Jj Ure 2 Non D
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Unit Review Exercises 2 NDI
- 1.
(201) What form is the physical structure of metal?
- A.
Crystalline
- B.
Solid solution
- C.
Mechanical mixture
- D.
Combination solid solution
Correct Answer
A. CrystallineExplanation
The correct answer is "Crystalline." Metals have a crystalline structure, meaning that their atoms are arranged in a regular, repeating pattern. This arrangement gives metals their characteristic properties, such as high conductivity and malleability. The atoms in a metal lattice are closely packed together, allowing for the movement of electrons, which contributes to the metal's ability to conduct electricity.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) The process of improving a metal's characteristics by altering its grain structure is known as
- A.
Casting
- B.
Machining
- C.
Heat-treating
- D.
Cold working
Correct Answer
C. Heat-treatingExplanation
Heat-treating is the process of improving a metal's characteristics by altering its grain structure. This is achieved by heating the metal to a specific temperature and then cooling it rapidly or slowly, depending on the desired outcome. Heat-treating can enhance the metal's hardness, strength, toughness, and other properties, making it more suitable for various applications. It is commonly used in industries such as automotive, aerospace, and manufacturing to enhance the performance and durability of metal components.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(202) Maximum toughness obtains proper balance in all of these properties except
- A.
Strength
- B.
Hardness
- C.
Elasticity
- D.
Plasticity
Correct Answer
A. StrengthExplanation
Maximum toughness refers to the ability of a material to withstand impact without breaking. It is a combination of strength, hardness, elasticity, and plasticity. However, strength refers to the ability of a material to withstand an applied force without deformation or failure. Therefore, strength is not directly related to toughness and does not contribute to achieving proper balance in all of these properties.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(202) Which of the following properly illustrates the relationship between mechanical properties in metal?
- A.
As hardness increases, elasticity increases
- B.
As hardness increases, toughness increases
- C.
As hardness decreases, brittleness decreases
- D.
As hardness decreases, tensile strength increases
Correct Answer
C. As hardness decreases, brittleness decreasesExplanation
As the hardness of a metal decreases, it becomes less brittle. This means that the metal is less likely to break or fracture when subjected to stress or impact. This relationship suggests that a softer metal is more ductile and able to withstand deformation without breaking.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(203) Within the Aluminum Association 1xxx number group, what does the first digit indicate?
- A.
Aluminum group
- B.
Major alloying element
- C.
Special controls for impurities
- D.
Metal containing at least 99 percent pure aluminum
Correct Answer
D. Metal containing at least 99 percent pure aluminumExplanation
The first digit in the 1xxx number group within the Aluminum Association indicates that the metal contains at least 99 percent pure aluminum. This classification system is used to identify different alloys of aluminum based on their composition.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(203) What three methods are used to produce tempered aluminum?
- A.
Cold working, heat-treating, and a combination of both
- B.
Hardness, work-hardened alloys, and aluminum alloys
- C.
Cold working, work-hardened alloys, and aluminum alloys
- D.
Aluminum alloys, heat-treating, and a combination of both
Correct Answer
A. Cold working, heat-treating, and a combination of bothExplanation
The correct answer is "Cold working, heat-treating, and a combination of both". Tempered aluminum is produced through a combination of cold working and heat-treating processes. Cold working involves deforming the metal at room temperature, which increases its strength and hardness. Heat-treating, on the other hand, involves heating the metal to a specific temperature and then cooling it rapidly or slowly to achieve desired properties. The combination of both processes allows for the production of tempered aluminum with improved strength, hardness, and other desired characteristics.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(204) The term nondestructive inspection (NDI) indication refers to
- A.
A discontinuity
- B.
A defect in a part
- C.
Changes in a parts mechanical properties
- D.
Evidence of a response resulting from a process
Correct Answer
D. Evidence of a response resulting from a processExplanation
The term nondestructive inspection (NDI) indication refers to evidence of a response resulting from a process. This means that during the inspection, certain changes or indications are observed that provide evidence of a response or reaction that has occurred as a result of a process. It does not necessarily mean that there is a discontinuity or defect in a part, or that there are changes in the mechanical properties of a part. Instead, it focuses on the evidence of a response that can be observed during the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(204) In metallurgy, which of the following is not a discontinuity?
