Stephen Reinbold has a PhD in Biological Sciences and a strong passion for teaching. He taught various subjects including General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri, for nearly thirty years. He focused on scientific methodology and student research projects. Now retired, he works part-time as an editor and engages in online activities.
, PhD (Biological Sciences)
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Welcome to the ITEC Anatomy and Physiology Quiz! Are you ready to test your knowledge of the human body's structure and function? This quiz covers a range of topics related to anatomy and physiology, including the skeletal system, muscular system, cardiovascular system, nervous system, and more.
Whether you're studying for an ITEC certification exam or simply interested in learning more about the human body, this quiz offers a comprehensive assessment of your understanding of anatomical structures and physiological processes. So, grab a pen and paper, and let's see how well you know your anatomy and physiology! Are you ready to Read morebegin? Let's get started and explore the amazing complexity of the human body!
ITEC Anatomy and Physiology Questions and Answers
1.
Define the function of the erector pili muscle.
A.
Cause the hair follicle to stand erect (goose pimples)
B.
Constrict the flow of blood to the epidermis
C.
The layer of muscle found below the dermis
D.
Pumps sebum to the surface of the skin
Correct Answer
A. Cause the hair follicle to stand erect (goose pimples)
Explanation The erector pili muscle is responsible for causing the hair follicle to stand erect, resulting in the formation of goose pimples. When this muscle contracts, it pulls the hair follicle upright, causing the hair to stand on end. This response is often triggered by cold temperatures, fear, or emotional stimuli.
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2.
Define sebum.
A.
Milky fluid found in the axilla and groin
B.
Sweat (water) that controls body temperature
C.
A fatty acid that keeps the skin moist and lubricates the hair shaft
D.
Alkaline solution that balances the Ph level of the skin
Correct Answer
C. A fatty acid that keeps the skin moist and lubricates the hair shaft
Explanation Sebum is a fatty acid that keeps the skin moist and lubricates the hair shaft. It is produced by the sebaceous glands in the skin. This oily substance helps to moisturize the skin and hair, preventing them from becoming dry and brittle. Sebum also acts as a natural barrier, protecting the skin from external pollutants and bacteria. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall health and appearance of the skin and hair.
Correct Answer
B. Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Germinativum
Explanation The layers of the skin are arranged in a specific order. The outermost layer is the Corneum, which is composed of dead skin cells that provide protection. The next layer is the Lucidum, which is only present in thick skin and adds an extra layer of protection. Below the Lucidum is the Granulosum, where the cells start to flatten and produce keratin. The Spinosum layer comes next, where the cells have spiny projections that help with cell adhesion. Finally, the innermost layer is the Germinativum, also known as the Basal layer, which contains stem cells that continuously divide to produce new skin cells.
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4.
The skin produces two products, these are
A.
Melatonin and Vitamin D
B.
Vitamin E and Myelin
C.
Melanin and Vitamin E
D.
Melanin and Vitamin D
Correct Answer
D. Melanin and Vitamin D
Explanation The skin produces two products, melanin and vitamin D. Melanin is a pigment responsible for giving color to the skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of the sun's ultraviolet (UV) rays. Vitamin D is produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight and plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health. Therefore, the correct answer is melanin and vitamin D.
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5.
Choose the correct answer. A bacterial infection causing thin roofed blisters, which weep and leave a thick, yellow crust. It is highly contagious. What is the diagnosis?
A.
Impetigo
B.
Warts
C.
Psoriasis
D.
Carcinoma
Correct Answer
A. Impetigo
Explanation The given symptoms of thin roofed blisters, weeping, and yellow crust are characteristic of impetigo. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection that commonly affects the skin. It is caused by bacteria entering the skin through cuts or insect bites. The blisters can burst and form a thick, yellow crust. Warts, psoriasis, and carcinoma do not present with the same symptoms described in the question.
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6.
If you were to supinate your arm, you would
A.
Turn it to face downwards
B.
Move it away from the body
C.
Turn it to face upwards
D.
Move it towards the body
Correct Answer
C. Turn it to face upwards
Explanation When you supinate your arm, you rotate your forearm and hand in such a way that the palm faces upward or forward. This movement involves the rotation of the radius bone over the ulna bone, resulting in the palm turning to face upwards. Therefore, the correct answer is "Turn it to face upwards."
