Line C Quiz 1
Answer the following questions, this quiz is a regular assessment aiming at your development, wishing you good lick
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Rebound hypertension is the main side effect of ...................................
- A.
Vasodilators
- B.
Ca antagonist
- C.
Centrally acting drugs
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. Centrally acting drugsExplanation
Centrally acting drugs can cause rebound hypertension as a side effect. These drugs work by targeting the central nervous system to lower blood pressure. However, abruptly stopping these medications or reducing the dosage can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure, known as rebound hypertension. This occurs because the body becomes dependent on the drug to maintain lower blood pressure levels, and when the drug is removed, the blood pressure spikes. Therefore, centrally acting drugs can potentially cause rebound hypertension as a side effect.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Postural and first dose hypotension is the main side effect of ..............................................
- A.
Vasodilators
- B.
Ca antagonist
- C.
Centrally acting drugs
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
A. VasodilatorsExplanation
Vasodilators are medications that relax and widen blood vessels, which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Postural hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, while first dose hypotension refers to a sudden decrease in blood pressure after the first dose of a medication. Both of these are common side effects of vasodilators. Ca antagonist and centrally acting drugs can also cause hypotension, but the main side effect mentioned in the question is specifically associated with vasodilators. Therefore, the correct answer is vasodilators.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is called ...........................
- A.
After load
- B.
Preload
- C.
Stroke volume
- D.
Cardiac Output
Correct Answer
C. Stroke volumeExplanation
Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood that is ejected by the ventricles of the heart with each heartbeat. It is a measure of the efficiency and effectiveness of the heart's pumping action. Afterload refers to the resistance that the heart has to overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles, preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole before the next contraction, and cardiac output refers to the total volume of blood that is pumped by the heart in one minute.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Effect of beta 1-blockade leads to ........................................................ heart rate & force of contraction
- A.
Reduced
- B.
Increased
- C.
Masking
- D.
No effect on
Correct Answer
A. ReducedExplanation
Beta 1-blockade refers to the inhibition of beta 1 adrenergic receptors, which are primarily located in the heart. These receptors are responsible for increasing heart rate and force of contraction when stimulated by adrenaline or noradrenaline. By blocking these receptors, the effect is reduced, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is "reduced."Rate this question:
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- 5.
AT1 receptor activation is associated with..............................................................effects on the body
- A.
Physiological
- B.
Pathological
- C.
Physical
- D.
Beneficial
Correct Answer
B. PathologicalExplanation
AT1 receptor activation is associated with pathological effects on the body. This means that when the AT1 receptor is activated, it leads to harmful or diseased conditions in the body. This could include the promotion of inflammation, vasoconstriction, and the development of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension. Activation of AT1 receptors can also contribute to the progression of kidney diseases and other pathological conditions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
AT1 affinity of Valsartan is ............................................... Telmisartan is .............................. while Candesartan is ................................. (respectively)
- A.
20000 fold, 3000 fold, 10000 fold
- B.
10000 Fold, 3000 fold, 20000 fold
- C.
2000 fold, 3000 fold, 1000 fold
Correct Answer
A. 20000 fold, 3000 fold, 10000 foldExplanation
The correct answer is 20000 fold, 3000 fold, 10000 fold. This means that the AT1 affinity of Valsartan is 20000 times stronger than Telmisartan, and 10000 times stronger than Candesartan. Telmisartan has an AT1 affinity that is 3000 times stronger than Candesartan.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The outer layer of the eye is composed of .........................................
- A.
Cornea
- B.
Sclera
- C.
Conjunctiva
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
D. All of theseExplanation
The outer layer of the eye is composed of the cornea, sclera, and conjunctiva. The cornea is the clear, dome-shaped front surface of the eye that helps to focus light. The sclera is the tough, white outer layer that provides protection and shape to the eye. The conjunctiva is a thin, clear membrane that covers the sclera and the inside of the eyelids. Therefore, all of these structures make up the outer layer of the eye.Rate this question:
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- 8.
................................... is the most sensitive structure in the body.
- A.
Choroid
- B.
Cornea
- C.
Conjunctiva
- D.
