Test Your Knowledge About Developmental Psychology! Trivia Quiz
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People are different from each other, and Developmental Psychology is one avenue through which we get to understand why people change their behavior, personality, or reactions as they grow. Do wish to review what you got to understand so far from your classes about this topic? Why don’t you give this quiz a chance and get to find out? All the best!
Questions and Answers
1.
A developmental specialist who focuses on physical development would be interested in:
A.
Motor skils
B.
Memory
C.
Emotions
D.
Language
Correct Answer
A. Motor skils
Explanation A developmental specialist who focuses on physical development would be interested in motor skills because motor skills refer to the ability to use and control muscles to perform various physical activities. Physical development involves the growth and refinement of these motor skills, such as crawling, walking, running, and fine motor skills like grasping objects or writing. By studying motor skills, the specialist can assess the progress and milestones of a child's physical development and provide appropriate interventions or therapies to enhance their motor skills.
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2.
A developmentalist studying how memory changes over the life span specializes in:
A.
Physical development
B.
Social development
C.
Personality development
D.
Cognitive development
Correct Answer
D. Cognitive development
Explanation A developmentalist studying how memory changes over the life span specializes in cognitive development. This is because memory is a cognitive process that involves the encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. By focusing on cognitive development, the developmentalist can investigate how memory abilities change and develop from infancy through adulthood and old age. They may examine factors such as attention, working memory, long-term memory, and the impact of age-related changes on memory performance.
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3.
Your family, friends, and classmates are part of your:
A.
Mesosystem
B.
Microsystem
C.
Exosystem
D.
Macrosystem
Correct Answer
B. Microsystem
Explanation The microsystem refers to the immediate environment in which an individual lives, interacts, and develops relationships. This includes family, friends, and classmates who have a direct and significant impact on an individual's life. They are the closest and most influential people in one's daily life, providing support, guidance, and social interactions. Therefore, it is appropriate to classify them as part of the microsystem.
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4.
"Baby boomers" are an example of:
A.
Alliance
B.
Cohort
C.
Support system
D.
Reference group
Correct Answer
B. Cohort
Explanation "Baby boomers" refers to a specific generation of individuals born between the years 1946 and 1964. They share common experiences and characteristics due to being born during a specific time period, which makes them a cohort. A cohort is a group of individuals who share a similar demographic or life experience and are often studied or categorized together.
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5.
Growth in height would be an example of:
A.
Social development
B.
Discontinuous change
C.
Continuous change
D.
Cultural influences
Correct Answer
C. Continuous change
Explanation Growth in height is an example of continuous change because it is a gradual and ongoing process that occurs over time. It does not happen suddenly or in distinct stages, which would be characteristic of discontinuous change. Social development refers to the acquisition of skills and abilities related to interacting with others, while cultural influences pertain to the impact of a particular society or culture on an individual's development.
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6.
Nature is to genetics as nurture is to:
A.
Environment
B.
Readiness
C.
Growth
D.
Maturation
Correct Answer
A. Environment
Explanation Nature refers to the genetic factors that influence an individual's traits and characteristics. Similarly, nurture refers to the environmental factors that shape and influence an individual's development. Therefore, the correct answer is environment, as it represents the external factors such as upbringing, social interactions, and experiences that contribute to an individual's development and behavior.
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7.
The effect of a pregnant mother's alcohol use on her unborn child is an example of:
A.
Readiness
B.
Maturation
C.
Nurture
D.
Nature
Correct Answer
C. Nurture
Explanation The effect of a pregnant mother's alcohol use on her unborn child is an example of nurture. Nurture refers to the environmental factors and experiences that influence an individual's development. In this case, the mother's alcohol use is an external factor that can have negative consequences on the unborn child's development. It highlights how the choices and behaviors of caregivers can impact the growth and well-being of a child.
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8.
What personality structure is present at birth and operates according to the pleasure principle?
A.
Superego
B.
Ego
C.
Id
D.