- A.
Weld
- B.
Seam
- C.
Crack
- D.
Lap
Correct Answer
A. WeldExplanation
A weld is not a discontinuity in metallurgy because it is a permanent joining of two or more pieces of metal through the application of heat or pressure. It is a deliberate and controlled process that aims to create a strong and continuous bond between the metal pieces. On the other hand, a seam, crack, and lap are all types of discontinuities in metallurgy. A seam refers to a line or groove formed by joining two pieces of metal, a crack is a fracture or separation in the metal, and a lap is an overlap between two metal surfaces.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(205) Which discontinuity is created by the melting and original solidification of a metal into an ingot?
- A.
Service
- B.
Inherent
- C.
Processing
- D.
Mechanical
Correct Answer
B. InherentExplanation
The correct answer is "Inherent." When a metal is melted and then solidified into an ingot, it undergoes a change in its internal structure. This process creates an inherent discontinuity, meaning that there is a break or interruption in the metal's uniformity. This can lead to variations in the metal's properties and can affect its overall strength and performance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(205) Which of the following is not a defect of the wrought process?
- A.
Laps
- B.
Bursts
- C.
Flakes
- D.
Inclusions
Correct Answer
D. InclusionsExplanation
Inclusions are not a defect of the wrought process. Inclusions refer to impurities or foreign materials that are trapped within the metal during the manufacturing process. These impurities can weaken the metal and affect its properties. However, inclusions are not specific to the wrought process and can occur in other manufacturing processes as well. Defects of the wrought process include laps, which are caused by folding or overlapping of metal during forging; bursts, which are caused by excessive pressure or stress during forming; and flakes, which are caused by improper heat treatment or excessive cold working of the metal.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(205) What is another name for slag?
- A.
Porosity
- B.
Inclusion
- C.
Cold Shut
- D.
Lamination
Correct Answer
B. InclusionExplanation
Slag is another name for inclusion in metallurgy. Inclusions are impurities or foreign materials that are trapped within a metal during the manufacturing process. Slag refers specifically to the waste material that is produced during the smelting or refining of metals. It is typically a mixture of impurities and non-metallic materials that are separated from the desired metal. Slag can negatively impact the quality and properties of the metal, so it is important to minimize its presence in order to ensure a high-quality final product.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(205) Which defects are usually easier to detect because they nearly always appear on the surface of the finished part?
- A.
Inherent
- B.
Segregation
- C.
Primary processing
- D.
Secondary processing
Correct Answer
D. Secondary processingExplanation
Secondary processing refers to the additional manufacturing operations performed on a finished part, such as polishing, coating, or painting. These operations are usually done on the surface of the part, making it easier to detect any defects that may have occurred during this stage. In contrast, inherent defects are present within the material itself and may not be visible on the surface, while segregation refers to the non-uniform distribution of elements within a material, which may or may not be visible on the surface. Primary processing refers to the initial manufacturing operations, which may or may not result in defects that are easily detectable on the surface.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(206) The reason fatigue failure is progressive is that when a crack begins,
- A.
Its ability to advance is increased by stress concentration, although the rate of stress can vary
- B.
Its ability to advance is increased by stress dispersal, and the rate of stress remains the same
- C.
Progression is relatively slow, even under repeated stress in concentrated areas
- D.
Progression is usually instantaneous, even under varying conditions
Correct Answer
A. Its ability to advance is increased by stress concentration, although the rate of stress can varyExplanation
When a crack begins, its ability to advance is increased by stress concentration. Stress concentration occurs when there is a localized increase in stress due to factors such as sharp corners, changes in geometry, or material defects. This increased stress concentration at the crack tip makes it easier for the crack to propagate and grow. However, the rate of stress can vary, meaning that the crack may advance at different speeds depending on the applied stress levels.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(206) Fatigue cracks usually run
- A.
Parallel to the direction of applied stress
- B.
Parallel to the longitudinal axis of the part
- C.
Perpendicular to the direction of applied stress
- D.
Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the part
Correct Answer
C. Perpendicular to the direction of applied stressExplanation
Fatigue cracks typically occur perpendicular to the direction of applied stress. This is because fatigue cracks are caused by repeated loading and unloading of a material, which leads to the formation of small cracks that grow over time. These cracks tend to propagate in a direction that is perpendicular to the applied stress, as this is where the material experiences the highest levels of stress concentration. Therefore, the correct answer is perpendicular to the direction of applied stress.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(206) Stress corrosion is caused by
- A.
An electrolyte
- B.
Oxygen concentration
- C.
Tensile stress and corrosion
- D.
Dissimilar metals in contact
Correct Answer
C. Tensile stress and corrosionExplanation
Stress corrosion occurs when a material is subjected to both tensile stress and corrosion simultaneously. Tensile stress refers to the stretching or pulling force applied to a material, while corrosion is the process of gradual deterioration of a material due to chemical reactions with its environment. When these two factors act together, they can weaken the material and lead to cracking or failure. An electrolyte, oxygen concentration, and dissimilar metals in contact can contribute to corrosion but are not the main causes of stress corrosion.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(207) The potential for discontinuities is increased by the
- A.
Brittleness associated with very hard steel
- B.
Composition of metals used in manufacturing
- C.
Stress applied across the load of a cross-sectional area
- D.
Welding process used to attach two pieces of metals together
Correct Answer
D. Welding process used to attach two pieces of metals togetherExplanation
The welding process used to attach two pieces of metals together can increase the potential for discontinuities. This is because during welding, the metal is heated and melted, and then solidifies again. This heating and cooling process can create stress and introduce defects such as cracks or voids in the welded joint, leading to potential discontinuities.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(207) The two basic processes used to weld parts together are
- A.
Fusion and brazing
- B.
Adhesion and fusion
- C.
Fusion and soldering
- D.
Adhesion and soldering
Correct Answer
B. Adhesion and fusionExplanation
The correct answer is adhesion and fusion. Adhesion refers to the process of joining two parts together by using an adhesive material, such as glue or epoxy. Fusion, on the other hand, involves melting the materials being joined and allowing them to solidify, creating a strong bond. Both adhesion and fusion are commonly used processes in welding to join parts together.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(208) An experimentation and demonstration process designed by engineers to gather results from actual inspections is referred to as a probability of detection (POD)
- A.
Study
- B.
Curve
- C.
Policy
- D.
Theory
Correct Answer
A. StudyExplanation
The given correct answer is "study". This is because the question is asking for a term that describes a process designed by engineers to gather results from actual inspections. A study is a systematic investigation or examination of a subject, in this case, the probability of detection (POD). Therefore, a study is the most appropriate term to describe the experimentation and demonstration process mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(208) The probability of detection (POD) curve may not be used for which basis?
- A.
Selection of an applicable nondestructive inspection (NDI) procedure
- B.
Scheduling maintenance when required due to malfuntions
- C.
Personnel performance evaluation/qualification
- D.
Establishing design acceptance requirements
Correct Answer
A. Selection of an applicable nondestructive inspection (NDI) procedureExplanation
The probability of detection (POD) curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the probability of detecting a flaw and the flaw size. It is commonly used in nondestructive testing to evaluate the performance of inspection procedures and equipment. However, it is not used for the selection of an applicable nondestructive inspection (NDI) procedure. The selection of an NDI procedure involves considering factors such as the type of material, the specific flaw being sought, and the equipment and techniques available. The POD curve is used to assess the performance of the chosen procedure, not to select it.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(209) The purpose of pre-cleaning parts is to remove
- A.
Light soils and contaminants
- B.
All chemical agents
- C.
Paint
- D.
Rust
Correct Answer
A. Light soils and contaminantsExplanation
The purpose of pre-cleaning parts is to remove light soils and contaminants. This is important because these substances can accumulate on the parts and affect their performance or cause damage over time. By removing these light soils and contaminants before further processing or assembly, the parts can be properly prepared and ensure optimal functioning.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(209) Light oil contamination on a part being inspected can cause
- A.
Uncontrollable glare during visual inpections
- B.
Reduced wear of eddy current inspection probe tips
- C.
