1.
Which one is not a binder?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Life
B. Health
C. Disability
Explanation
Life, Health, and Disability are all types of insurance policies that provide coverage for different aspects of an individual's well-being. They are not binders, which typically refer to temporary insurance contracts that provide immediate coverage until a formal policy is issued.
2.
What is a contract law?
Correct Answer
C. Insurance policies are legal contracts - personal contracts between the policyowner and the insurer
Explanation
A contract law refers to the body of law that governs agreements between two or more parties, establishing their rights and obligations. In the context of insurance policies, they are considered legal contracts as they involve an agreement between the policyowner and the insurer. The policyowner purchases the insurance policy and pays premiums, while the insurer agrees to provide coverage and pay out claims in accordance with the terms and conditions outlined in the policy. This makes insurance policies personal contracts between the policyowner and the insurer.
3.
What is a tort law?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Protects against the wrongful invasion of another person's rights giving rise to legal liabilities (lawsuits) that are settled in civil court.
B. Concerns itself with private (civil) wrongs that are independent of contract law and committed against individuals.
D. Most torts are covered by liability insurance
Explanation
Tort law is a branch of law that protects individuals against the wrongful invasion of their rights, which can result in legal liabilities or lawsuits. It specifically deals with private wrongs that are independent of contract law and are committed against individuals. Additionally, it is worth noting that most torts are covered by liability insurance, which provides financial protection in case of legal claims arising from tortious acts.
4.
What are the elements of a contract?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Agreement, offer, and acceptance
C. Competent parties
D. Legal purpose
E. Consideration
Explanation
The elements of a contract include agreement, offer, and acceptance, which means that both parties must come to a mutual understanding and agree on the terms of the contract. Competent parties are also required, meaning that both parties must have the legal capacity to enter into a contract. Additionally, the contract must have a legal purpose, meaning that it cannot be for an illegal or immoral activity. Lastly, consideration is necessary, which refers to something of value that is exchanged between the parties, such as money or goods.
5.
What is contract of adhesion?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Take or leave it, no negotiation, ambiguous or vague the courts will rule in favor of insured or beneficiary.
C. Insured must adhere (is stuck) with insurers terms.
Explanation
A contract of adhesion refers to a type of contract where one party, usually the insurer, presents standardized terms and conditions to the other party, typically the insured, on a take-it-or-leave-it basis. The insured is not able to negotiate or modify the terms of the contract and must adhere to the terms set by the insurer. In case of any ambiguity or vagueness in the contract, the courts will generally rule in favor of the insured or beneficiary. Therefore, the insured is bound by the terms set by the insurer and has limited bargaining power in such contracts.
6.
What is a conditional contract?
Correct Answer
B. Certain conditions must me bet by the insured or beneficiary in order to make the contract enforceable.
Explanation
A conditional contract refers to a contract in which certain conditions must be met by the insured or beneficiary in order for the contract to be enforceable. These conditions could include requirements such as timely premium payments, adherence to policy terms and conditions, or fulfilling specific obligations stated in the contract. By meeting these conditions, the insured or beneficiary ensures that the contract remains valid and the insurer is obligated to provide coverage as agreed upon.
7.
What is an aleatory contract?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dependent upon the occurrence or happening of an uncertain event.
C. The chance for both insured or insurer and the dollar values exchanged may not be equal.
Explanation
An aleatory contract is a type of contract that is dependent upon the occurrence or happening of an uncertain event. In this type of contract, the chance for both the insured or insurer and the dollar values exchanged may not be equal. This means that the outcome of the contract and the amount of money involved can vary depending on the uncertain event.
8.
What is a unilateral contract?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Only the insurer makes a promise.
C. Where there is an exchange of an act (paying premium) for a promise
Explanation
A unilateral contract is a type of contract where only one party, in this case the insurer, makes a promise. The insured is not required to make a promise, but instead performs an act, such as paying a premium, in exchange for the promise made by the insurer. This means that the insured is not obligated to do anything further once the premium is paid, and the insurer is bound to fulfill their promise.
9.
What is a personal contract?
Correct Answer(s)
A. A personal agreement between the insurer and the insured
C. Cannot be assigned (transferred without insurer's consent
Explanation
A personal contract refers to an agreement between the insurer and the insured. It is a specific contract that is tied to an individual and cannot be transferred or assigned to another person without the consent of the insurer. This means that the contract follows the insured person and cannot be transferred to someone else without the insurer's permission.
10.
What is utmost good faith?
Correct Answer
B. Each party has a reasonable expectation that the other is not attempting to conceal, disguise, or conceal relevant information and material facts.