Retina
Correct Answer
B. CorneaExplanation
The cornea is the transparent, dome-shaped structure that covers the front of the eye. It is responsible for refracting light and focusing it onto the retina, which is located at the back of the eye. The cornea is highly sensitive to touch and foreign objects, as it contains a high concentration of nerve endings. It is also the first structure that light encounters when entering the eye, making it crucial for clear vision. Therefore, the cornea is considered the most sensitive structure in the body.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The corneal ......................................... regenerates rapidly in the case of injury and health without leaving a scar, while ....................................................... maintains the rigidity and the shape of the cornea, injuries to this layer and beyond can result in corneal scarring. (respectively )
- A.
Stroma, Endothelium
- B.
(Epithelium, Bowman’s membrane
- C.
Epithelium, Stroma
- D.
Endothelium, Bowman’s membrane
Correct Answer
B. (Epithelium, Bowman’s membraneExplanation
The corneal epithelium regenerates rapidly in the case of injury and heals without leaving a scar, while Bowman's membrane maintains the rigidity and shape of the cornea. Injuries to the epithelium and beyond, including Bowman's membrane, can result in corneal scarring.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Drugs which need to penetrate the cornea must be of ...............................................................solubility
- A.
Hydrophilic
- B.
Hydrophobic
- C.
Biphasic
- D.
Monophasic
Correct Answer
C. BipHasicExplanation
Biphasic solubility refers to the ability of a drug to dissolve in both hydrophilic (water-loving) and hydrophobic (water-repelling) environments. The cornea is a barrier that separates the inner eye from the external environment and has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. Therefore, drugs that need to penetrate the cornea must have biphasic solubility to effectively cross this barrier and reach the inner eye. Hydrophilic drugs may dissolve in the watery layer of the cornea but cannot penetrate the hydrophobic regions, while hydrophobic drugs may not dissolve in the watery layer. Biphasic solubility allows the drug to dissolve in both regions, increasing its chances of penetrating the cornea.Rate this question:
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- 11.
........................................ provides an index of how well the antihypertensive effect is sustained over the dose interval
- A.
AT1 affinity
- B.
Trough/peak ratio
- C.
Pressor inhibition
- D.
Half life
Correct Answer
B. Trough/peak ratioExplanation
The trough/peak ratio provides an index of how well the antihypertensive effect is sustained over the dose interval. This ratio compares the lowest blood pressure level (trough) reached during the dosing interval to the highest blood pressure level (peak) achieved after the medication is taken. A higher trough/peak ratio indicates a more sustained antihypertensive effect, meaning that the medication is able to maintain lower blood pressure levels for a longer period of time.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The visual field impact from the nerve injury due to elevated IOP is ............................................... and leads to blindness.
- A.
Reversible
- B.
Irreversible
- C.
Declining
- D.
Improving
Correct Answer
B. IrreversibleExplanation
The visual field impact from the nerve injury due to elevated IOP is irreversible and leads to blindness. This means that once the nerve is damaged, the loss of vision cannot be reversed or recovered. The damage caused by the elevated intraocular pressure is permanent and cannot be improved or reversed through any means. This irreversible impact ultimately leads to complete blindness.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Initial routine treatment of open angel glaucoma begins with ...........................................................
- A.
Beta Blockers
- B.
Alpha 2 agonist
- C.
Prostaglandin analogues
- D.
CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITOR CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITOR CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITOR CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITOR carbonic anhydrase inhibitir
Correct Answer
A. Beta BlockersExplanation
The initial routine treatment for open-angle glaucoma begins with Beta Blockers. These medications work by reducing the production of fluid in the eye, thereby lowering intraocular pressure. They are commonly used as first-line treatment due to their effectiveness in reducing intraocular pressure and their relatively low side effect profile. Other options such as alpha 2 agonists, prostaglandin analogues, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors may also be used depending on the individual patient's response and specific needs. However, Beta Blockers are often the first choice.Rate this question:
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- 14.
......................................................... is (are) Selective Beta Blocker(s)
- A.
Timolol
- B.
Levobunolol
- C.
Betaxolol
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. BetaxololExplanation
Betaxolol is a selective beta blocker. It specifically blocks beta-1 adrenergic receptors, which are primarily found in the heart. This selective action allows betaxolol to reduce the heart rate and decrease the force of contractions, making it useful in the treatment of conditions such as hypertension and angina. Timolol and levobunolol are non-selective beta blockers, meaning they block both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Price of Betagan eye drop is ....................... while Price of Betoptic eye drop is .................... ( respectively )
- A.