Contamination and damage to ultrasonic transducers
- D.
Contamination of penetrant or magnectic inspection solutions
Correct Answer
D. Contamination of penetrant or magnectic inspection solutionsExplanation
Light oil contamination on a part being inspected can cause contamination of penetrant or magnetic inspection solutions. Light oil can mix with the penetrant or magnetic solution, contaminating it and affecting its effectiveness. This can lead to inaccurate or unreliable inspection results, as the contaminated solution may not properly adhere to the surface or detect any defects present. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the part being inspected is free from any light oil contamination to maintain the integrity of the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(209) One characteristic of a detergent cleaner is that it must be
- A.
Acidic
- B.
Alkaline
- C.
Nonabrasive
- D.
Noncorrosive
Correct Answer
D. NoncorrosiveExplanation
A detergent cleaner must be noncorrosive because it is used to clean various surfaces and materials without causing any damage or corrosion. Corrosive cleaners can be harmful to the objects being cleaned and can cause them to deteriorate or lose their functionality. Therefore, a noncorrosive detergent cleaner is essential to ensure effective cleaning while protecting the integrity of the surfaces and materials being cleaned.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(209) Paint removers can be a
- A.
Bond release agent, solvent, dissolving solution, or a combination
- B.
Solvent, bond release agent, softening agent, or a combination
- C.
Water-based chemical, softening agent, and organic solvent
- D.
Solvent and bond release agent only
Correct Answer
B. Solvent, bond release agent, softening agent, or a combinationExplanation
The correct answer states that paint removers can be a solvent, bond release agent, softening agent, or a combination of these. This means that paint removers can function as a solvent to dissolve the paint, a bond release agent to break the bond between the paint and the surface, and a softening agent to make the paint easier to remove. It also suggests that paint removers can have a combination of these properties, meaning they can have multiple functions to effectively remove paint.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(209) Which of the following is not a result of mechanical cleaning methods?
- A.
Longer work times
- B.
Increased metal loss
- C.
Obscuring small cracks
- D.
Etching of critical surfaces
Correct Answer
D. Etching of critical surfacesExplanation
Mechanical cleaning methods involve physically removing dirt, debris, or contaminants from a surface. These methods typically do not involve any chemical reactions that could cause etching of critical surfaces. Therefore, etching of critical surfaces is not a result of mechanical cleaning methods.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(210) Which of the following identifies nondestructive inspection (NDI) requirements from least to most cleanliness required?
- A.
Eddy current, ultrasonic, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant
- B.
Ultrasonic, eddy current, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant
- C.
Liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, ultrasonic, eddy current
- D.
Liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic
Correct Answer
A. Eddy current, ultrasonic, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant -
- 26.
(211) Nondestructive inspection (NDI) techniques are defined as specific instructions for evaluating
- A.
Discontinuities, manufacturer flaws, and serviceability
- B.
Quantity, properties, discontinuities, and reliability
- C.
Intervals, dimensions, and manufacturer flaws
- D.
Quality, integrity, properties, and dimensions
Correct Answer
D. Quality, integrity, properties, and dimensionsExplanation
Nondestructive inspection (NDI) techniques are used to evaluate the quality, integrity, properties, and dimensions of a material or product without causing any damage. These techniques allow for the detection of discontinuities, manufacturer flaws, and the assessment of serviceability. By focusing on these aspects, NDI techniques help ensure that the inspected item meets the required standards and is suitable for its intended purpose.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(211) Which of the following is not a reason for a backup nondestructive inspection (NDI) method in a technical order?
- A.
Verify findings
- B.
Detect secondary defects
- C.
Replace primary methods
- D.
More precisely assess a defect
Correct Answer
C. Replace primary methodsExplanation
The reason for a backup nondestructive inspection (NDI) method in a technical order is not to replace primary methods. Backup NDI methods are used to verify findings, detect secondary defects, and more precisely assess a defect. They are not intended to replace the primary methods of inspection.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(212) When considering non-standard equipment for your new inspection technique, what must you ensure?
- A.
It is listed on the AS455
- B.
It is the correct manufacturer
- C.
The response from the unit is accurate
- D.
