ATI Maternal Newborn Final Study Guide Practice Test
(87).jpg "ATI Maternal Newborn Final Study Guide Practice Test - Quiz")
The maternal and newborn study is not an easy subject. If you're learning it, then you must try this ATI Maternal Newborn final study guide practice test that is given below. In this test, you'll get a chance to revise your concepts and even learn something new. This is not an official test from ATI but just a similar one with essential exam questions so that you can get prepared for this subject. So, give it a try and see how much you can score. Good luck!
- 1.
A patient has received oxytocin to augment pregnancy. What is a contraindication?
- A.
There are none
- B.
Late decelerations
- C.
Prolonged active phase of labor
- D.
Cessation of uterine dilation
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Late decelerationsExplanation
Late decelerations are a contraindication for the use of oxytocin to augment pregnancy. Late decelerations refer to a decrease in the fetal heart rate that occurs after the peak of a contraction. This can indicate fetal distress and may be a sign of inadequate oxygen supply to the fetus. Therefore, if late decelerations are present, it would not be safe to continue using oxytocin to augment labor.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Suppose a patient is in premature labor and is receiving MGSO4 2 g I V, what finding should you report to the provider?
- A.
RR of 16/min
- B.
Patient states having hot flashes
- C.
Absent deep tendon reflexes
- D.
There is nothing you need to worry about with this medication
- E.
All the above
Correct Answer
C. Absent deep tendon reflexesExplanation
Absent deep tendon reflexes should be reported to the provider when a patient in premature labor is receiving MGSO4 2 g IV. This finding could indicate magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to notify the provider so that appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Patient is tensing at the onset of a contraction. What can you tell her regarding breathing techniques.
- A.
When a contraction comes bear down and push
- B.
Take a cleansing breath in
- C.
Use patterned breathing
- D.
Breath however you want to
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Take a cleansing breath inExplanation
Taking a cleansing breath in is a recommended breathing technique during contractions. It helps the patient to relax and focus, preparing them for the upcoming contraction. This technique allows the patient to take a deep breath in through their nose, hold it for a few seconds, and then exhale slowly through their mouth. This type of breathing can help manage pain and provide a sense of control during labor.Rate this question:
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- 4.
You are taking care of a patient having amniocentesis done what is the appropriate action for you to take prior to procedure?
- A.
Assess fetal movement
- B.
Pat patient on belly and tell her everything is looking great
- C.
Assess for nausea and vomiting in patient
- D.
Assess fetal heart rate
- E.
I have no clue how to answer this question
Correct Answer
D. Assess fetal heart rateExplanation
Prior to an amniocentesis procedure, it is important to assess the fetal heart rate. This is because the procedure involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac, which carries a risk of potential harm to the fetus. By assessing the fetal heart rate, any abnormalities or distress can be detected before proceeding with the procedure, ensuring the safety of the fetus. Assessing fetal movement or symptoms like nausea and vomiting may not provide crucial information about the fetus's well-being in this specific context.Rate this question:
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- 5.
At a prenatal clinic a patient comes in and says she is 2 weeks late for her period and thinks she may be pregnant. What would you tell this patient?
- A.
If you have been sexually active and you didn't wrap it before you tapped it, you are probably pregnant
- B.
Well because your period is late you should go home and take a pregnancy test and come back with the results
- C.
I am going to go ahead and give you a pregnancy test here so we can determine if you are or not
- D.
Have you noticed that your abdomen has enlarged in the past two weeks
- E.
Sometimes there are other causes for a skipped or missed period, what is you typical cycle like
Correct Answer
E. Sometimes there are other causes for a skipped or missed period, what is you typical cycle likeExplanation
The correct answer suggests that there can be other reasons for a missed or skipped period, not just pregnancy. The healthcare professional should gather more information about the patient's typical menstrual cycle to determine the possible causes for the late period.Rate this question:
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- 6.
You are caring for a patient in labor, patient reports she is having increased rectal pressure. Her vaginal exam shows that her cervix is 8-9 cm dilated, her contractions are 2-3min apart and they last for about 80-90 seconds. You realize that the client is in _____________.