Psychic pleasure
Correct Answer
C. Id
Explanation The id is the personality structure that is present at birth and operates according to the pleasure principle. The id is the most primitive part of the mind and seeks immediate gratification of its desires, without considering the consequences or societal norms. It is driven by basic instincts and operates on the pleasure principle, which seeks to maximize pleasure and minimize pain. The id is unconscious and seeks to satisfy its needs through the primary process, which involves forming mental images of desired objects.
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9.
A research investigation on cooperative behavior in preschoolers which is conducted in preschool classrooms is an example of a(n):
A.
Survey
B.
Experiment
C.
Case study
D.
Field study
Correct Answer
D. Field study
Explanation A research investigation on cooperative behavior in preschoolers conducted in preschool classrooms is an example of a field study. This is because the study is being conducted in a naturalistic setting, where the researchers are observing and collecting data in the real-world environment of the preschool classrooms. Field studies allow researchers to directly observe and analyze behavior in its natural context, providing valuable insights into real-life situations.
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10.
NIn an experiment testing the effects of a drug on behavior, whether or not a subject receives a drug represents the :
A.
Random variable
B.
Independent variable
C.
Control variable
D.
Dependent variable
Correct Answer
B. Independent variable
Explanation In an experiment testing the effects of a drug on behavior, the variable that is manipulated by the researcher is known as the independent variable. This variable is independent of any other factors and is controlled by the researcher to observe its effects on the behavior of the subjects. In this case, whether or not a subject receives a drug is the independent variable as it is being controlled and manipulated by the researcher to study its impact on behavior.
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11.
Which of the following statements best describes the role of a dependent variable?
A.
It is the variable that the researchers measure
B.
It is the variable also known as the treatment
C.
It is the variable that the researchers manipulate
D.
It is used in theoretical research but not applied research
Correct Answer
A. It is the variable that the researchers measure
Explanation The role of a dependent variable is to be the variable that the researchers measure. In an experiment, the dependent variable is the one that is being observed or measured to determine the effect of the independent variable. It is the outcome or response variable that is influenced by the independent variable.
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12.
What is the major purpose of applied research?
A.
It is a certain method for determining cause and effect
B.
It provides practical solutions to immediate problems
C.
It only shows an association exists between variables
D.
It tests development explanations and expands scientific knowledge
Correct Answer
B. It provides practical solutions to immediate problems
Explanation The major purpose of applied research is to provide practical solutions to immediate problems. Unlike other types of research that focus on theoretical or abstract concepts, applied research aims to address real-world issues and find practical solutions that can be implemented in a timely manner. This type of research is often conducted in fields such as engineering, medicine, and social sciences, where the focus is on solving specific problems and improving the quality of life for individuals and communities.
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13.
Joe and James are 16-year-old twins who are contacted every year to complete a battery of psychological tests. They are participating in a(n):
A.
Longitudinal study
B.
Cross-sequential studies
C.
Age cohort study
D.
Cross-sectional study
Correct Answer
A. Longitudinal study
Explanation A longitudinal study is the correct answer because it involves studying the same individuals over an extended period of time. In this case, Joe and James are contacted every year to complete psychological tests, which indicates that they are being observed and assessed over time. This type of study allows researchers to track changes and development in individuals over time and is useful for studying long-term effects and patterns.
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14.
What research design compares people of different ages at the same point in time?
A.
Longitudinal studies
B.
Cross-sequential studies
C.
Cross-sectional studies
D.
Age cohort studies
Correct Answer
C. Cross-sectional studies
Explanation Cross-sectional studies compare people of different ages at the same point in time. This research design allows researchers to collect data from a diverse range of participants and examine how variables may differ across different age groups. By comparing individuals of different ages simultaneously, cross-sectional studies provide a snapshot of the population at a specific moment, offering insights into age-related differences and trends. This design is particularly useful for studying age-related changes and patterns in a more efficient and cost-effective manner compared to longitudinal studies.
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15.
Researchers who combine the longitudinal and cross-sectional approaches use the:
A.
Cross-sectional design
B.
Longitudinal design
C.