19 LE, 18 LE
- B.
18 LE, 19.5 LE
- C.
12 LE, 14 LE
- D.
14 LE, 12 LE
Correct Answer
B. 18 LE, 19.5 LEExplanation
The price of Betagan eye drop is 18 LE while the price of Betoptic eye drop is 19.5 LE.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Mechanism of action of Brimonocond is .....................................................
- A.
Reducing aqueous humor production-
- B.
Increasing uveoscleral outflow
- C.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. All of the aboveExplanation
Brimonocond is a medication that works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which is the fluid inside the eye. By reducing the production of this fluid, it helps to decrease the pressure inside the eye, which can be beneficial in conditions such as glaucoma. Additionally, Brimonocond also increases the uveoscleral outflow, which is the drainage of fluid from the eye. By increasing this outflow, it further helps to lower the pressure inside the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" because Brimonocond acts by both reducing aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Price of Alphagan 0.2% is (55-65-78-88)LE. Price of Combigan is(39-65-78-88)LE.
- A.
78 LE, 88 LE
- B.
65 LE, 39 LE
- C.
55 LE, 65 LE
- D.
88 LE, 78 LE
Correct Answer
C. 55 LE, 65 LE -
- 18.
From the side effects of the prostaglandin analogues ...................................................
- A.
Conjunctival hyperemia Conjunctival hyperemia Conjunctival hyperemia
- B.
Iris pigmentation
- C.
Periorbital darkening
- D.
Eyelash growth/thickening/darkening
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The side effects of prostaglandin analogues include conjunctival hyperemia, iris pigmentation, periorbital darkening, and eyelash growth/thickening/darkening.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Ankl eodema is the main side effect of ........................................................
- A.
Vasodilators
- B.
Ca antagonist
- C.
Centrally acting drugs
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
B. Ca antagonistExplanation
Ca antagonist refers to calcium channel blockers, which are a class of drugs commonly used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. One of the main side effects of Ca antagonists is ankle edema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the ankles. This occurs because Ca antagonists relax and widen blood vessels, causing fluid to leak out into the surrounding tissues. Therefore, ankle edema is a known side effect of Ca antagonists.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Blepharitis is an eye condition characterized by chronic inflammation of the............................
- A.
Cornea
- B.
Iris
- C.
Sclera
- D.
Eyelid
Correct Answer
D. EyelidExplanation
Blepharitis is an eye condition characterized by chronic inflammation of the eyelid. This inflammation can cause symptoms such as redness, itching, and crusting of the eyelid margins. It can also lead to the formation of dandruff-like scales on the eyelashes. Treatment typically involves good eyelid hygiene, including warm compresses and gentle cleansing of the eyelid margins. In some cases, medication may be prescribed to manage the inflammation and control symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Mastosytex exerts its action by being ...................................................................
- A.
Relatively selective histamine1 antagonist
- B.
Mast cell stabilizer
- C.
Decreased chemotaxis and activation of eosinophils
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
D. All of themExplanation
Mastosytex exerts its action by being a relatively selective histamine1 antagonist, a mast cell stabilizer, and by decreasing chemotaxis and activation of eosinophils. This means that it can block the effects of histamine, prevent the release of inflammatory substances from mast cells, and reduce the migration and activation of eosinophils, which are white blood cells involved in allergic reactions. Overall, Mastosytex has multiple mechanisms of action that contribute to its effectiveness in treating allergic conditions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The antibacterial action of moxifloxacin results from inhibition of the ............................................................ and topoisomerase IV.
- A.
DNA gyrase
- B.
DNA oxidase
- C.
DNA transeferase
- D.
No one of these
Correct Answer
A. DNA gyraseExplanation
Moxifloxacin exhibits its antibacterial action by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV. DNA gyrase is an enzyme that is responsible for the supercoiling of DNA during replication, transcription, and recombination. By inhibiting DNA gyrase, moxifloxacin prevents the proper functioning of the enzyme, leading to DNA damage and ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. Topoisomerase IV is another enzyme involved in DNA replication and segregation. Both of these enzymes are essential for bacterial survival, making them effective targets for antibacterial drugs like moxifloxacin.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The price of CONJYCLEAR is ..................... while The price of patanol is ....................... ( respectively )
- A.