Explanation
Utmost good faith refers to the principle in which each party involved in a contract or agreement has a reasonable expectation that the other party is not trying to hide or misrepresent any important information or facts. This means that both parties are expected to be transparent and honest in their dealings, ensuring that all relevant information is disclosed. This principle promotes trust and fairness in contractual relationships.
11.
What is indemnity?
Correct Answer
C. Pays amount equal to the loss
Explanation
Indemnity refers to a form of compensation or reimbursement provided to an individual or entity for a loss or damage suffered. In this context, the correct answer states that indemnity pays an amount equal to the loss. This means that the indemnifying party will provide financial compensation that matches the actual amount of the loss incurred, ensuring that the affected party is fully reimbursed for their damages.
12.
What is a valued contract?
Correct Answer
A. Pays a stated sum, regardless of the actual loss incurred, when a covered loss occurs.
Explanation
A valued contract is a type of insurance contract that pays a predetermined sum of money regardless of the actual loss incurred when a covered loss occurs. This means that the insured party will receive a fixed amount of compensation, regardless of the actual financial impact of the loss. This type of contract provides a certain level of financial security to the insured party, as they know they will receive a specific amount in the event of a covered loss.
13.
What is executory contract?
Correct Answer
C. Promises described in the insurance contract are to be executed in the future, and only after certain events (losses) occur.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Promises described in the insurance contract are to be executed in the future, and only after certain events (losses) occur." This answer accurately describes an executory contract in the context of insurance. In an executory contract, the promises made in the contract are not immediately performed, but rather are to be executed in the future, specifically after certain events or losses occur. This means that the insurance company is obligated to fulfill their promises only when the specified events or losses happen.
14.
What is an insurance policy?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Broad principles which forms all insurance policies are Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith and the Doctrine of Reasonable Expectations.
B. A written instrument in which a contract of insurance is set forth, outlining the obligations and responsibilities of the insured and the insurer
Explanation
An insurance policy is a written instrument that outlines the obligations and responsibilities of both the insured and the insurer in a contract of insurance. It serves to protect the insured from financial losses. The broad principles that form all insurance policies are the Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith and the Doctrine of Reasonable Expectations. These principles ensure that both parties act honestly and fairly in their dealings and that the insured's reasonable expectations are met.
15.
What is fraud?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Act of deceit or misrepresentation of a material fact made knowingly, with the intention of having another person rely on the fact and consequently suffer a financial hardship.
C. An intentional and fraudulent omission, on the part of one insured, to communicate information of matters, proving or tending to prove the falsity of a warrant, entitles the insurer to rescind (void).
D. Both insurers and their agents, while they are investigating suspected fraud claims, shall have access to all relevant public records that are required to be open for inspection available to them under existing law.
Explanation
Fraud is defined as an act of deceit or misrepresentation of a material fact made knowingly, with the intention of causing another person to rely on the false information and suffer a financial loss. It can also include intentionally withholding information that would prove the falsity of a claim. In order to investigate suspected fraud claims, both insurers and their agents are allowed access to relevant public records that are required to be open for inspection under existing law.
16.
What is the punishment for fraud?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Imprisonment for 1 year in county jail, or state prison for two, three, or five years.
C. Fine of 150,000 or double the value of fraud, whichever is greater
D. Both fine and imprisonment
E. Anyone who violates this law and who has prior conviction of this offense must serve two additional years for each prior conviction
Explanation
The punishment for fraud includes imprisonment for 1 year in county jail, or state prison for two, three, or five years. Additionally, there is a fine of 150,000 or double the value of fraud, whichever is greater. The offender may face both fine and imprisonment as punishment. Furthermore, if the person has a prior conviction for this offense, they must serve two additional years for each prior conviction.
17.
What is concealment?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Neglecting to communicate that which party knows and out to communicate
C. Can be intentional or unintentional to entitle the party to void.
D. Failure to fully disclose all pertinent information.
Explanation
Concealment refers to the act of neglecting to communicate information that one party knows and should communicate to the other party. It can be intentional or unintentional, but regardless, it entitles the injured party or insurer to void insurance. In other words, if one party fails to fully disclose all relevant and important information, it can result in the invalidation of an insurance policy.
18.
What is materiality?
Correct Answer(s)
A. The importance of the information withheld.
C. Determined by whether it is probably and reasonable to assume that the fact will influence the other parties estimate of the proposed contract's disadvantages or makes inquires about the contract.
Explanation
Materiality refers to the significance or importance of the information that is being withheld. It is determined by whether it is likely and reasonable to assume that the fact will have an impact on the other party's assessment of the disadvantages of the proposed contract or if they would inquire about the contract. In other words, materiality is based on whether the information is relevant enough to potentially affect the decision-making process of the other party involved in the contract.