Cross-cultural design
D.
Cross-sequential design
Correct Answer
D. Cross-sequential design
Explanation The cross-sequential design is a research approach that combines elements of both longitudinal and cross-sectional designs. It involves studying multiple groups of participants over a period of time, with each group being assessed at different points in time. This design allows researchers to examine both age-related changes and cohort effects, providing a more comprehensive understanding of development. By using this design, researchers can control for both individual differences and age-related changes, making it a valuable tool in developmental research.
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16.
Human life begins with a single fertilized cell. What is the first cell called?
A.
Autosome
B.
Karyotype
C.
Gamete
D.
Zygote
Correct Answer
D. Zygote
Explanation A zygote is the first cell that is formed when a sperm fertilizes an egg. It contains the genetic material from both parents and marks the beginning of human life. The zygote then undergoes cell division and development to eventually form a fully formed human being. The other options, autosomes, karyotypes, and gametes, are not the correct answer as they refer to different concepts or stages in human biology.
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17.
The process by which sperm and ovum join to form a single new cell is called:
A.
Fertilization
B.
Insemination
C.
Implantation
D.
Ovulation
Correct Answer
A. Fertilization
Explanation Fertilization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of the sperm and ovum joining together to form a single new cell, called a zygote. This process occurs in the fallopian tube, where the sperm penetrates the ovum and their genetic material combines. Fertilization is a crucial step in sexual reproduction and marks the beginning of a new life. Insemination refers to the introduction of sperm into the female reproductive system, implantation is the attachment of the embryo to the uterine wall, and ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary.
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18.
What are the basic units of genetic information?
A.
Genes
B.
Alleles
C.
Chromosomes
D.
Acrosomes
Correct Answer
A. Genes
Explanation Genes are the basic units of genetic information. They are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building and maintaining an organism. Genes determine traits such as eye color, height, and susceptibility to certain diseases. They are passed down from parents to offspring and are responsible for the inheritance of characteristics. Genes are located on chromosomes, which are structures within the cell nucleus that contain DNA. Alleles are alternative forms of a gene, and acrosomes are structures found in sperm cells. Therefore, the correct answer is genes.
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19.
Kim is expecting twins as a result of a cluster of cells in the ovum splitting off within the first two weeks following fertilization. The twins are from the same zygote, and are:
A.
Non-identical
B.
Monozygotic
C.
Dizygotic
D.
Fraternal
E.
Confused
Correct Answer
B. Monozygotic
Explanation Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single fertilized egg splits into two embryos. This happens within the first two weeks following fertilization. As a result, the twins share the same genetic material and are therefore identical.
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20.
Zach and Luis are dizygotic twins. Therefore, they:
A.
Are no more genetically alike then siblings
B.
Share the same genotype
C.
Come from different environments
D.
Resulted from the division of a single fertilized ovum
Correct Answer
A. Are no more genetically alike then siblings
Explanation Zach and Luis being dizygotic twins means that they developed from two separate fertilized eggs, resulting in them being no more genetically alike than regular siblings. Dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, occur when two eggs are released and fertilized by two different sperm. As a result, they have different genetic makeup and are no more similar genetically than any other siblings.
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21.
The physical manifestation of one's genetic blueprint is called:
A.
Genotype
B.
Heredity
C.
Mutation
D.
Phenotype
Correct Answer
D. pHenotype
Explanation The physical manifestation of one's genetic blueprint is called the phenotype. It refers to the observable traits and characteristics of an individual, such as their physical appearance, behavior, and physiological traits. The genotype, on the other hand, refers to the genetic makeup or the specific combination of alleles that an individual possesses. Heredity refers to the passing on of traits from parents to offspring. A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that can lead to a change in the genotype and potentially affect the phenotype.
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22.
Behavioral genetics is the study of:
A.
Genetic engineering and cloning
B.
The alteration of genes
C.
The effects of heredity on behavior
D.
