

    • C.

      Fast breathing is present.

    • D.

      There is blood in the stool.

    Correct Answer
    D. There is blood in the stool.
    Explanation
    Dysentery is classified based on the presence of blood in the stool. This is a key symptom that distinguishes dysentery from other gastrointestinal conditions. Dehydration, watery stools, and fast breathing may also be present in dysentery, but they are not specific to this condition and can be observed in other illnesses as well. Therefore, it is the presence of blood in the stool that is the defining characteristic of dysentery.

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  • 7. 

    All these are signs of severe dehydration except ________________. 

    • A.

      Restlessness

    • B.

      Sunken eyes

    • C.

      Skin pinch goes back very slowly

    • D.

      Abnormally sleepy

    Correct Answer
    A. Restlessness
    Explanation
    Restlessness is not a sign of severe dehydration. Severe dehydration is characterized by symptoms such as sunken eyes, slow skin pinch, and abnormal sleepiness. Restlessness is more commonly associated with conditions like anxiety or hyperactivity. Therefore, restlessness does not fit the pattern of symptoms seen in severe dehydration.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of plan would the nurse instruct to a child who was classified with sever dehydration?

    • A.

      Plan A

    • B.

      Plan B

    • C.

      Plan C

    • D.

      Plan D

    Correct Answer
    C. Plan C
    Explanation
    The nurse would instruct Plan C to a child classified with severe dehydration because it is the most appropriate plan for this condition. Plan C likely includes interventions such as intravenous fluids, close monitoring of vital signs, electrolyte replacement, and rehydration strategies to address the severity of dehydration.

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  • 9. 

    If child has not enough signs to classify as some or sever dehydration, the child will be classified as what?

    • A.

      Severe Dehydration

    • B.

      Mild Dehydration

    • C.

      Some Dehydration

    • D.

      No Dehydration

    Correct Answer
    D. No Dehydration
    Explanation
    If the child does not exhibit enough signs to be classified as either severe or some dehydration, it means that the child does not show any signs of dehydration at all. Therefore, the child will be classified as having no dehydration.

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  • 10. 

    Patient tifa, 5 months old has diarrhea for already 16 days. You also notice that dehydration is present. This could be classified as?

    • A.

      Severe Dehydration

    • B.

      Severe Persistent Diarrhea

    • C.

      Some Dehydration

    • D.

      Persistent Diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    B. Severe Persistent Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the patient, Tifa, is a 5-month-old with diarrhea for 16 days and dehydration. Severe Persistent Diarrhea is the most appropriate classification because the symptoms have been present for an extended period, and the presence of dehydration indicates a more severe form of diarrhea. Some Dehydration would not be accurate as the symptoms suggest a more severe condition. Persistent Diarrhea alone does not capture the severity of the symptoms, while Severe Dehydration does not encompass the duration of the condition.

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  • 11. 

    Which of these could be a treatment for Dysentery?

    • A.

      Give Vitamin A

    • B.

      Give ORS and zinc supplements

    • C.

      Give multivatamins and minerals

    • D.

      Give ciprofloxacin for 3 days

    Correct Answer
    D. Give ciprofloxacin for 3 days
    Explanation
    Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections, including certain types of dysentery. Dysentery is an infection of the intestines that causes severe diarrhea with blood and mucus in the stool. Giving ciprofloxacin for 3 days can help to eliminate the bacteria causing the infection and alleviate the symptoms of dysentery. This treatment is often effective in clearing the infection and reducing the duration and severity of the illness. However, it is important to note that the use of antibiotics should be guided by a healthcare professional and should only be used when necessary to avoid antibiotic resistance.

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  • 12. 

    All of the following options are signs of measles except ____________. 

    • A.

      Generalized rash

    • B.

      Stiff neck

    • C.

      Cough or runny nose

    • D.

      Red eyes

    Correct Answer
    B. Stiff neck
    Explanation
    Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects the respiratory system. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes, and a generalized rash that spreads all over the body. While a stiff neck can be a symptom of other viral infections, it is not typically associated with measles. Therefore, a stiff neck is not considered a sign of measles.

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  • 13. 

    Patient Dahna has no runny nose, no measles and no other causes of fever but has malaria risk. This could be classified as?

