Manual Of Rules 1 (2019)
Manual of Rules
Questions and Answers
- 1.
According to the manual the term Habitual means ____ or more incidents involving violation of rules and regulations within any ____ month period
- A.
5 , 12
- B.
3 , 12
- C.
5 , 18
- D.
3 , 6
Correct Answer
B. 3 , 12Explanation
The term "Habitual" refers to the number of incidents involving violation of rules and regulations. According to the manual, the term "Habitual" means 3 or more incidents involving violation of rules and regulations within any 12-month period.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A member of the department who commits an act tending to bring reproach or disrespect upon the department, whether on duty or off duty has committed ____________
- A.
Insubordination
- B.
A Policy Violation
- C.
Deportment
- D.
Unprofessionalism
Correct Answer
C. DeportmentExplanation
Deportment refers to the behavior and conduct of a person, particularly in relation to their role or position. In this context, if a member of the department commits an act that brings reproach or disrespect upon the department, it can be considered a violation of proper deportment. This implies that the individual's actions have negatively impacted the reputation and image of the department, regardless of whether they were on duty or off duty at the time.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Members shall notify their commanding officer of any change in telephone number or residence __________ of said change
- A.
Immediately
- B.
Within 12 Hours
- C.
Within 24 Hours
- D.
Within 48 Hours
Correct Answer
D. Within 48 HoursExplanation
Members are required to inform their commanding officer about any change in their telephone number or residence within 48 hours of the change. This means that they have two days to update their commanding officer with the new information.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A supervisor who smells the odor of intoxicants on the breath of a member reporting for regular duty, or while on active duty, may be evidence the member is unfit for duty. The supervisor can/should:
- A.
Order the member to take a PBT
- B.
Immediately suspend the member as unfit for duty
- C.
Take the members firearm
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above". If a supervisor smells the odor of intoxicants on the breath of a member reporting for regular duty or while on active duty, it may be evidence that the member is unfit for duty. In this situation, the supervisor can order the member to take a PBT (Portable Breath Test) to confirm the presence of alcohol. The supervisor can also immediately suspend the member as unfit for duty to ensure the safety of the workplace. Additionally, the supervisor may take the member's firearm to prevent any potential harm or misuse.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If a member wishes to file a work complaint regarding a supervisor, the member shall reduce his complaint to writing and direct it through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. Failure of a command officer to forward the communication shall be treated as _____________
- A.
Insubordination
- B.
Dereliction of Duty
- C.
Deportment
- D.
Failure to Act
- E.
Violation of SOP's
Correct Answer
B. Dereliction of DutyExplanation
If a member wishes to file a work complaint regarding a supervisor, they are required to reduce the complaint to writing and direct it through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. If a command officer fails to forward the communication, it is considered a dereliction of duty. This means that the command officer is neglecting or failing to perform their duty or responsibility to properly handle and address the complaint.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An officer may recommend an attorney or bondsman as long as he has no direct affiliation with such person
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
No, you may never directly or indirectly recommend or endorse eitherRate this question:
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- 7.
A Sergeant may issue a written reprimand if an absence of their Lieutenant causes an untimely resolution to the issue.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A Sergeant may issue a written reprimand if an absence of their Lieutenant causes an untimely resolution to the issue. This means that if the Lieutenant is not present and the Sergeant is left to handle the situation, and as a result, the issue is not resolved in a timely manner, the Sergeant has the authority to issue a written reprimand. This shows that the Sergeant has the power to take disciplinary action in such situations. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Any disciplinary action involving a suspension or above will be documented in a Special Order. This Special Order shall be posted and shall remain for a period of ___________
- A.
1 month
- B.
3 months
- C.
6 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
C. 6 monthsExplanation
Any disciplinary action involving a suspension or above will be documented in a Special Order and posted for a period of 6 months. This allows for transparency and ensures that the information regarding the disciplinary action remains accessible for a reasonable amount of time. It also serves as a reminder to the individual involved and others within the organization about the consequences of such actions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Lieutenants AND Sergeants have the authority to impose emergency suspensions until the next business day when it appears to be in the best interest of the department. They may also order the employee to surrender their firearm and all police identification.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Lieutenants and Sergeants have the authority to impose emergency suspensions until the next business day when it appears to be in the best interest of the department. This means that they are able to temporarily suspend an employee's duties and responsibilities if they believe it is necessary for the department's well-being. Additionally, they can also order the employee to surrender their firearm and all police identification during this suspension period. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A Major Incident Review Board consists of three supervisors, ranked Sergeant or higher, the highest ranking of whom shall chair.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A Major Incident Review Board is composed of three supervisors, with the rank of Sergeant or higher. The highest-ranking supervisor among them is designated as the chairperson of the board. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the composition and leadership structure of a Major Incident Review Board.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Members of the Major Incident Review Board may serve as members of any Trial Board arising out of the same incident.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Members of the Major Incident Review Board may not serve as members of any Trial Board arising out of the same incident.Rate this question:
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- 12.