19.
Which information does not need to be communicated?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Known information
B. Information that should be known
D. Information which the other party waives
E. Information that is not material to the risk
Explanation
The information that does not need to be communicated is known information, information that should be known, information which the other party waives, and information that is not material to the risk. This means that any information that is already known, should be known, is waived by the other party, or is not relevant to the risk does not need to be communicated.
20.
What is a warranty?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Can be expressed in writing or implied (not in writing).
C. Representation in an insurance contract qualifies as an implied warranty
D. Found in property and casualty insurance only
E. Statements that guaranteed to be absolutely true.
Explanation
A warranty can be expressed in writing or implied, meaning it can be explicitly stated in a contract or understood without being written down. This implies that a warranty does not have to be in writing. Additionally, a representation in an insurance contract can qualify as an implied warranty, meaning it can be considered a guarantee even if not explicitly mentioned. Warranties can be found in property and casualty insurance, indicating that they are not limited to any specific type of insurance. Lastly, warranties are statements that are guaranteed to be absolutely true, emphasizing their importance and reliability.
21.
What is materiality?
Correct Answer
A. The rule used to determine the importance of a misrepresentation.
Explanation
Materiality refers to the rule used to determine the importance of a misrepresentation. In the context of accounting and auditing, materiality is a concept that helps determine whether a misstatement or omission in financial statements would impact the decision-making of users. If a misrepresentation is considered material, it means it is significant enough to potentially influence the judgment of users. Materiality is a subjective judgment based on the nature and size of the misrepresentation, as well as the needs of the users of the financial information.
22.
What are representations?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Oral or written statements to the one's best belief or knowledge
C. Made at the time of application or before issuance.
D. Are implied warranties only
E. Could be considered a promise
F. Same as materiality of concealment
G. False when it fails to correspond with assertions.
H. Can be altered or withdrawn before the insurance is issued, but not after wards.
Explanation
Representations are oral or written statements made by an individual based on their best belief or knowledge. These statements are made at the time of application or before issuance. Representations can be considered as implied warranties and could be seen as a promise. They are also closely related to the materiality of concealment. A representation is false when it fails to correspond with assertions. It is important to note that representations can be altered or withdrawn before the insurance is issued, but not afterwards.
23.
What is misrepresentation?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cannot misrepresent policy terms, benefits or privilege, and future dividends payable under the policy.
B. A mislead in comparison that induces the person to take out a policy, refuse to accept a policy, or lapse, forfeit, or surrender a policy in order to purchase another policy from a different insurer. This is known as twisting
Explanation
Misrepresentation refers to providing false or misleading information about policy terms, benefits, privileges, and future dividends that can be obtained under the policy. It also includes inducing someone to take out a policy, refuse to accept a policy, or surrender a policy in order to purchase another policy from a different insurer, which is known as twisting. It is important to note that misrepresentation can only occur if it is intentional.
24.
What is the penalties for misrepresentation or twisting?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fine up to 25,000 or up to 3 times the amount of the victim's loss.
C. If its a misdemeanor if the loss exceeds 10,000, or up to 1 year in county jail or both fine and imprisonment
D. Can have license suspended up to 3 years.
E. An insurer can have their certificate of authority suspended in that class of insurance
Explanation
The penalties for misrepresentation or twisting include a fine of up to $25,000 or up to 3 times the amount of the victim's loss. If it is classified as a misdemeanor and the loss exceeds $10,000, the penalty can be up to 1 year in county jail or both a fine and imprisonment. Additionally, the offender's license can be suspended for up to 3 years, and an insurer can have their certificate of authority suspended in the specific class of insurance.
25.
What are the requirements for policies?
Correct Answer(s)
A. The parties between whom the contract is made
B. The property or life insured
C. The interest of the insured in property insured, if he/she is not the absolute owner
E. The risks insured against
F. The period during which the insurance is continued
G. Either a statement of the premium or if the insurance is the type where the exact premium can only be determined upon termination of the contract, a statement of the basis, and rates upon which the final premium is to be determined and paid
Explanation
The requirements for policies include identifying the parties involved in the contract, specifying the property or life that is insured, stating the insured's interest in the property if they are not the owner, listing the risks that are covered by the insurance, indicating the duration of the insurance coverage, and providing information about the premium. In cases where the exact premium can only be determined at the end of the contract, the basis and rates for calculating the final premium should be stated.
26.