- A.
Labor
- B.
Transition phase
- C.
Third stage
- D.
First stage
- E.
Active phase
Correct Answer
B. Transition pHaseExplanation
The patient's symptoms, such as increased rectal pressure, along with the findings from the vaginal exam, indicate that she is in the transition phase of labor. During this phase, the cervix dilates from 8-9 cm to 10 cm, which is the fully dilated stage. The contractions are also close together and long-lasting, which is characteristic of the transition phase. This phase is known to be intense and can be accompanied by strong contractions and pressure in the rectum.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In teaching newborn care, in discharging patient and family the highest priority is:
- A.
Instruction on how to suction with a bulb syringe
- B.
Swaddling
- C.
Feeding
- D.
Diapering
- E.
Not really my problem what they do when they get home with the baby
Correct Answer
A. Instruction on how to suction with a bulb syringeExplanation
In teaching newborn care, the highest priority is providing instruction on how to suction with a bulb syringe. This is because newborns often have mucus or amniotic fluid in their airways, which can make it difficult for them to breathe. Suctioning with a bulb syringe helps to clear their airways and ensures proper breathing. This instruction is crucial for the safety and well-being of the newborn, making it the highest priority in discharging the patient and their family.Rate this question:
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- 8.
You have four patients in antepartum all with preeclampsia. Which patient requires further assessment?
- A.
BP 144/90 mmHg
- B.
Don't really care, i have been working for 12 hours and i'm tired and ready to go home
- C.
Proteinura less than 0.3 g in 24 hour
- D.
Deep tendon reflexes +4
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Deep tendon reflexes +4Explanation
The patient with deep tendon reflexes +4 requires further assessment. Deep tendon reflexes +4 indicate hyperreflexia, which can be a sign of severe preeclampsia. This patient may be at risk for complications and requires further evaluation and monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 9.
You have just admitted a patient into L&D, client says 'my water just broke". what is your priority intervention?
- A.
Make sure she didn't get anyting on your shoes or scrubs
- B.
Clean up mess
- C.
Assess amniotic fluid
- D.
Check cervical dilation
- E.
Monitor fetus' heart rate
Correct Answer
E. Monitor fetus' heart rateExplanation
The priority intervention in this situation is to monitor the fetus' heart rate. This is important because the client's water breaking indicates that the amniotic sac has ruptured, which can potentially lead to complications such as umbilical cord compression or prolapse. Monitoring the fetus' heart rate will help assess its well-being and detect any signs of distress or abnormalities. This intervention takes precedence over other options like cleaning up the mess or checking cervical dilation, as the focus should be on ensuring the safety and health of the fetus and addressing any potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In the fourth stage of labor patient is experiencing hemorrhage, what is the second step you would do for the patient?
- A.
Assess bladder
- B.
Massage fundus
- C.
Give pitocin
- D.
Give MGSO4
Correct Answer
A. Assess bladderExplanation
In the fourth stage of labor, it is important to assess the bladder of the patient. This is because a full bladder can impede the contraction of the uterus and increase the risk of hemorrhage. By assessing the bladder, the healthcare provider can ensure that it is empty and not causing any complications. This step is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage and promoting the well-being of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In the fourth stage of labor patient is experiencing hemorrhage, what is the last thing you would do?
- A.
Give pitocin
- B.
Assess bladder
- C.
Give MGSO4
- D.
Massage fundus
Correct Answer
C. Give MGSO4Explanation
In the fourth stage of labor, the last thing you would do is give MGSO4. This is because MGSO4, also known as magnesium sulfate, is typically used as a tocolytic agent to prevent preterm labor or as a treatment for preeclampsia and eclampsia. It is not typically used to address hemorrhage. Therefore, it would be more appropriate to prioritize other interventions such as giving pitocin to help control bleeding, assessing the bladder for potential causes of hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus to promote uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 12.
You are caring for a patient who is 18 weeks her MSAFP is high. What is the appropriate action?
- A.
Offer grief counseling
- B.
Request ultrasound
- C.