As an Incident Commander, the incident priorities in order of importance are:
- A.
Incident Stabilization, Life Safety, Conservation of Property
- B.
Conservation of Property, Life Safety, Incident Stabilization
- C.
Life Safety, Conservation of Property, Incident Stabilization
- D.
Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property
- E.
Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property, Life Safety
Correct Answer
D. Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of PropertyExplanation
The correct answer is Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property. This order of priorities reflects the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals involved in the incident first, followed by stabilizing the situation to prevent further harm or damage, and then focusing on protecting and preserving property. By prioritizing life safety first, the Incident Commander ensures that the most critical needs are addressed first before addressing other concerns.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Incident Commanders should utilize R.E.C.E.O. as a guide which conists of:
- A.
Rate
- B.
Rescue
- C.
Rapid
- D.
Express
- E.
Egress
- F.
Exposures
- G.
Confinement
- H.
Containment
- I.
Concealment
- J.
Excitement
- K.
Exit
- L.
Extinguishment
- M.
Overhead
- N.
Overhaul
- O.
Outside
Correct Answer(s)
B. Rescue
F. Exposures
G. Confinement
L. Extinguishment
N. OverhaulExplanation
The correct answer is a list of steps that an Incident Commander should follow during an emergency situation. The acronym R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These steps represent the priorities that need to be addressed in order to effectively manage and control the incident. First, the focus is on rescuing individuals who may be in immediate danger. Then, the attention shifts to identifying and addressing any potential exposures or hazards. Next, efforts are made to confine the incident and prevent it from spreading further. Once these steps are taken, the emphasis is on extinguishing the fire or mitigating the emergency. Finally, the area is thoroughly inspected and overhauled to ensure that there are no remaining hazards.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The three fire operations modes are:
- A.
Investigation, Stationary Attack, Fixed Command
- B.
Exploratory, Stationary Attack, Mobile Command
- C.
Investigation, Mobile Attack, Mobile Command
- D.
Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command
- E.
Exploratory, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command
Correct Answer
D. Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed CommandExplanation
The correct answer is Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command. In fire operations, the investigation mode is used to gather information about the fire incident, such as its cause and potential hazards. The mobile attack mode involves actively fighting the fire using fire suppression techniques and equipment. The fixed command mode refers to the establishment of a command post at a strategic location to coordinate and manage the firefighting operations. This combination of modes ensures a systematic approach to fire response, starting with gathering information, followed by active firefighting, and effective command and control.Rate this question:
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- 15.
On ALL multiple alarm fires, it shall be the responsibility of the responding mutual aid agency to report to the Incident Commander and present all personal identification tags. The tags will be located on an IC board located outside the Command Post
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. On all multiple alarm fires, the responding mutual aid agency is responsible for reporting to the Incident Commander and presenting all personal identification tags. These tags are located on an IC board outside the Command Post.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Under no circumstance shall the status of an employee being carried sick or on the job injured be changed without the written authorization of the ___________
- A.
City Physician
- B.
Captain
- C.
Chief of Police
- D.
Immediate Supervisor
Correct Answer
A. City pHysicianExplanation
The correct answer is City Physician because the status of an employee being carried sick or on the job injured should not be changed without the written authorization of the City Physician. This is because the City Physician is responsible for assessing and determining the employee's medical condition and fitness for work. Their authorization ensures that any changes in the employee's status are made based on medical expertise and in compliance with relevant regulations and policies.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The 21-day rule, as it applies to a specific vacancy, will not be invoked if the department fails to fill the position after 90 days.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
120 daysRate this question:
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- 18.
Any member who has elected to save furlough time must schedule the time off no later than _________
- A.
September 1st
- B.
October 1st
- C.
October 31st
- D.
December 1st
Correct Answer
A. September 1stExplanation
Members who have chosen to save furlough time must ensure that they schedule their time off before September 1st. This means that they need to plan and take their furlough time before this date, otherwise they will not be able to use it. It is important for members to be aware of this deadline and make the necessary arrangements to take their furlough time before September 1st.Rate this question:
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- 19.