All nondestructive inspection (NDI) labs have the same unit
Correct Answer
A. It is listed on the AS455Explanation
When considering non-standard equipment for a new inspection technique, it is important to ensure that the equipment is listed on the AS455. This means that the equipment has been approved and meets the necessary standards and requirements for use in inspections. By using equipment listed on the AS455, you can ensure that the equipment is reliable and suitable for the inspection technique being used.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(212) Which form do you use to submit your new nondestructive inspection (NDI) technique for review and publication?
- A.
AF Form 22
- B.
AF Form 242
- C.
AFTO Form 22
- D.
AFTO Form 242
Correct Answer
D. AFTO Form 242Explanation
The correct answer is AFTO Form 242. This form is used to submit new nondestructive inspection (NDI) techniques for review and publication. It is the appropriate form to document and provide details about the technique, allowing for proper evaluation and potential implementation in the future.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(213) Which nondestructive inspection (NDI) techniques are approved by the laboratory supervisor?
- A.
Visual inspections
- B.
Support equipment inspections
- C.
Nonaircraft equipment inspections
- D.
Techniques using nonstandard equipment
Correct Answer
B. Support equipment inspectionsExplanation
The laboratory supervisor approves support equipment inspections as a nondestructive inspection (NDI) technique. This means that the supervisor authorizes and oversees inspections of the equipment used to support operations in the laboratory. These inspections are important to ensure that the support equipment is functioning properly and can effectively assist in conducting NDI tests.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(213) Who adds, revises, or supplements your submitted technique in order to produce a workable procedure?
- A.
Air Force Nondestructive inspection (NDI) program manager
- B.
Office of primary responsibility for the technical orders (TO)
- C.
Air Logistics Center (ALC) NDI program managers
- D.
Major command NDI program manager
Correct Answer
C. Air Logistics Center (ALC) NDI program managersExplanation
The Air Logistics Center (ALC) NDI program managers add, revise, or supplement the submitted technique in order to produce a workable procedure. They are responsible for managing the Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) program at the Air Logistics Centers, ensuring that the techniques used are effective and meet the necessary standards.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(214) What is the distance a magnifier can be moved toward or away from the specimen and retain a good image called?
- A.
Zoom angle
- B.
Optical depth
- C.
Depth of field
- D.
Magnification field
Correct Answer
C. Depth of fieldExplanation
Depth of field refers to the distance between the nearest and farthest points in an image that appear acceptably sharp. In the context of a magnifier, the depth of field is the range of distances at which the magnifier can be moved toward or away from the specimen while still maintaining a clear and focused image. This term is commonly used in photography and microscopy to describe the area in focus, and it is crucial for obtaining a sharp image.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(214) What type of indication has sharp and jagged lines that follow the grain boundaries?
- A.
Scratch
- B.
Crack
- C.
Weld crack
- D.
Corrosion
Correct Answer
A. ScratchExplanation
Sharp and jagged lines that follow the grain boundaries indicate a scratch. A scratch occurs when a hard object is dragged across a surface, causing the material to be removed and leaving behind a visible mark. The sharp and jagged lines are the result of the scratching action, which follows the natural pattern of the material's grain boundaries.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(214) What ratings are engraved on auxiliary lenses, eyepieces, and calibrated zoom control knobs?
- A.
Total magnification
- B.
Initial magnification
- C.
Auxiliary magnification
- D.
Operating magnification
Correct Answer
B. Initial magnificationExplanation
The correct answer is "Initial magnification". Auxiliary lenses, eyepieces, and calibrated zoom control knobs are engraved with the initial magnification, which refers to the starting level of magnification provided by these components. This initial magnification can be adjusted or further increased using the zoom control knobs.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(214) Which does not determine the type of borescope you will need for your lab?
- A.
Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) equipment
- B.
Specific weapon systems
- C.
Aircraft engines
- D.
Missiles
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) equipmentExplanation
The type of borescope needed for a lab is determined by the specific applications and requirements of the lab. Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) equipment refers to the support equipment used for aircraft maintenance and operations on the ground, and it does not directly determine the type of borescope needed for the lab. On the other hand, specific weapon systems, aircraft engines, and missiles are all specific applications that may require different types of borescopes for inspection and maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(214) Which type of borescopes are the most commonly used in the Air Force?