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7.
Which of the following doesn't contain involuntary muscle?
A.
Digestive system
B.
Heart
C.
Respiratory system
D.
Genito-urinary system
Correct Answer
D. Genito-urinary system
Explanation The correct answer is the Genito-urinary system. The digestive system, heart, and respiratory system all contain involuntary muscles. The genito-urinary system primarily consists of organs like the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra, which do not contain significant amounts of involuntary muscle tissue.
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8.
Where would you find the sternocleidomastoid?
A.
Across the top of the shoulders
B.
Upper back
C.
Chest
D.
Running up the neck
Correct Answer
D. Running up the neck
Explanation The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a long, narrow muscle that runs up the sides of the neck. It originates from the sternum and clavicle and inserts into the mastoid process of the skull. This muscle helps with various movements of the head and neck, such as rotating and tilting the head.
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9.
What is the function of the orbicularis oculi?
A.
Raise the corner of the mouth
B.
Rotates the head
C.
Closes the eyelid
D.
Plantarflexes the ankle
Correct Answer
C. Closes the eyelid
Explanation The function of the orbicularis oculi is to close the eyelid. This muscle is responsible for blinking and protecting the eye from foreign objects or excessive light. When the orbicularis oculi contracts, it causes the eyelid to close, covering the eye and providing a barrier of protection.
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10.
What is the cause of fibrositis/fibromyalgia?
A.
A build up of lactic acid in the muscle
B.
Over exertion
C.
Sodium depletion
D.
Scar tissue that has not healed
Correct Answer
B. Over exertion
Explanation The cause of fibrositis is typically attributed to overexertion. It's a condition characterized by inflammation of the fibrous or connective tissue, often resulting from repetitive stress or strain on the affected muscles or tendons.
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11.
Where would you typically find simple squamous epithelium?
A.
Lining the circulatory system
B.
Lining the stomach
C.
Lining the respiratory system
D.
Lining the bladder
Correct Answer
A. Lining the circulatory system
Explanation Simple Squamous epithelium is a type of tissue that is thin and flat, consisting of squamous cells. It is typically found lining the circulatory system, specifically the inner surface of blood vessels such as arteries and veins. This type of epithelium provides a smooth surface that allows for easy blood flow and helps prevent clotting. It also aids in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between blood and surrounding tissues.
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12.
When a cell reproduces and divides, the term is
A.
Meiosis
B.
Osmosis
C.
Mitosis
D.
Melanosis
Correct Answer
C. Mitosis
Explanation When a cell reproduces and divides, the process is called mitosis. Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells, each having the same number and type of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of multicellular organisms. Meiosis, on the other hand, is a type of cell division that occurs in reproductive cells to produce gametes (sperm and egg cells) with half the number of chromosomes. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane, and melanosis refers to the abnormal production of melanin pigment.
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13.
Define adipose tissue.
A.
Loose connective tissue
B.
Semi-solid tissue
C.
Elastic tissue
D.
Fatty tissue
Correct Answer
D. Fatty tissue
Explanation Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue that is primarily composed of fat cells, or adipocytes. Its main function is to store energy in the form of fat, as well as to cushion and insulate the body. It is commonly referred to as fatty tissue due to its high fat content.
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14.
Choose the term that matches the definition. The transfer of a substance by pressure, when the concentration of the substance on one side of the membrane is greater than the other. The transference stops when an equal concentration has been achieved.
A.
Filtration
B.
Osmosis
C.
Diffusion
D.
Dissolution
Correct Answer
C. Diffusion
Explanation Diffusion is the process by which substances move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is reached, where the concentrations are equal on both sides of the membrane or barrier. This movement occurs due to the random motion of molecules and doesn't require external pressure.
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15.
What is the majority of a cell made up of?
A.
Carbohydrates
B.
Cytoplasm
C.
Protoplasm
D.
Nucleus
Correct Answer
B. Cytoplasm
Explanation The majority of a cell is made up of cytoplasm. Cytoplasm is a jelly-like substance that fills the cell and contains various organelles, such as mitochondria and ribosomes. It also serves as a medium for cellular processes, including metabolism and protein synthesis. Carbohydrates are important components of cells, but they do not make up the majority of the cell. The nucleus is a small structure within the cell that contains genetic material, while protoplasm is a general term used to describe the living contents of a cell, including the cytoplasm and nucleus.