During an emergency call in (fire, disater,..) it may be filled at the supervisors discretion and the hours not recorded
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
During an emergency call, it is possible that the supervisor may choose to fill out the necessary paperwork and not record the hours worked by the employee. This could be due to the urgent nature of the situation and the need to prioritize immediate action over administrative tasks. Therefore, the statement "During an emergency call in (fire, disaster,..) it may be filled at the supervisor's discretion and the hours not recorded" is true.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When filling overtime for special details (Safety Town, assist detectives,..) the supervisor should record all hours worked but he should not record hours refused
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The supervisor should record all hours worked for filling overtime for special details such as Safety Town or assisting detectives. However, the supervisor should not record hours refused, as this implies that the supervisor declined to work those hours. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Scheduled time off that creates the need for overtime must be cancelled within 48 hours before that leave day
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
24 hoursRate this question:
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- 22.
Personnel called by a supervisor in error that report for overtime will be given ____ hours overtime pay and hours _________
- A.
2 , recorded
- B.
2 , not recorded
- C.
3 , recorded
- D.
3 , not recorded
Correct Answer
B. 2 , not recordedExplanation
When a supervisor calls personnel in error, the report for overtime will not be recorded. This means that the personnel will not receive any overtime pay for the hours worked. The correct answer, "2 , not recorded," reflects this situation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Any time there is a dispatcher shortage of 6 hours or more, whether the shift is short or not, a dispatcher will be offered the time before a position is filled by a PSO
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If there is a shortage of dispatchers for 6 hours or more, regardless of whether the shift is already short-staffed or not, a dispatcher will be given the opportunity to work the shift before it is filled by a Public Safety Officer (PSO). This means that dispatchers are prioritized for filling any vacancies in their schedule, even if the shift is already understaffed. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Beginning the first full week of ______ the flushing of hydrants will be the responsibility of the platoon working ______
- A.
June , days
- B.
June , nights
- C.
July , days
- D.
July , nights
Correct Answer
A. June , daysExplanation
In June, during the daytime, the responsibility of flushing hydrants will be assigned to the platoon working.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The platoon working _____ the first two weeks of _______ shall be responsible for pumping all hydrants. The platoon working _____ the last two weeks of _______ shall recheck all hydrants for water in the barrel.
- A.
(days , September) (days , October)
- B.
(days , September) (nights , October)
- C.
(nights , September) (days , September)
- D.
(days , September) (days , September)
- E.
(days , October) (days , October)
Correct Answer
D. (days , September) (days , September)Explanation
The platoon working during the first two weeks of September shall be responsible for pumping all hydrants. The platoon working during the last two weeks of September shall recheck all hydrants for water in the barrel.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During a non-structure fire the dispatcher shall notify the stand-by personnel of the fire as well as available patrol units. Afterwards the dispatcher shall broadcast the RUNNING CARD.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
at a NON-structure fire the Incident Commander will instruct the dispatcher if and when to broadcast the Running Card.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If a vehicle is fueled by Liquid Propane Gas (LPG), maintain a safe distance and evacuate all people within a _______ area that has exposure to the vehicle.
- A.
300 foot
- B.
500 foot
- C.
1 block
- D.
1/4 mile
Correct Answer
C. 1 blockExplanation
If a vehicle is fueled by Liquid Propane Gas (LPG), it is important to maintain a safe distance and evacuate all people within a 1 block area that has exposure to the vehicle. This is necessary because LPG is highly flammable and can pose a significant risk if there is a leak or any kind of accident. Evacuating people within a 1 block radius helps to ensure their safety and minimize the potential for harm in case of an incident involving the LPG-fueled vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 28.
During fire size up, after an Incident Commander determines the location and extent of the fire, he shall use ________ as a guide in determining the proper fire attack.
- A.
R.I.C.E.O
- B.
R.A.C.E.O
- C.
R.E.C.E.O.
- D.
R.E.D.I.O.
- E.
R.A.D.I.O.
Correct Answer
C. R.E.C.E.O.Explanation
During fire size up, after an Incident Commander determines the location and extent of the fire, he shall use R.E.C.E.O. as a guide in determining the proper fire attack. R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These are the key steps that need to be followed in a systematic manner during fire attack. First, the priority is to rescue any trapped individuals. Then, the focus is on protecting exposures, such as neighboring buildings or hazardous materials. After that, the fire needs to be confined to prevent further spread. Once the fire is contained, the next step is extinguishment. Finally, overhaul is done to ensure that all hotspots are completely extinguished.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A(n) _______________ Attack is an aggressive interior attack and shall be utilized when an immediate penetration into the structure is necessary to perform rescue and/or extinguishment operations
- A.