Tell patient and family that they are having a baby with Down Syndrome and ask how would they like to proceed with pregnancy
- D.
Obtain prescription of narcotic drugs so they can deal with what may come
- E.
Uh what the hell are we talking about in this question?
Correct Answer
B. Request ultrasoundExplanation
Based on the information provided, the appropriate action would be to request an ultrasound. This is because a high MSAFP (Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein) level at 18 weeks of pregnancy can indicate potential issues with the baby's development. An ultrasound can help further assess the situation and provide more information about the baby's health. This will enable the healthcare provider to make appropriate decisions and provide necessary support and care to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A fetal anomaly associated with oligohydraminos is __________.
- A.
Cardiac issues
- B.
Reproductive issues
- C.
GI issues
- D.
Renal issues
- E.
Neurological issues
Correct Answer
D. Renal issuesExplanation
Oligohydramnios refers to a condition where there is a decreased amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus in the uterus. This can be caused by various factors, one of which is renal issues. Renal issues can affect the development and functioning of the kidneys, leading to a decrease in urine production and subsequently a decrease in amniotic fluid levels. Therefore, a fetal anomaly associated with oligohydramnios is renal issues.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Your patient is in active labor, she said she has had bright red bleeding since contractions started. when you are monitoring her VS at frequent intervals. What are you assessing for?
- A.
Pain
- B.
Hemorrhage
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
How much time i can waste before my shift is over
Correct Answer
B. HemorrhageExplanation
When a patient in active labor experiences bright red bleeding since contractions started, it is important to assess for hemorrhage. Hemorrhage refers to excessive bleeding and can be a serious complication during labor and delivery. Monitoring the patient's vital signs at frequent intervals allows for early detection of any signs of hemorrhage such as a drop in blood pressure, increased heart rate, or signs of shock. Prompt identification and intervention can help prevent further complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The patient is diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. What should you expect?
- A.
Dark browinsh vaginal discharge
- B.
Dont know because i don't even know what that is
- C.
Decreased urine output
- D.
Subnormal maternal temperature
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Dark browinsh vaginal dischargeExplanation
A hydatidiform mole is a rare condition where abnormal tissue grows inside the uterus instead of a baby. Dark brownish vaginal discharge can be a symptom of a hydatidiform mole due to the presence of abnormal tissue. This discharge may also contain blood. Therefore, it is expected that a patient diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole may experience dark brownish vaginal discharge.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Inactive labor the fetal heart rate decrease from 166/min to 100/min after the acme of contractions. the heart rate then returns to baseline when the contraction is finished. What should you document?
- A.
Early deceleratoins
- B.
Nothing because i don't do documenting
- C.
Fetal bradycardia
- D.
Late decelerations
- E.
Variable declerations
Correct Answer
D. Late decelerationsExplanation
The given scenario describes a decrease in fetal heart rate from 166/min to 100/min after the peak of contractions, with the heart rate returning to baseline once the contraction is over. This pattern is indicative of late decelerations, which are characterized by a gradual decrease in heart rate that occurs after the peak of a contraction. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, where the placenta is unable to provide adequate oxygen to the fetus during contractions. Therefore, documenting late decelerations would be the appropriate response in this case.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A positive pregnancy can be determined by ________.
- A.
Enlarge abdomen
- B.
Amenorrrhea
- C.
Fetal movement felt by physician
- D.
Chadwicks sign
- E.
Pregnancy test
Correct Answer
C. Fetal movement felt by pHysicianExplanation
Fetal movement felt by a physician can be a reliable indication of a positive pregnancy. As the fetus grows and develops, it starts to move, and a trained physician can feel these movements during a physical examination. This method is often used in the early stages of pregnancy when other signs may not be as apparent. However, it is important to note that other factors and tests, such as ultrasound and pregnancy tests, are also used to confirm pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Your patient is HIV positive, what should you include in her care plan?
- A.
Nothing, i don't care to do a plan
- B.
Explain blood test during pregnancy
- C.
Importance of taking medication daily
- D.
That she will be isolated from everyone including baby after delivery
- E.