The effects of the environment on genetic disorders
Correct Answer
C. The effects of heredity on behavior
Explanation Behavioral genetics is the study of how genetic factors influence behavior. It focuses on understanding how inherited traits and genes contribute to various behaviors, such as personality traits, intelligence, and mental disorders. This field investigates the extent to which genetics play a role in shaping behavior and helps to identify specific genes and genetic variations that may be associated with certain behaviors. By studying the effects of heredity on behavior, behavioral genetics provides insights into the complex interplay between genetics and behavior.
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23.
What is the first stage of prenatal development?
A.
Embryonic stage
B.
Fetal stage
C.
Zygotic stage
D.
Germinal stage
Correct Answer
D. Germinal stage
Explanation The germinal stage is the first stage of prenatal development. It begins at conception when the sperm fertilizes the egg, forming a zygote. During this stage, the zygote undergoes rapid cell division and travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus. The germinal stage lasts for about two weeks and ends when the zygote implants itself into the uterine wall. At this point, the embryonic stage begins.
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24.
What is the term used for newborns?
A.
Zygote
B.
Embryo
C.
Neonate
D.
Fetus
Correct Answer
C. Neonate
Explanation A neonate is a term used to describe a newborn baby, typically within the first 28 days of life. It refers to the stage of development immediately after birth. The other options provided - zygote, embryo, and fetus - all refer to earlier stages of development before birth. Therefore, neonate is the correct term used for newborns.
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25.
Braxton-Hicks contractions are sometimes termed:
A.
False labor
B.
Postnatal depression
C.
Expulsion
D.
Afterbirth
Correct Answer
A. False labor
Explanation Braxton-Hicks contractions are sometimes termed "false labor" because they are not true labor contractions that indicate the onset of childbirth. These contractions are usually irregular and do not increase in intensity like true labor contractions. They are often described as practice contractions or a preparation for labor. Therefore, the term "false labor" accurately describes Braxton-Hicks contractions as they may cause confusion for expectant mothers who mistake them for the real thing.
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26.
What is the longest stage of labor?
A.
Second
B.
First
C.
Fourth
D.
Third
Correct Answer
B. First
Explanation The first stage of labor is the longest stage. This stage begins with the onset of regular contractions and ends with the full dilation of the cervix. It can last for several hours or even days, especially for first-time mothers. During this stage, the cervix gradually thins and opens, allowing the baby to move through the birth canal. Contractions become more intense and frequent as labor progresses. Once the cervix is fully dilated, the first stage of labor transitions into the second stage, which involves pushing and the actual delivery of the baby.
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27.
During the stage of childbirth is the placenta and umbilical cord expelled from the uterus?
A.
Fourth
B.
Second
C.
First
D.
Third
Correct Answer
D. Third
Explanation During the stage of childbirth, the placenta and umbilical cord are expelled from the uterus. This typically occurs after the baby has been delivered. The placenta and umbilical cord are no longer needed once the baby is born, so they are expelled from the mother's body. This is an important part of the birthing process, as it ensures that the mother's body returns to its pre-pregnancy state and helps to prevent any complications or infections.
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28.
During what stage of childbirth does the actual birth of the baby occur?
A.
Third
B.
Second
C.
First
D.
Fourth
Correct Answer
B. Second
Explanation The actual birth of the baby occurs during the second stage of childbirth. This stage is known as the "pushing" stage, where the mother actively pushes the baby out of the birth canal. It follows the first stage, which involves the dilation and effacement of the cervix, and precedes the third stage, which involves the delivery of the placenta. The fourth stage refers to the immediate postpartum period.
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29.
What is the perfect APGAR score?
A.
1
B.
10
C.
7
D.
0
Correct Answer
B. 10
Explanation The perfect APGAR score is 10. The APGAR score is a quick assessment of a newborn's health immediately after birth. It evaluates the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color. A score of 10 indicates that the baby is in excellent health with a strong heartbeat, good muscle tone, and pink skin color.
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30.
A restriction in the supply of oxygen is called:
A.
Anoxia
B.
Meconium
C.
Respiratory distress syndrome
D.