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16.
How many vertebrae form the spine?
A.
33
B.
37
C.
29
D.
34
Correct Answer
A. 33
Explanation The correct answer is 33. The human spine is made up of 33 vertebrae, which are divided into five regions: cervical (7 vertebrae), thoracic (12 vertebrae), lumbar (5 vertebrae), sacral (5 fused vertebrae), and coccygeal (4 fused vertebrae). These vertebrae provide support and flexibility to the spine, allowing for movement and protection of the spinal cord.
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17.
Which is NOT a good example of a long bone?
A.
Metatarsals
B.
Ribs
C.
Femur
D.
Radius
Correct Answer
B. Ribs
Explanation Ribs are not a good example of a long bone because they are flat and curved, unlike long bones which are typically straight and cylindrical in shape. Long bones, such as the femur, radius, and metatarsals, are characterized by their elongated structure with a shaft and two distinct ends. Ribs, on the other hand, are flat bones that form the ribcage and protect the organs in the thoracic cavity. Therefore, ribs do not meet the criteria of a long bone.
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18.
Where would I find the occipital bone?
A.
In the orbital cavity
B.
The jaw The ankle
C.
Back of the cranium
Correct Answer
C. Back of the cranium
Explanation The occipital bone is located at the back of the cranium. It forms the lower part of the skull and helps protect the brain and spinal cord. It also provides attachment points for various muscles and ligaments.
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19.
What is the cause of osteoporosis ?
A.
Growing old
B.
Calcium deficiency
C.
Stress
D.
Autoimmune disease
Correct Answer
B. Calcium deficiency
Explanation Calcium deficiency is the cause of osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones. Adequate calcium intake is essential for maintaining bone density and strength. When the body does not get enough calcium from the diet, it starts to withdraw calcium from the bones, leading to their deterioration over time. This can eventually result in osteoporosis, especially in older individuals who may have reduced calcium absorption and increased bone loss. Growing old, stress, and autoimmune diseases can contribute to the development of osteoporosis, but calcium deficiency is the primary cause.
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20.
Where would be a good example of a pivot joint?
A.
Between the atlas and axis cervical vertebrae
B.
Elbow
C.
Between the carpals and tarsals
D.
Hip
Correct Answer
A. Between the atlas and axis cervical vertebrae
Explanation A pivot joint allows for rotation around a central axis. The atlas and axis cervical vertebrae in the neck are a good example of a pivot joint because they allow for the head to rotate from side to side. This joint is responsible for the movement that allows us to turn our head to look in different directions.
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21.
Which endocrine gland secretes hormones like insulin and glucagon?
A.
Pineal
B.
Thyroid Pituitary
C.
Pancreas
Correct Answer
C. Pancreas
Explanation The pancreas secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which are involved in regulating blood sugar levels. Insulin helps to lower blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, while glucagon raises blood sugar levels by promoting the release of stored glucose from the liver. These hormones are essential for maintaining proper glucose balance in the body, and their secretion is regulated by the pancreas. Therefore, the correct answer is Pancreas.
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22.
What is the function of thyroxine?
A.
Regulation of water absorption
B.
Stimulates the contractions of the uterus
C.
Controls metabolic rate
D.
Regulates salts in the body
Correct Answer
C. Controls metabolic rate
Explanation Thyroxin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that plays a crucial role in controlling the body's metabolic rate. It regulates the rate at which the body uses energy, affects growth and development, and helps maintain body temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is that thyroxin controls metabolic rate.
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23.
Where are the adrenal glands found?
A.
Either side of the neck
B.
The base of the brain
C.
In the thorax
D.
Superior to the kidneys
Correct Answer
D. Superior to the kidneys
Explanation The adrenal glands are found superior to the kidneys. They are small, triangular-shaped glands that sit on top of each kidney. These glands are responsible for producing important hormones such as adrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone. Their location above the kidneys allows them to have direct access to the bloodstream, making it easier for them to release hormones into the body when needed.
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24.
What does PMS stand for?
A.
Pre Menstrual Syndrome
B.
Pre Monster Syndrome
C.
Post Menopausal Syndrome
D.