What is rescission?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Terminated or voided from the beginning and treated as if it had never existed
B. The revocation of a contract
Explanation
Rescission refers to the termination or voiding of a contract, treating it as if it had never existed from the beginning. This means that all obligations and rights under the contract are canceled, and both parties are released from their respective duties. The revocation of a contract is another way to describe rescission. It is important to note that both parties have the ability to perform rescission at any time.
27.
When does the insurer has the right of rescission?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Intentional or unintentional
B. Committing an intentional or fraudulent omission to communicate information of matters proving or lending to prove the falsity of a warranty
D. When the time of the representation becomes false
E. Violation of a material warranty or other material provision of a policy
Explanation
The insurer has the right of rescission in cases of intentional or unintentional acts, such as committing an intentional or fraudulent omission to communicate information that proves the falsity of a warranty. Additionally, if the time of the representation becomes false or there is a violation of a material warranty or other material provision of a policy, the insurer can exercise the right of rescission.
28.
What is an application?
Correct Answer
B. A formal written request sometimes referred to as an offer, by the applicant to the insurer requesting a policy be issued based on the information contained in the application.
Explanation
The correct answer is a formal written request sometimes referred to as an offer, by the applicant to the insurer requesting a policy be issued based on the information contained in the application. This answer accurately describes an application as a formal request made by the applicant to the insurer, where the applicant offers to enter into a policy agreement and provides the necessary information for the insurer to assess and issue the policy.
29.
What is a policy?
Correct Answer(s)
A. A written instrument known as the insurance contract or agreement between the insurer and the policyowner.
C. The policy, including all riders, amendments or modifications, constitutes the entire contract of insurance
Explanation
The correct answer states that a policy is a written instrument that serves as the insurance contract or agreement between the insurer and the policyowner. Additionally, the answer mentions that the policy, along with any riders, amendments, or modifications, constitutes the entire contract of insurance. This explanation clarifies the definition of a policy and highlights its importance in the insurance relationship between the insurer and the policyowner.
30.
What is a rider?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Added to a policy in order to add, modify, or delete policy provisions or coverage
C. A supplemental agreement attached to and made part of the policy.
Explanation
A rider is an additional document that is added to an insurance policy in order to make changes to the policy provisions or coverage. It can be used to add, modify, or delete certain aspects of the policy. The rider is attached to the policy and becomes an integral part of it, providing additional terms and conditions that are specific to the policyholder's needs.
31.
What is cancellation?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Referred to as mid-term termination
B. Terminating an insurance policy before the end of the policy period.
Explanation
Cancellation refers to the termination of an insurance policy before the end of the policy period. It is also known as mid-term termination. This means that the policyholder decides to end the policy before the agreed-upon period expires. This could be due to various reasons, such as finding a better insurance deal or no longer needing the coverage provided by the policy.
32.
What is lapse?
Correct Answer(s)
A. In variable and universal life policies, the depletion of cash value below the amount needed to keep the policy in force is also considered a lapse.
B. Termination of a policy because of failure to pay a premium within the grace period.
Explanation
The correct answer is the termination of a policy because of failure to pay a premium within the grace period. In variable and universal life policies, if the cash value of the policy falls below the amount required to maintain the policy, it is also considered a lapse. However, this is not the primary definition of a lapse. The primary definition is the termination of a policy due to non-payment of premiums within the grace period.
33.
What is renewal?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Continuance of an insurance policy beyond its original term.
C. The payment of premiums after the first year of a policy or the agent's commissions on such second and subsequent years' premium are considered to be a renewal or renewals.
Explanation
Renewal refers to the continuation of an insurance policy beyond its original term. It involves the payment of premiums after the first year of the policy or the agent's commissions on subsequent years' premiums. This allows the policyholder to extend their coverage and maintain the benefits provided by the insurance policy.
34.
What is non renewal?
Correct Answer
A. A policy written for a specific period discontinuance of an insurance policy beyond its original term.
35.
What is grace period?
Correct Answer(s)
A. In life insurance it is normally 30-31 days.
B. The time period after the policy's due date in which a late payment may be made without penalty.
D. In health insurance it may be 7 days for a week policy, 10 days for month, and 31 days for all other modes of payment.
Explanation
The grace period refers to the time period after the policy's due date in which a late payment may be made without penalty. In life insurance, it is typically 30-31 days, allowing policyholders to make a late payment within this timeframe without facing any consequences. Similarly, in health insurance, the grace period may vary depending on the policy duration. For a week policy, it is usually 7 days, for a month policy it is 10 days, and for all other modes of payment, it is 31 days. During this grace period, policyholders have the opportunity to make their payments and keep their insurance coverage active.