Neonatal jaundice
Correct Answer
A. Anoxia
Explanation Anoxia refers to a restriction in the supply of oxygen. It occurs when there is a complete absence of oxygen, leading to a lack of oxygen in the body's tissues and organs. This can result in severe health complications and damage to vital organs. Anoxia can be caused by various factors, such as respiratory problems, cardiac arrest, or suffocation. It is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent further harm to the body.
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31.
Infant mortality is defined as a:
A.
The delivery of a a child who is not alive
B.
Death within the first year of life
C.
Death immediately following child birth
D.
Death within the first month of life
Correct Answer
B. Death within the first year of life
Explanation Infant mortality is defined as the death of a child within the first year of life. This includes deaths that occur within the first month of life as well as deaths that occur later in the first year. It does not specifically refer to the delivery of a child who is not alive or death immediately following childbirth.
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32.
What does a fetal monitor record?
A.
Baby's rate of breathing
B.
Mother's dilation
C.
Baby's temperature
D.
Baby's heart beat
Correct Answer
D. Baby's heart beat
Explanation A fetal monitor is a device used to record the baby's heart rate during pregnancy. It is an important tool in monitoring the baby's well-being and detecting any potential complications. By tracking the baby's heart rate, healthcare professionals can assess the baby's overall health and detect any abnormalities or distress. This information helps them make informed decisions about the mother's care and the need for any medical interventions.
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33.
Unlearned, organized involuntary responses that occur automatically in the presence of certain stimuli are:
A.
Schemes
B.
First habits
C.
Operations
D.
Reflexes
Correct Answer
D. Reflexes
Explanation Reflexes are unlearned, organized involuntary responses that occur automatically in the presence of certain stimuli. They are not consciously controlled and occur as a result of a specific stimulus triggering a specific response. Reflexes are often protective in nature and help organisms respond quickly to potential threats or dangers. Examples of reflexes include the knee-jerk reflex and the gag reflex.
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34.
What principle states that growth follows a pattern that begins with head and upper body?
A.
Hierarchical integration
B.
Proximodistal
C.
Cephalocaudal
D.
Independence of systems
Correct Answer
C. CepHalocaudal
Explanation The principle that states that growth follows a pattern that begins with the head and upper body is cephalocaudal. This means that development and growth start from the head and gradually progress downwards towards the lower body. This principle is observed in the physical development of infants, where they gain control and coordination of their head and upper body before developing control over their lower body and limbs.
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35.
What principle states that different body systems grow at different rates?
A.
Hierarchical integration
B.
Independence of systems
C.
Proximodistal
D.
Cephalocaudal
Correct Answer
B. Independence of systems
Explanation The principle that states that different body systems grow at different rates is the independence of systems. This means that each body system has its own unique growth pattern and rate of development, independent of the growth of other systems. This principle recognizes that the growth and development of one system does not necessarily dictate the growth and development of another system.
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36.
What is the developmental sequence of Piaget's cognitive stages?
Correct Answer
A. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
Explanation Piaget's cognitive stages follow a specific developmental sequence. The correct answer is "sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational." This sequence reflects the order in which children typically progress through different stages of cognitive development according to Piaget's theory. The sensorimotor stage is the first stage, during which infants learn about the world through their senses and actions. The preoperational stage follows, characterized by the development of symbolic thought and egocentrism. Next is the concrete operational stage, where children begin to think logically and understand conservation. Finally, the formal operational stage is reached, marked by abstract thinking and hypothetical reasoning.
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37.
An infant who repeatedly drops blocks in different ways to see how the sound changes is in what substage of sensorimotor thought?
A.
Internalization of schemes
B.
Tertiary circular reactions
C.
Coordination of secondary circular reactions
D.
Secondary circular reactions
Correct Answer
D. Secondary circular reactions
Explanation The correct answer is secondary circular reactions. In this substage, infants engage in repetitive actions that involve their own bodies and objects in their environment. They become aware of the effects of their actions and intentionally repeat them for their own enjoyment. In the given scenario, the infant dropping blocks in different ways to observe how the sound changes demonstrates this repetitive behavior and the understanding of cause and effect. This aligns with the characteristics of the secondary circular reactions substage.