Post Menstrual Syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Pre Menstrual Syndrome
Explanation PMS stands for Pre Menstrual Syndrome, which refers to a combination of physical, emotional, and psychological symptoms that some women experience before their menstrual period. These symptoms can include mood swings, irritability, bloating, breast tenderness, and fatigue. The term "pre" indicates that these symptoms occur before the onset of menstruation. Therefore, the correct answer is Pre Menstrual Syndrome.
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25.
What is the effect of amenorrhoea?
A.
Menstruation ever 23 weeks
B.
Absence of menstruation
C.
Muscular atrophy
D.
The patient becomes hirsuit
Correct Answer
B. Absence of menstruation
Explanation The effect of amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Amenorrhea refers to the condition where a woman does not experience menstrual periods. This can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, pregnancy, breastfeeding, excessive exercise, stress, or certain medical conditions. Absence of menstruation can have various implications on a woman's reproductive health and may require medical evaluation and treatment.
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26.
What is the function of thrombocytes?
A.
Transport of nutrients
B.
Protect the body from infection
C.
Blood Clotting
D.
Solvent in the blood
Correct Answer
C. Blood Clotting
Explanation Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, play a crucial role in blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, thrombocytes quickly gather at the site to form a plug, preventing excessive bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for wound healing and preventing blood loss. Therefore, the function of thrombocytes is blood clotting.
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27.
As you look at the diagram of the heart - what is the top right-hand chamber called?
A.
Right atrium
B.
Left atrium
C.
Right ventricle
D.
Left ventricle
Correct Answer
B. Left atrium
Explanation The top right-hand chamber of the heart is called the left atrium.
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28.
Which chamber of the heart does oxygenated blood return to?
A.
Right atrium
B.
Left atrium
C.
Right ventricle
D.
Left venticle
Correct Answer
B. Left atrium
Explanation The oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium of the heart. After oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood is carried by the pulmonary veins back to the left atrium. From there, it is pumped into the left ventricle and then distributed to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation.
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29.
Which is the main artery that supplies blood to the legs?
A.
Tibial
B.
Renal
C.
Brachial
D.
Femoral
Correct Answer
D. Femoral
Explanation The main artery that supplies blood to the legs is the femoral artery. It is one of the largest arteries in the body and originates from the iliac arteries in the lower abdomen. The femoral artery travels down the thigh and provides blood flow to the lower extremities, including the legs.
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30.
What term best describes inflammation of a vein?
A.
Phlebitis
B.
Atherosclerosis
C.
Haemorrhoids
D.
Thrombus
Correct Answer
A. pHlebitis
Explanation Phlebitis is the correct answer because it refers to the inflammation of a vein. Atherosclerosis is the build-up of plaque in the arteries, not inflammation of a vein. Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the rectum or anus, not veins. Thrombus is a blood clot, not inflammation of a vein. Therefore, phlebitis is the most appropriate answer for the given description.
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31.
How do lymphatic capillaries differ from vascular capillaries?
A.
They do not differ
B.
They are not porous
C.
They are not continuous, they have a blind end
D.
They are held open with hoops of hyaline cartilage
Correct Answer
C. They are not continuous, they have a blind end
Explanation Lymphatic capillaries differ from vascular capillaries because they are not continuous and have a blind end. Unlike vascular capillaries, which form a continuous network throughout the body, lymphatic capillaries have gaps between their cells, allowing for the entry of larger molecules and cells. Additionally, lymphatic capillaries have a blind end, meaning they do not connect directly to larger lymphatic vessels but instead drain into lymph nodes. This unique structure allows lymphatic capillaries to collect excess fluid and waste products from tissues and transport them back to the bloodstream.
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32.
What is one of the functions of lymph?
A.
Transport oxygen to the tissue
B.
Adds lymphocytes to the blood
C.
Transport carbon dioxide from tissues
D.
Regulates fluid levels in the body.
Correct Answer
D. Regulates fluid levels in the body.
Explanation The lymphatic system is responsible for maintaining fluid balance in the body. One of its main functions is to bathe the tissues in plasma, which helps to remove waste products, deliver nutrients, and support the immune system. This process helps to keep the tissues healthy and functioning properly.
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33.
How is lymph circulated?
A.
It is pumped by the heart
B.
The spleen pumps lymph
C.