- A.
Chamberscopes
- B.
Rigid borescopes
- C.
Waterproof borescopes
- D.
Video inspection borescopes
Correct Answer
B. Rigid borescopesExplanation
Rigid borescopes are the most commonly used in the Air Force because they are durable and provide high-quality images. They are designed to withstand harsh environments and can be used for a wide range of inspection tasks. Rigid borescopes are also easier to maneuver and control compared to other types of borescopes, making them ideal for use in aircraft maintenance and inspections.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(215) What do you use to clean optical lenses that have a protective coating?
- A.
Water
- B.
Zylene
- C.
Alcohol
- D.
Lens paper
Correct Answer
A. WaterExplanation
Water is the correct answer because optical lenses with a protective coating can be easily cleaned with water. Using harsh chemicals or solvents like zylene or alcohol can damage the protective coating, so it is best to avoid them. Lens paper can also be used to gently clean the lenses, but water is a safe and effective option for regular cleaning.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(215) When the stereo-microscope is not in use, its eyepieces should always be kept installed
- A.
Under a cover
- B.
On the power body
- C.
In a protective case
- D.
Next to the microscope
Correct Answer
B. On the power bodyExplanation
The correct answer is "on the power body". When the stereo-microscope is not in use, it is important to keep its eyepieces installed on the power body. This helps to protect the eyepieces from dust, damage, or misplacement. By keeping the eyepieces on the power body, they are easily accessible and ready for use when needed.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(216) What are desirable qualities within a penetrant?
- A.
Low surfaces tension and a large contact angle
- B.
High surface tension and a large contact angle
- C.
Low surface tension and good wetting ability
- D.
High surface tension and good wetting ability
Correct Answer
D. High surface tension and good wetting abilityExplanation
The desirable qualities within a penetrant are high surface tension and good wetting ability. High surface tension allows the penetrant to spread evenly and thoroughly over the surface being tested, ensuring that all potential defects are covered. Good wetting ability ensures that the penetrant can enter and fill any cracks or flaws in the material being tested, enhancing the detection of defects.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(216) What generates forces to draw a penetrant into cracks?
- A.
Viscosity
- B.
Wetting ability
- C.
Surface tension
- D.
Capillary action
Correct Answer
D. Capillary actionExplanation
Capillary action is the correct answer because it is the phenomenon that causes a liquid to rise in a narrow space against the force of gravity. In the context of the question, capillary action generates forces that draw a penetrant into cracks by allowing the liquid to flow into the narrow spaces due to the adhesive and cohesive forces between the liquid molecules and the crack surfaces. This action is driven by the surface tension of the liquid, which allows it to spread and fill the cracks effectively.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(216) What chemical property is required to dissolve and hold the dyes in a solution?
- A.
Toxicity
- B.
Removability
- C.
Solvent ability
- D.
Water tolerance
Correct Answer
C. Solvent abilityExplanation
The correct answer is solvent ability. Solvent ability refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve other substances, in this case, dyes. Dyes are typically insoluble in water and require a solvent to dissolve and hold them in a solution. Therefore, a chemical property that is required to dissolve and hold the dyes in a solution is solvent ability.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(216) What sensitivity level of penetrant is ultra-high?
- A.
Level 3
- B.
Level 4
- C.
Level 5
- D.
Level 6
Correct Answer
B. Level 4Explanation
The sensitivity level of penetrant is determined by its ability to detect small defects or cracks on the surface of a material. In this case, Level 4 is considered ultra-high sensitivity because it has the highest level of sensitivity among the options provided. This means that penetrant at Level 4 can detect even the smallest defects or cracks on the surface, making it the most sensitive option.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(217) Type I penetrant process employs
- A.
Dual mode materials
- B.
Visible dye materials
- C.
Fluorescent materials
- D.