36.
What is the rate/premium?
Correct Answer(s)
B. The rate is the cost of a given unit of insurance
C. In life insurance, it is generally the price per 1000 coverage.
D. In disability income insurance, it is usually the price of a 100 per monthly benefit
E. The premium is the rate multiplied by the number of units of insurance purchased, plus a policy fee if any, added to the initial premium payment
Explanation
The rate refers to the cost of a specific unit of insurance, such as the price per $1000 coverage in life insurance or the price of $100 per monthly benefit in disability income insurance. The premium, on the other hand, is calculated by multiplying the rate by the number of units of insurance purchased and adding any applicable policy fee to the initial premium payment. In summary, the rate determines the cost of a single unit of insurance, while the premium is the total cost of the insurance policy based on the rate and the number of units purchased.
37.
What is premium?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Paid by the policyowner to the insurer
C. The periodic payment required by the insured, to receive policy benefits and keep the policy in force.
Explanation
Premium refers to the periodic payment that the insured must make to the insurer in order to receive policy benefits and maintain the policy in force. It is paid by the policyowner to the insurer and is an essential requirement for the insured to continue receiving coverage and benefits from the insurance policy.
38.
What is earned premium?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Depending on the type of cancellation the insurer keeps the earned premium and returns the unearned premium to the policyowner
B. The portion of the premium that has been used to pay for the protection or coverage provided by the insurer.
Explanation
Earned premium refers to the portion of the premium that has been used to pay for the protection or coverage provided by the insurer. In certain cases of cancellation, the insurer retains the earned premium and refunds the unearned premium to the policyowner. This means that the policyowner will be refunded the amount of premium that they paid but did not use for coverage. The earned premium represents the cost of the insurance coverage that the policyowner has already received.
39.
What is unearned premium?
Correct Answer
A. The portion of the premium the insurer has collected but has not yet earned because coverage has yet to be provided for the insured.
Explanation
Unearned premium refers to the portion of the premium that the insurer has collected from the policyholder but has not yet earned. This means that the coverage or protection for the insured has not been provided yet. It represents the amount of money that the insurer holds and has not yet used to provide insurance coverage.
40.
What is preferred risk?
Correct Answer
B. Reflects below average risk of loss
Explanation
Preferred risk refers to a situation where the risk of loss is below average. This means that the likelihood of incurring a loss is lower compared to the average level of risk. In insurance terms, preferred risk individuals or entities are considered to have a lower probability of filing a claim, and therefore, they are often offered lower premiums or more favorable coverage terms. This is because they are perceived as being less likely to cause financial loss to the insurer.
41.
What is standard risk?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reflects average exposures and fall into a normal range.
C. Reflects the mortality and morbidity tables.
Explanation
Standard risk refers to a level of risk that is considered average or normal. It reflects average exposures, meaning it encompasses the typical range of risks that individuals or entities may face. Additionally, standard risk is determined based on mortality and morbidity tables, which provide data on the rates of death and illness within a specific population. Therefore, the correct answer reflects both the average exposures and the mortality and morbidity tables that are used to assess standard risk.
42.
What is substandard risk?
Correct Answer
C. Reflects above average risk of loss
Explanation
Substandard risk refers to a level of risk that is higher than average, indicating an increased likelihood of loss. This means that the subject carries a greater risk of experiencing negative outcomes or suffering losses compared to the average level of risk. Therefore, the given answer "Reflects above average risk of loss" accurately describes substandard risk.
43.
What is the Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970 (FCRA)?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ensure that consumer-reporting agencies (CRAs) exercise their responsibilities with fairness, impartiality, and a respect for consumers' rights.
C. Consumer can challenge information being inaccurate or incomplete and under the FCRA the consumer reporting agency must reinvestigate
Explanation
The Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970 (FCRA) is a law that aims to ensure that consumer-reporting agencies (CRAs) carry out their responsibilities in a fair, impartial, and respectful manner towards consumers' rights. It also provides protection to consumers by allowing them to challenge any inaccurate or incomplete information on their credit reports. Under the FCRA, the consumer reporting agency is obligated to reinvestigate the disputed information.
44.
What is the Medical Information Bureau (MIB)?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Organized and is supported by Life insurance companies
B. Collects medical and mental impairment information
D. Receives information obtained by underwriters during the underwriting process only.
Explanation
The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) is an organization that is organized and supported by life insurance companies. Its main function is to collect and store information related to medical and mental impairments. The MIB also receives information that is obtained by underwriters during the underwriting process, which helps insurance companies assess the risk associated with an individual's health condition. However, the MIB does not collect credit reports for consumers.