28 LE, 14 LE
- B.
14 LE, 39 LE
- C.
39 LE, 14 LE
- D.
14 LE, 28 LE
Correct Answer
B. 14 LE, 39 LEExplanation
The price of CONJYCLEAR is 14 LE while the price of patanol is 39 LE.Rate this question:
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- 24.
.................................. is Located immediately under the Sclera
- A.
Choroid
- B.
Iris
- C.
Ciliary body
- D.
Pupil
Correct Answer
A. ChoroidExplanation
The choroid is located immediately under the sclera. The choroid is a layer of tissue in the eye that contains blood vessels, which supply nutrients and oxygen to the retina. It also helps to absorb excess light and prevent reflection within the eye. The iris, ciliary body, and pupil are all located within the anterior part of the eye and are not directly under the sclera. Therefore, the correct answer is the choroid.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The posterior chamber is the space between the ..................................................
- A.
Cornea and iris
- B.
Cornea and lens
- C.
Iris and lens
- D.
Lens and retina
Correct Answer
C. Iris and lensExplanation
The posterior chamber is the space between the iris and lens. It is located behind the iris and in front of the lens within the eye.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The cornea obtain its oxygen needed from ....................................................
- A.
Atmospheric oxygen that has dissolved into the tear film
- B.
Limbal blood vessels
- C.
Circulating fluid within the anterior chamber circulating fluid within the anterior chamber
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The cornea obtains its oxygen from all of the above sources. Atmospheric oxygen dissolves into the tear film and provides oxygen to the cornea. The limbal blood vessels also supply oxygen to the cornea. Additionally, the circulating fluid within the anterior chamber, which is the fluid in the front part of the eye, also contributes to providing oxygen to the cornea. Therefore, all of these sources play a role in supplying oxygen to the cornea.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The uveal tract consists of all of the following except ........................
- A.
Choroid
- B.
Iris
- C.
Pupil
- D.
Sclera
Correct Answer
D. ScleraExplanation
The uveal tract is a part of the eye that includes the choroid, iris, and pupil. The sclera, on the other hand, is the white outer layer of the eye that covers most of the eyeball. Therefore, the correct answer is sclera because it is not a part of the uveal tract.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Increasing the frequency of contraction is called ....................................................
- A.
Positive chronotropism
- B.
Positive inotropism
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
Palpitation
Correct Answer
A. Positive chronotropismExplanation
Positive chronotropism refers to an increase in the heart rate or the frequency of contractions. It is a physiological response that can be caused by various factors such as sympathetic stimulation or the release of certain hormones. This term is used to describe the mechanism by which the heart rate is increased and can be distinguished from positive inotropism, which refers to an increase in the force of contraction. Bradycardia, on the other hand, refers to a slow heart rate, while palpitation refers to an abnormal awareness of the heartbeat.Rate this question:
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- 29.
When the iris sphincter muscles contracted causing narrowing of the pupil in light places is called ..................................................................
- A.
Mydriasis
- B.
Miosis
- C.
Myopia
- D.
Astigmatism
Correct Answer
B. MiosisExplanation
Miosis refers to the contraction of the iris sphincter muscles, which causes the pupil to narrow in bright or well-lit environments. This is a natural response of the eye to protect it from excessive light exposure. Mydriasis, on the other hand, refers to the dilation of the pupil in low-light conditions. Myopia and astigmatism are refractive errors that affect vision, but they are not related to the contraction of the iris sphincter muscles.Rate this question:
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- 30.
............................ of candesartan is eliminated by the kidneys and ............................... in the bile (respectively)
- A.
90%, 10%
- B.
60%, 40%
- C.
40%, 60%
- D.
10%, 90%
Correct Answer
B. 60%, 40%Explanation
Candesartan is eliminated from the body through two different routes: the kidneys and the bile. The given answer states that 60% of candesartan is eliminated by the kidneys, while 40% is eliminated in the bile. This suggests that the majority of the drug is excreted through the kidneys, with a smaller portion being eliminated through the bile.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 28, 2014Quiz Created by
Marketingqueen
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