    • A.

      Malaria

    • B.

      Fever: Malaria likely

    • C.

      Very Severe febrile disease/malaria

    • D.

      Fever: No Malaria

    Correct Answer
    B. Fever: Malaria likely
    Explanation
    The given patient, Dahna, has no symptoms of a runny nose or measles, which are common causes of fever. However, there is a risk of malaria. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for this situation would be "Fever: Malaria likely." This suggests that while there is a possibility of malaria, it is not the confirmed cause of the fever in this case.

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  • 14. 

    Treatment for very severe febrile disease/malaria with malaria risk would be?

    • A.

      Give one dose of paracetamol

    • B.

      Give first dose of quinine

    • C.

      Treat the child with an oral antimalarial

    • D.

      Give Vitamin A

    Correct Answer
    B. Give first dose of quinine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to give the first dose of quinine. Quinine is an antimalarial medication that is commonly used in the treatment of severe febrile diseases, including malaria. It is effective in killing the malaria parasite and reducing fever. Giving the first dose of quinine is crucial in order to start the treatment as soon as possible and prevent the progression of the disease. Paracetamol can be used to reduce fever, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the febrile disease. Treating the child with an oral antimalarial is also important, but it should be done after giving the first dose of quinine. Vitamin A may be beneficial for the child's overall health, but it is not specifically indicated for the treatment of severe febrile diseases or malaria.

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  • 15. 

    Patient ulfo has measles for the last three months. There is pus draining from his right eye. This can be classified as

    • A.

      Measles with eye or mouth complications

    • B.

      Severe Complicated measles

    • C.

      Severe complicated measles with eye or mouth complications

    • D.

      Measles

    Correct Answer
    A. Measles with eye or mouth complications
    Explanation
    The patient ulfo has measles for the last three months and is experiencing pus draining from his right eye. This indicates that the measles has resulted in complications in the eye or mouth area. Therefore, the correct classification for this condition would be "Measles with eye or mouth complications."

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  • 16. 

    If pus is draining from the eye, what should the nurse do?

    • A.

      Give the child aspirin

    • B.

      Give Vitamin A

    • C.

      Apply tetracycline

    • D.

      Treat with gentian violet

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply tetracycline
    Explanation
    If pus is draining from the eye, applying tetracycline would be the appropriate action for the nurse to take. Tetracycline is an antibiotic medication that can be used to treat bacterial infections, including those that may be causing the pus drainage. By applying tetracycline, the nurse can help to eliminate the bacteria and reduce the symptoms of the infection. This can help to prevent the infection from spreading further and promote healing in the affected eye.

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  • 17. 

    If mouth ulcers are present, the nurse should _________________. 

    • A.

      Give the child aspirin

    • B.

      Give Vitamin A

    • C.

      Apply Tetracycline

    • D.

      Treat with gentian violet

    Correct Answer
    D. Treat with gentian violet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to treat with gentian violet. Gentian violet is a topical antiseptic that can help to relieve pain and promote healing of mouth ulcers. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Vitamin A may have some benefits for oral health, but it is not specifically indicated for mouth ulcers. Tetracycline is an antibiotic that may be used for certain infections, but it is not typically used for mouth ulcers.

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  • 18. 

    Patient alfina was observed to have tender swelling behind the ear, this can be classified as _______________. 

    • A.

      Acute Ear Infection

    • B.

      Chronic Ear Infection

    • C.

      Mastoiditis

    • D.

      Ear Infection

    Correct Answer
    C. Mastoiditis
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of tender swelling behind the ear are indicative of mastoiditis. Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid bone, which is located behind the ear. It commonly occurs as a complication of untreated or inadequately treated acute ear infections. The swelling and tenderness in this area are caused by the inflammation and infection spreading to the mastoid bone. Therefore, mastoiditis is the most appropriate classification for the patient's condition based on the given information.

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  • 19. 

    You have observed pus draining from the ear of patient emelius and discharge is reported for less than 14 days. This can be classified as: 

    • A.

      Acute Ear Infection

    • B.

      Chronic Ear Infection

    • C.

      Mastoiditis

    • D.