Structured
- B.
Offensive
- C.
Emergency
- D.
Marginal
- E.
Aggressive
Correct Answer
B. OffensiveExplanation
An offensive attack is an aggressive interior attack that is used when there is a need for immediate penetration into a structure to perform rescue and extinguishment operations. This approach involves firefighters entering the structure to directly attack the fire and save lives. It is a proactive and assertive approach that aims to quickly control and extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 30.
An evacuation signal during a fire should be a series of two second blasts from the air horns of all available vehicles, with a two second interval in between followed by a radio broadcast
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The signals should be ONE second blastsRate this question:
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- 31.
_________ Attack or ________ Operations are those initial deployments where immediate intervention with limited personnel and equipment are utilized to perform a rescue, confinement, or exposure operation. This operation is considered to be a temporary status awaiting sufficient manpower or equipment to transfer into an offensive or defensive attack.
- A.
Median
- B.
Immediate
- C.
Marginal
- D.
Specialized
- E.
Direct
Correct Answer
C. MarginalExplanation
Marginal operations are those initial deployments where immediate intervention with limited personnel and equipment are utilized to perform a rescue, confinement, or exposure operation. This operation is considered to be a temporary status awaiting sufficient manpower or equipment to transfer into an offensive or defensive attack.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In any extrication situation, _________ must take place before the operation can proceed
- A.
Triage
- B.
Scene Size-up
- C.
Investigation
- D.
Stabilization
- E.
Initial Precautions
Correct Answer
D. StabilizationExplanation
In any extrication situation, stabilization must take place before the operation can proceed. This means that the first step is to ensure that the scene is safe and secure, and that any potential hazards or dangers are addressed. Stabilization also refers to immobilizing the patient or the vehicle involved in the extrication, to prevent further injury or complications. Only after the situation is stable and secure can the operation proceed safely.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When using hydraulic equipment, specifically chains and hooks for extrication, always make sure all pulls are to the front of the hook and not to the opening
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
always make sure all pulls are to the REAR of the hook and not to the openingRate this question:
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- 34.
HAZMAT incident will be classified as Level _________
- A.
I and II
- B.
I, II, and III
- C.
1 through 5
- D.
1 through 10
- E.
A, B, C, or D
Correct Answer
B. I, II, and IIIExplanation
The correct answer is I, II, and III. This means that a HAZMAT incident can be classified as Level I, Level II, or Level III. This classification system is used to determine the severity and potential danger of a hazardous material incident. Level I incidents are considered to have the lowest level of severity, while Level III incidents are considered to have the highest level of severity. This classification helps emergency responders to effectively respond to and manage HAZMAT incidents based on their level of risk.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A Level ___ HAZMAT Incident poses a severe hazard on a large area which poses an extreme threat to life and property and may require a large scale protective action.
- A.
II
- B.
III
- C.
4
- D.
5
- E.
C
- F.
D
- G.
10
Correct Answer
B. IIIExplanation
Level III HAZMAT incidents pose a severe hazard on a large area and pose an extreme threat to life and property. These incidents typically involve hazardous materials that can cause serious injury or death and require a large-scale protective action.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A ______ ZONE provides an area of high risk from the HAZMAT involved. Entrance is restricted to those with the proper training and in proper protective clothing.
- A.
DANGER
- B.
HIGH-RISK
- C.
COLD
- D.
HAZARADOUS
- E.
HOT
Correct Answer
E. HOTExplanation
A HOT ZONE provides an area of high risk from the HAZMAT involved. Entrance is restricted to those with the proper training and in proper protective clothing. This suggests that the area is highly dangerous and requires specific precautions to prevent harm.Rate this question:
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- 37.
You should always fight fires from the ends of containers, never from the sides
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Fight the sides, never the endsRate this question:
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- 38.
Officers may carry a fixed blade knife no longer than 5 inches
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
No FIXED blade knives, must be 5 inches or less and OPERABLE with one handRate this question:
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- 39.
When an officer is carrying a secondary/backup firearm, he is required to carry at a minimum ONE reload
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
There are NO reload requirements for secondary/backup weaponsRate this question:
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- 40.