Water-washable materials
Correct Answer
C. Fluorescent materialsExplanation
The correct answer is fluorescent materials because the Type I penetrant process utilizes materials that contain fluorescent dyes. These dyes are designed to enhance the visibility of any surface defects or cracks that may be present. When the penetrant is applied to the surface, it seeps into any cracks or defects, and then excess penetrant is removed. A developer is then applied, which helps to draw out any remaining penetrant from the cracks or defects. The fluorescent dyes in the penetrant make it easier to detect these defects under ultraviolet light, improving the overall inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(217) What is a method C penetrant inspection?
- A.
Lipophilic
- B.
Hydrophilic
- C.
Water-washable
- D.
Solvent removable
Correct Answer
D. Solvent removableExplanation
A method C penetrant inspection refers to a type of inspection technique where the penetrant used can be removed by a solvent. This means that after the penetrant is applied to the surface being inspected, it can be easily removed by using a solvent, leaving behind any indications or defects that may have been detected. This method is commonly used in non-destructive testing to identify surface discontinuities and flaws in various materials.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(217) The system concept applies to what materials of a penetrant system?
- A.
Penetrants, emulsifiers, and developers
- B.
Developers and emulsifiers
- C.
Penetrants and emulsifiers
- D.
Developers and penetrants
Correct Answer
C. Penetrants and emulsifiersExplanation
The system concept applies to penetrants and emulsifiers. The system concept refers to the combination of different materials that work together to achieve a specific function or result. In the case of a penetrant system, the penetrant and emulsifier are the key components that work together to detect and highlight defects or flaws in materials. The penetrant is applied to the surface of the material, and the emulsifier helps to draw out and make the defects more visible. Therefore, both penetrants and emulsifiers are essential elements of the penetrant system.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(217) What is the maximum dwell time of an aqueous developer?
- A.
15 minutes
- B.
30 minutes
- C.
45 minutes
- D.
60 minutes
Correct Answer
D. 60 minutesExplanation
The maximum dwell time of an aqueous developer is 60 minutes. Dwell time refers to the amount of time that a substrate or material is exposed to a specific process or treatment. In the case of an aqueous developer, it is the time that a substrate is immersed in the developer solution to develop an image. The longer the dwell time, the more time the developer has to react with the substrate and produce the desired image. Therefore, a longer dwell time allows for more complete and thorough development, resulting in a higher quality image.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(218) In the hydrophilic process, what is the concentration range of hydrophilic remover in water?
- A.
5 to 35 percent
- B.
5 to 45 percent
- C.
10 to 35 percent
- D.
10 to 45 percent
Correct Answer
A. 5 to 35 percentExplanation
In the hydrophilic process, the concentration range of hydrophilic remover in water is 5 to 35 percent. This means that the hydrophilic remover should be mixed with water in a concentration ranging from 5 to 35 percent in order to effectively carry out the hydrophilic process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(218) What type of developer consists of inert particles in water?
- A.
Dry powder
- B.
Nonaqueous
- C.
Water-soluble
- D.
Water-suspended
Correct Answer
D. Water-suspendedExplanation
A water-suspended developer consists of inert particles that are suspended in water. This means that the particles are evenly distributed throughout the water and do not dissolve. This type of developer is commonly used in various industries, such as photography or printing, where the particles need to be suspended in water for specific applications.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(219) What should you wear in case you mistakenly press the penetrant spray nozzle with the opening pointing back at you?
- A.
Gloves
- B.
Dosimeter
- C.
Welder's goggles
- D.
Chemical goggles
Correct Answer
D. Chemical gogglesExplanation
In case you mistakenly press the penetrant spray nozzle with the opening pointing back at you, you should wear chemical goggles. Chemical goggles provide protection for your eyes from any potential splashes or sprays of chemicals. Wearing them can help prevent any harmful substances from coming into contact with your eyes, reducing the risk of injury or irritation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(219) Aerosol cans can burst when heated to temperatures above
- A.
100 degrees F
- B.
120 degrees F
- C.
140 degrees F
- D.
160 degrees F
Correct Answer
B. 120 degrees FExplanation
Aerosol cans can burst when heated to temperatures above 120 degrees F because the pressure inside the can increases as the temperature rises. At temperatures above 120 degrees F, the pressure may become too high for the can to contain, causing it to burst.Rate this question:
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Jul 02, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Apr 28, 2020Quiz Created by
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