All the above
Correct Answer
C. Importance of taking medication dailyExplanation
The correct answer is importance of taking medication daily. This is because for a patient who is HIV positive, taking medication daily is crucial for managing the infection and preventing its progression. Consistent adherence to medication helps in controlling the viral load, maintaining a healthy immune system, and reducing the risk of transmitting the virus to others. Therefore, emphasizing the importance of taking medication daily is essential in the care plan for an HIV positive patient.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Your patient has abruption placenta, what should you be assessing for in her lab results?
- A.
Prolonged partial thromboplastin time
- B.
Decrease clotting time
- C.
Increased platelet count
- D.
I have not a clue
- E.
Right now i wished melissa would die for making up this quiz
Correct Answer
A. Prolonged partial thromboplastin timeExplanation
In a patient with abruption placenta, prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT) should be assessed in her lab results. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to evaluate the function of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. A prolonged PTT may indicate a clotting disorder or a deficiency in clotting factors, which could be relevant in a patient with abruption placenta where there is a risk of excessive bleeding. Assessing PTT helps in monitoring the patient's coagulation status and guiding appropriate management.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Themain distinction between abprutio placenta and placenta previa is
- A.
Maternal hypotension
- B.
Decreased hemorrhage
- C.
Abdominal pain
- D.
Who cares
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Abdominal painExplanation
The main distinction between abruption placenta and placenta previa is abdominal pain. This symptom is characteristic of abruption placenta, where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, causing severe pain in the abdomen. Placenta previa, on the other hand, is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, without abdominal pain. Therefore, abdominal pain is the key differentiating factor between these two conditions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
To verify a patient's pregnancy blood and urine are checked for the presence of what?
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
HCG
- C.
Estrogen
- D.
Progesteron
- E.
Narcan
Correct Answer
B. HCGExplanation
To verify a patient's pregnancy, blood and urine are checked for the presence of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). hCG is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in the blood and urine of pregnant women, serving as a reliable indicator of pregnancy. Checking for the presence of hCG helps to confirm whether or not a patient is pregnant.Rate this question:
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- 22.
LMP was July 8th. When is EDB?
- A.
Novemeber 15th
- B.
April 15th
- C.
Ocotober 1st
- D.
October 15th
- E.
April 3rd
Correct Answer
B. April 15thExplanation
The EDB (Estimated Date of Birth) is typically calculated by adding 280 days (or 40 weeks) to the LMP (Last Menstrual Period). In this case, if the LMP was on July 8th, adding 280 days would result in April 15th. Therefore, April 15th is the estimated date of birth.Rate this question:
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- 23.
One hour after administering Pitocin to your patient her contractions were 90-100 seconds and 1-2 min apart. what needs to happen?
- A.
Discontinue pitocin
- B.
Increase infusion
- C.
Decrease/slow down infusion
- D.
Add other drugs to her regimen
- E.
Nothing she will be just fine
Correct Answer
A. Discontinue pitocinExplanation
The contractions of the patient are too frequent and lasting longer than normal, indicating hyperstimulation of the uterus. This can lead to fetal distress and compromise the blood flow to the placenta. To ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby, it is necessary to discontinue the administration of Pitocin.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A patient is on MGSO4 IV for PIH her BP=162/112mm/Hg, RR=32/min, HR=90 deep tendon reflex is +4. What other assessment should you immediately report?
- A.
RR= 16/min
- B.
BP went from 162/112 to 132/62
- C.
Urninary output is 20 mL/hr
- D.
Deep tendon reflex is +2
- E.
I have not a clue
Correct Answer
C. Urninary output is 20 mL/hrExplanation
The patient's urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a cause for concern and should be immediately reported. A low urinary output can indicate inadequate renal perfusion, which can be a sign of worsening kidney function or decreased blood flow to the kidneys. This can be a serious complication in a patient with preeclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), as it can lead to further organ damage and potentially progress to eclampsia. Therefore, it is important to notify the healthcare provider promptly to assess and address the situation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the best sleeping position for a pregnant patient with PIH?
- A.
Trendelenburg
- B.
Upside down
- C.