Missing persons - No entry shall be made into the LEIN/NCIC unless a Missing Persons Documentation Form has been first filled out and signed. Exceptions to this rule are disaater/catastrophe victims or persons under 18 years of age who do not qualify for entry in the categories of Disability (EMD), Endangered (EME), or Involuntary (EMI).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Under 21 years of ageRate this question:
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- 41.
A RIT Team consists of at least _____ members
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
A RIT Team consists of at least 2 members. This means that the team must have a minimum of 2 individuals in order to be considered a RIT Team. It is possible for the team to have more than 2 members, but the minimum requirement is 2.Rate this question:
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- 42.
________ will be known as any fire that has progressed past the incipient state involving a structure or emergency operation involving a known or unknown HAZMAT condition.
- A.
R.E.C.E.O.
- B.
IDLH
- C.
Unsalvageable
- D.
Flashover
- E.
Emergency stage
Correct Answer
B. IDLHExplanation
IDLH = Immediate Dangerous to Life and HealthRate this question:
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- 43.
______________ shall be defined as conditions that exist in which immediate action could prevent the loss of life, serious injury or the prevention of an incident from growing to catastrophic proportions. They are NOT to be considered standard operating procedures.
- A.
IDLH
- B.
HAZMAT Situations
- C.
Backdraft
- D.
Rescue Operations
- E.
Exigent Circumstances
Correct Answer
E. Exigent CircumstancesExplanation
Exigent circumstances refer to situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent loss of life, serious injury, or the escalation of an incident to catastrophic levels. These circumstances are not considered standard operating procedures, meaning they are not part of regular protocols or routines.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Personnel working on IDLH atmospheres shall work in teams of no less than ____ and must remain in visual or voice contact at all times
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- E.
6
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Personnel working on IDLH atmospheres must work in teams of no less than 2 and maintain visual or voice contact at all times. This is important for their safety as IDLH atmospheres are immediately dangerous to life and health. Working in teams ensures that there is someone to provide assistance or rescue in case of an emergency. It also allows for better communication and coordination during the work, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 45.
To insure an arrest is valid, when a prisoner is brought to the station, it shall be the responsibility of the PC/APC to review all available documentation as soon as practical
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because it is important for the PC/APC (Police Constable/Arresting Police Constable) to review all available documentation as soon as possible to ensure that the arrest is valid. This helps in verifying the legality of the arrest and ensures that the prisoner's rights are protected. By reviewing the documentation, the PC/APC can confirm the grounds for arrest, check for any errors or inconsistencies, and ensure that all necessary procedures have been followed. This step is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the arrest process and upholding the principles of justice.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Any juvenile detained shall be handled as directed by the _________________
- A.
Standard Operating Procedures
- B.
Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention Act
- C.
Youth Services Unit
- D.
Wayne County Prosecutors Office
- E.
State Guidelines on Juvenile Detention
Correct Answer
B. Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention ActExplanation
Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention Act (J.J.D.P.A.)Rate this question:
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- 47.
Intoxicated prisoners over the age of 20 can be released when their BAL, based on a PBT reaches _____ or less
- A.
.08
- B.
.07
- C.
.06
- D.
.02
- E.
.00
Correct Answer
B. .07Explanation
Intoxicated prisoners over the age of 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breathalyzer test (PBT), reaches .07 or less. This means that if their BAL is .07 or lower, it is considered safe for them to be released from custody.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Intoxicated prisoners between the ages of 17 and 20 can be released when their BAL, based on a PBT is _____ or less
- A.
.08
- B.
.07
- C.
.04
- D.
.02
- E.
.00
Correct Answer
D. .02Explanation
Intoxicated prisoners between the ages of 17 and 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breath test (PBT), is .02 or less. This means that if their BAL is higher than .02, they cannot be released.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A body cavity search shall not be conducted without a search warrant. It shall be the responsibility of the PC/APC to prepare and obtain a body cavity search warrant.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Responsibility of the Detective BureauRate this question:
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- 50.
When placing or removing a subject into or out of the restraint chair, a minimum of two officers shall be used to reduce the risk of injury to both the detainee and officers.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When placing or removing a subject into or out of the restraint chair, it is important to have a minimum of two officers present. This is done to reduce the risk of injury to both the detainee and the officers. Having two officers ensures that there is enough manpower to safely control the detainee and prevent any potential harm or resistance. It also allows for better coordination and communication between the officers, making the process safer and more effective. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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