Gravity draws it to the hands and feet, where it is returned to the bloodstream
D.
A combination of skeletal muscle contraction and smooth muscle constrictions in the vessels
Correct Answer
D. A combination of skeletal muscle contraction and smooth muscle constrictions in the vessels
Explanation Lymph is circulated through a combination of skeletal muscle contraction and valves in the veins. Skeletal muscles surrounding the lymphatic vessels contract and squeeze the lymph forward, while valves in the veins prevent the backflow of lymph. This process helps to move the lymph towards the heart, where it can be returned to the bloodstream.
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34.
What is the function of lymph nodes?
A.
The filter lymph only
B.
To produce new lymphocytes only
C.
A point of reentry to the bloodstream for the lymph fluid
D.
To filter lymph and produce new lymphocytes
Correct Answer
D. To filter lympH and produce new lympHocytes
Explanation Lymph nodes have two main functions. First, they act as filters for lymph, which is a clear fluid that carries waste products, bacteria, and damaged cells away from tissues. The lymph nodes contain immune cells that help to remove these harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream. Second, lymph nodes also produce new lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. These new lymphocytes help to fight off infections and other diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is that the function of lymph nodes is to filter lymph and produce new lymphocytes.
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35.
Which part of the brain has control over cardiac output?
A.
Cerebrum
B.
Cerebellum
C.
Medulla oblongata
D.
Pons varolii
Correct Answer
C. Medulla oblongata
Explanation The medulla oblongata is responsible for controlling cardiac output. It is located at the base of the brainstem and acts as a relay station between the brain and the spinal cord. The medulla oblongata contains vital centers that regulate various involuntary functions, including heart rate and blood pressure. It receives information from the body's sensors and adjusts the cardiac output accordingly to maintain homeostasis.
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36.
Define dendrites.
A.
A long single nerve fiber
B.
Nerve fibers - like branches that transmit nerve impulses
C.
The center of the neuron A
D.
Point where one neuron meets another
Correct Answer
B. Nerve fibers - like branches that transmit nerve impulses
Explanation Dendrites are nerve fibres that resemble branches and are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses. They extend from the cell body of a neuron and receive signals from other neurons or sensory receptors. These signals are then transmitted to the cell body, where they are integrated and processed before being sent to other neurons. Dendrites play a crucial role in the communication between neurons and are essential for the functioning of the nervous system.
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37.
What does the peripheral nervous system do?
A.
Transmits information (sensory and motor) to and from the body
B.
Stimulates the body's involuntary organs
C.
Slows down the body
D.
Transmission of the sensory information only
Correct Answer
A. Transmits information (sensory and motor) to and from the body
Explanation The peripheral nervous system is responsible for transmitting information, both sensory and motor, to and from the body. This means that it carries signals from the sensory organs to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret the world around us. It also carries signals from the brain to the muscles and organs, enabling us to move and perform various bodily functions. Therefore, the correct answer is that the peripheral nervous system transmits information to and from the body.
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38.
Name a reaction of the nervous system outside the control of the brain.
A.
Digestion
B.
Respiration
C.
Reflexes
D.
Heartbeat
Correct Answer
C. Reflexes
Explanation Reflexes are reactions of the nervous system that occur automatically and without conscious thought. They are controlled by the spinal cord and peripheral nerves, rather than the brain. Reflexes help protect the body by quickly responding to potential danger or harm. Examples of reflexes include the knee-jerk reflex, where the leg kicks out when the knee is tapped, and the gag reflex, which helps prevent choking.
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39.
What would be a symptom of Bell's palsy?
A.
Pain down the lower back and leg
B.
Tremor Loss of coordination
C.
Facial paralysis
Correct Answer
C. Facial paralysis
Explanation The correct answer is facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. It is usually temporary and can cause drooping of the mouth or eyelid, difficulty closing the eye, or a drooping appearance of the face. Pain down the lower back and leg, tremor, and loss of coordination are not symptoms typically associated with Bell's palsy.
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Stephen Reinbold |PhD (Biological Sciences)|
Biology Instructor
Stephen Reinbold has a PhD in Biological Sciences and a strong passion for teaching. He taught various subjects including General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri, for nearly thirty years. He focused on scientific methodology and student research projects. Now retired, he works part-time as an editor and engages in online activities.
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