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38.
Primary circular reactions are to the infants body as secondary circular reactions are to:
A.
Environment
B.
Infant's brain
C.
An adult's body
D.
An infant's parent
Correct Answer
A. Environment
Explanation Primary circular reactions refer to the repetitive actions that infants perform on their own bodies, such as sucking their thumb or kicking their legs. These actions are self-centered and focused on the infant's own body. On the other hand, secondary circular reactions involve actions that are directed towards the environment. These actions are more purposeful and involve the infant interacting with objects or people in their surroundings. Therefore, the correct answer is "environment" as secondary circular reactions are related to the infant's interaction with the external world.
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39.
The realization that people and objects exist even when they can not be seen is called:
A.
Habituation
B.
Object permanence
C.
Differed imitation
D.
Visual-recognition memory
Correct Answer
B. Object permanence
Explanation Object permanence refers to the understanding that objects and people continue to exist even when they are not visible. This concept is a crucial milestone in cognitive development, particularly in infants. It allows individuals to comprehend that objects have a separate existence from themselves and can be located in different places. Object permanence is an essential aspect of a child's understanding of the world and is a foundation for various cognitive abilities, such as memory, problem-solving, and language development.
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40.
What approach compares cognitive growth to a computer?
A.
Information-processing approach
B.
Behavioral approach
C.
Social-cognitive approach
D.
Cognitive-developmental approach
Correct Answer
A. Information-processing approach
Explanation The information-processing approach compares cognitive growth to a computer. This approach views the mind as a complex system that processes information through various mental processes, such as attention, perception, memory, and problem-solving. It suggests that cognitive development is similar to how a computer processes and stores information, with the focus on how individuals acquire, organize, and use information to solve problems and make decisions. This approach emphasizes the role of cognitive processes in understanding human thinking and learning.
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41.
Infantile amnesia is defined as the lack of memory for experiences that occurred prior to:
A.
The first month of life
B.
1 year of age
C.
Birth
D.
3 years of age
Correct Answer
D. 3 years of age
Explanation Infantile amnesia is the inability to remember events that occurred during early childhood, specifically before the age of 3 years. This phenomenon is believed to be caused by the underdevelopment of the brain regions responsible for long-term memory formation during infancy. As a result, memories formed during this period are not retained into later childhood or adulthood. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 years of age.
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42.
NMaking speechlike but meaningless sounds is known as:
A.
Expressive jargon
B.
Telegraphic speech
C.
Babbling
D.
Vocables
Correct Answer
C. Babbling
Explanation Babbling refers to the stage in language development when infants produce speech-like sounds that are meaningless. During this stage, babies experiment with different sounds and syllables, practicing the motor skills required for speech production. It is an important precursor to language development as it helps infants learn to control their vocal muscles and eventually form meaningful words and sentences. Babbling typically occurs between the ages of 6 to 12 months and is a normal part of language acquisition.
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43.
The act of using words too restrictively:
A.
Motherease
B.
Telegraphic speech
C.
Underextension
D.
Overextension
Correct Answer
C. Underextension
Explanation Underextension refers to the act of using words too restrictively, where a child uses a specific word to refer to a narrow range of objects or situations, rather than its broader meaning. For example, a child may only use the word "dog" to refer to their own pet dog and not generalize it to other dogs. This can occur during language development as children are still learning the full extent of word meanings and may initially apply them in a limited manner.
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44.
Heather refers to bicycles, trucks, and school buses as "cars". This error is called:
A.
Overextension
B.
Telegraphic speech
C.
Holophrastic
D.
Underextension
Correct Answer
A. Overextension
Explanation Overextension refers to when a child uses a word to include more objects or concepts than it actually represents. In this case, Heather is using the word "cars" to refer to bicycles, trucks, and school buses, which are all different from traditional cars. This demonstrates overextension as she is extending the meaning of the word "cars" beyond its usual definition.