      Ear Infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute Ear Infection
    Explanation
    The observation of pus draining from the ear of the patient, Emelius, along with the reported discharge for less than 14 days indicates an acute ear infection. Acute ear infections typically present with symptoms such as ear pain, fluid drainage, and temporary hearing loss. The duration of less than 14 days suggests that the infection is in its early stages and has not progressed to a chronic condition. Mastoiditis, on the other hand, refers to a complication of untreated or severe ear infections characterized by inflammation of the mastoid bone. Therefore, the correct classification for this scenario is an acute ear infection.

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  • 20. 

    Treatment for chronic ear infection would be ____________________. 

    • A.

      Give antibiotic for 5 days and dry the ear by wicking

    • B.

      Give aspirin

    • C.

      Instill quinolone otic drops and dry the ear by wicking

    • D.

      Give first dose of antibiotic and paracetamol for pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Instill quinolone otic drops and dry the ear by wicking
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to instill quinolone otic drops and dry the ear by wicking. This treatment approach is appropriate for chronic ear infections. Quinolone otic drops are a type of antibiotic medication specifically formulated for ear infections. Instilling these drops directly into the ear helps to target and eliminate the infection. Drying the ear by wicking helps to remove any excess moisture, which can contribute to the development and persistence of ear infections. This combination of instilling the drops and drying the ear helps to effectively treat chronic ear infections.

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  • 21. 

    Treatment for acute ear infection would be _________________________. 

    • A.

      Give antibiotic for 5 days and dry the ear by wicking

    • B.

      Give aspirin

    • C.

      Instill quinolone otic drops and dry the ear by wicking

    • D.

      Give first dose of antibiotic and paracetamol for pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Give antibiotic for 5 days and dry the ear by wicking
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to give antibiotic for 5 days and dry the ear by wicking. This is the appropriate treatment for acute ear infection as antibiotics help to eliminate the infection-causing bacteria, while drying the ear by wicking helps to remove excess moisture and promote healing. Giving aspirin is not recommended as it can increase the risk of Reye's syndrome in children. Instilling quinolone otic drops may be an option in some cases, but it is not the first-line treatment. Giving the first dose of antibiotic and paracetamol for pain may provide some relief, but a full course of antibiotics is necessary to completely treat the infection.

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  • 22. 

    Patient Luna is 4 months old and has visible severe wasting and edema on both feet. This can be classified as ________________. 

    • A.

      Severe Malnutrition

    • B.

      Very Low Weight

    • C.

      Not very low weight

    • D.

      Low weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Severe Malnutrition
    Explanation
    The given scenario describes a 4-month-old patient, Luna, who has visible severe wasting and edema on both feet. These symptoms indicate severe malnutrition. Severe malnutrition is characterized by significant weight loss, muscle wasting, and edema due to a lack of essential nutrients. The other options, such as very low weight, not very low weight, and low weight, do not accurately describe the severity of Luna's condition as indicated by the visible wasting and edema.

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  • 23. 

    Patient Anya is observed to have some palmar pallor. This can be classified as ___________. 

    • A.

      No Anemia

    • B.

      Malnutrition

    • C.

      Severe Anemia

    • D.

      Anemia

    Correct Answer
    D. Anemia
    Explanation
    The observation of palmar pallor in Patient Anya indicates a decreased amount of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, which is a characteristic of anemia. Anemia is a condition where the body lacks enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to the tissues. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and pale skin. Therefore, the presence of palmar pallor suggests that Patient Anya has anemia.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these could be a proper treatment of anemia?

    • A.

      Give vitamin A

    • B.

      Give Iron and Albendazole/Mebendazole if child 1 year or older

    • C.

      Give Aspirin

    • D.

      Increase fluid intake

    Correct Answer
    B. Give Iron and Albendazole/Mebendazole if child 1 year or older
    Explanation
    A proper treatment for anemia could be giving Iron and Albendazole/Mebendazole if the child is 1 year or older. Iron is essential for the production of red blood cells, and Albendazole/Mebendazole can help treat any underlying parasitic infections that may be causing the anemia. This treatment approach addresses the potential causes of anemia and aims to improve the child's red blood cell count and overall health. Giving vitamin A, aspirin, or increasing fluid intake may not directly address the underlying cause of anemia and may not be effective in treating the condition.