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45.
When infants display distress because they encounter someone unfamiliar, lifespan developmentalists refer to the concept of:
A.
Differential emotions
B.
Stranger anxiety
C.
Separation anxiety
D.
Non-verbal encoding
Correct Answer
B. Stranger anxiety
Explanation Stranger anxiety refers to the distress or fear that infants display when encountering someone unfamiliar. This is a normal and common developmental stage that typically begins around 6 to 8 months of age. During this stage, infants may become clingy, cry, or show signs of discomfort when confronted with unfamiliar individuals. This behavior is believed to be a result of the infant's growing cognitive and social awareness, as well as their attachment to familiar caregivers. Stranger anxiety is an important milestone in emotional development and signifies the infant's ability to differentiate between familiar and unfamiliar individuals.
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46.
Smiling in response to other individuals is considered a(n):
A.
Social smile
B.
Undifferentiated smile
C.
Mutual smile
D.
Indiscriminate smile
Correct Answer
A. Social smile
Explanation A social smile is a smile that is displayed in response to other individuals. It is a form of nonverbal communication that indicates friendliness and approachability. This type of smile is different from an undifferentiated smile, which is a smile that is displayed without any specific target or purpose. A mutual smile refers to a smile that is exchanged between two or more people, indicating a shared positive interaction. An indiscriminate smile refers to a smile that is displayed without any particular discrimination or preference towards a specific person or situation.
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47.
The positive emotional bond that develops between a child and a particular individual is called:
A.
Attachment
B.
Social referencing
C.
Temperament
D.
Empathy
Correct Answer
A. Attachment
Explanation Attachment refers to the positive emotional bond that develops between a child and a particular individual. It is a deep and lasting connection that provides the child with a sense of security, comfort, and trust. Attachment is crucial for a child's social and emotional development, as it influences their ability to form healthy relationships and regulate their emotions. This bond typically forms between a child and their primary caregiver, such as a parent or guardian, and plays a significant role in shaping the child's overall well-being and future relationships.
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48.
What is the most important form of social development that occurs during infancy?
A.
Attachment
B.
Social referencing
C.
Temperament
D.
Empathy
Correct Answer
A. Attachment
Explanation Attachment is the most important form of social development that occurs during infancy. Attachment refers to the emotional bond that develops between a child and their primary caregiver. This bond is crucial for the child's overall social and emotional development as it provides a secure base from which they can explore the world and develop relationships with others. Attachment also plays a significant role in shaping the child's future relationships and social interactions.
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49.
What technique was developed my Mary Ainsworth to measure the infants attachment to the primary care giver?
A.
Ainsworth surrogate test
B.
Ainsworth strange situation
C.
Ainsworth stranger anxiety test
D.
Ainsworth separation scenario
Correct Answer
B. Ainsworth strange situation
Explanation Mary Ainsworth developed the "strange situation" technique to measure infants' attachment to their primary caregiver. This involved observing the behavior of infants when they were placed in a series of unfamiliar and potentially stressful situations, such as being left alone with a stranger or being separated from their caregiver. Through this technique, Ainsworth was able to identify different attachment styles, such as secure attachment, insecure-avoidant attachment, and insecure-resistant attachment. The strange situation became a widely used and influential method for studying infant-parent attachment and understanding the impact of early relationships on child development.
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50.
The Ainsworth strange situation was designed to measure:
A.
Attachment
B.
Temperament
C.
Anxiety
D.
Social referencing
Correct Answer
A. Attachment
Explanation The Ainsworth strange situation was designed to measure attachment. This is evident from the fact that the strange situation involves observing the behavior of a child when they are briefly separated from and then reunited with their caregiver. The purpose of this procedure is to assess the quality and strength of the attachment bond between the child and their caregiver. The child's behavior during these separations and reunions can provide insights into their attachment style, such as whether they are securely attached, avoidant, or anxious-ambivalent. Therefore, attachment is the most appropriate measurement for the Ainsworth strange situation.
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