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  • 25. 

    How often should every child receive Albendazole/Mebendazole as part of routine worm treatment?

    • A.

      2 months from the age of one year

    • B.

      9 months from the age of one year

    • C.

      6 months from the age of one year

    • D.

      9 weeks from the age of one year

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 months from the age of one year
    Explanation
    Routine worm treatment with Albendazole or Mebendazole involves administering the medication every six months starting at the age of one year. This biannual schedule helps prevent worm infestations and associated complications like malnutrition, anemia, and growth delays. By targeting common parasitic infections, the treatment supports the child’s overall health and development. Regular deworming also reduces the transmission of worms in communities, contributing to better public health outcomes.

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  • 26. 

    What is the first-line antibiotic for pneumonia, mastoiditis, or very severe disease?

    • A.

      Cotrimoxazole

    • B.

      Amoxicillin

    • C.

      Penicillin

    • D.

      Ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    B. Amoxicillin
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin is the preferred antibiotic for pneumonia, mastoiditis, and severe infections due to its efficacy against bacteria commonly causing these conditions. It works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial death. Amoxicillin’s broad-spectrum action, safety, and cost-effectiveness make it the first choice in most treatment guidelines. Additionally, it is well-absorbed when taken orally, ensuring effective results even in outpatient settings. Cotrimoxazole, Penicillin, and Ciprofloxacin are alternatives but are generally reserved for specific scenarios or resistant infections.

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  • 27. 

    What is the first-line antibiotic for cholera?

    • A.

      Tetracycline

    • B.

      Ciprofloxacine

    • C.

      Albendazole

    • D.

      Cotrimoxazole

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is the first-line treatment for cholera because of its efficacy against Vibrio cholerae, the bacterium causing the disease. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, halting bacterial growth. Tetracycline effectively reduces diarrhea duration and bacterial shedding in stool, minimizing disease transmission. It is safe for most patients and has a well-established role in managing cholera outbreaks. Ciprofloxacin and Cotrimoxazole are used in specific cases or resistance settings, while Albendazole targets parasitic infections, not bacterial ones like cholera.

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  • 28. 

    What is the first-line oral antimalarial?

    • A.

      Chloroquine

    • B.

      Sulfadoxine

    • C.

      Pyramethamine

    • D.

      Artemether

    Correct Answer
    D. Artemether
    Explanation
    Artemether is a fast-acting and highly effective oral antimalarial commonly used to treat uncomplicated malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum. It is typically administered in combination with lumefantrine for enhanced efficacy. Artemether disrupts the parasite's life cycle by damaging its membranes and metabolic processes. This rapid action ensures prompt symptom relief and parasite clearance. Other drugs like Chloroquine and Sulfadoxine are effective for certain malaria strains but are not first-line due to widespread resistance. Pyrimethamine is used in preventive therapy, not primary treatment.

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  • 29. 

    How many Vitamin A capsules (200,000 IU) should be given to a child aged 12 months to 5 years?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      1/2

    Correct Answer
    C. 1
    Explanation
    Children aged 12 months to 5 years should receive one Vitamin A capsule (200,000 IU) as a periodic supplementation dose. This dose prevents vitamin A deficiency, which can lead to serious health issues like blindness, weakened immunity, and increased mortality. Administering one capsule provides an adequate amount to support vision, immune function, and overall health for several months. Higher doses could cause toxicity, while lower doses or no supplementation may not meet the child’s needs.

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  • 30. 

    At what age should a child receive the first dose of the measles vaccine?

    • A.

      6 months

    • B.

      9 months

    • C.

      12 months

    • D.

      18 months

    Correct Answer
    B. 9 months
    Explanation
    The first dose of the measles vaccine is typically administered at 9 months of age to provide protection against the measles virus. By this age, maternal antibodies that protect infants during the first few months of life have significantly waned, allowing the vaccine to be more effective. Administering the vaccine earlier, such as at 6 months, may not generate a strong immune response due to the presence of residual maternal antibodies. Delaying it until 12 or 18 months increases the risk of infection, especially in regions with high measles prevalence.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 15, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 03, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Grandwing
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