Supine
- D.
Left side-lying
- E.
Semi-fowlers
Correct Answer
D. Left side-lyingExplanation
The best sleeping position for a pregnant patient with PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension) is left side-lying. This position allows for optimal blood flow to the uterus, placenta, and fetus. It also helps to reduce pressure on the inferior vena cava, which can be compressed in the supine position and lead to decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus. Left side-lying position promotes better circulation and can help prevent complications associated with PIH.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Patient has uterine fibroids at 14 weeks which is the MOST correct answer
- A.
The tumor will shrink
- B.
Tumor will be removed after CS
- C.
Tumor is going to be removed right now
- D.
Nothing
- E.
Uterus may not contract
Correct Answer
E. Uterus may not contractExplanation
The correct answer is "uterus may not contract". Uterine fibroids are noncancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. These fibroids can interfere with the normal contraction of the uterus during labor, potentially leading to complications such as prolonged labor or the need for a cesarean section. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility that the presence of uterine fibroids at 14 weeks gestation may affect the contraction of the uterus during labor.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A patient is in labor with spontaneous ROM. Meconium-stained fluid is noted and FHR is normal. what should you do?
- A.
Get ultrasound for patient
- B.
Suction airway as soon as fetus head is delivered
- C.
Perform vaginal examinations
- D.
Do an emergency c-section
- E.
Ntohing
Correct Answer
B. Suction airway as soon as fetus head is deliveredExplanation
When meconium-stained fluid is noted during labor, it indicates that the fetus has passed stool in utero. This can be a sign of fetal distress. However, since the FHR is normal, it suggests that the fetus is currently tolerating the situation well. Suctioning the airway as soon as the fetus head is delivered is the appropriate action in this scenario to prevent meconium aspiration syndrome. Performing vaginal examinations or getting an ultrasound may not be necessary at this point, and an emergency c-section is not indicated based on the information given.Rate this question:
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- 28.
At 12 weeks patient's blood work reveals that her rubella is negative, VDRL is negative and her blood type is O negative. What does this mean?
- A.
Patient needs rubella vaccine after delivery
- B.
You should administer penicillin STAT
- C.
Check for Rh-incompatibilities
- D.
Give RhoGAM now
- E.
Uh.. what?? we didn't learn about this at all
Correct Answer
A. Patient needs rubella vaccine after deliveryExplanation
This means that the patient does not have immunity against rubella and will need to receive the rubella vaccine after giving birth. Rubella is a viral infection that can cause serious harm to a developing fetus if the mother contracts it during pregnancy. Therefore, it is important for the patient to be vaccinated after delivery to protect herself and any future pregnancies from rubella.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A primigravida just gave birth to a 7 lbs newborn vaginal delivery. she wants to breastfeed four hours later. you assess her fundus and find that it is firm and 1 fingerbreadth above the umbilicus and deviated to the left. she has moderate lochia rubra and has voided 150 mL. what is your first action?
- A.
Bring mother her newborn to feed
- B.
Palpate clients bladder
- C.
Not a damn thing
- D.
Give client pitocin
Correct Answer
B. Palpate clients bladderExplanation
The first action would be to palpate the client's bladder. This is because the fundus being firm and deviated to the left, along with the moderate lochia rubra and voiding of 150 mL, indicate that the bladder may be distended. Palpating the bladder will help determine if it is full and needs to be emptied, as a full bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and may lead to postpartum hemorrhage.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A newborn is given medication within one hour after birth this medication is
- A.
Naloxene
- B.
Vitamin K
- C.
Hep B
- D.
Erythromycin
Correct Answer
D. ErythromycinExplanation
Erythromycin is a medication that is commonly given to newborns within one hour after birth. It is an antibiotic that helps prevent eye infections caused by certain bacteria that can be present in the birth canal. This medication is typically administered as a preventive measure to protect the baby's eyes and ensure their overall health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The infant you are assessing is 2 days old and has a soft spot on the left side with a bluish discoloration and some edema. it doesn't cross the suture line the mother asks you about this and shows concern, your response to her is going to be ________.
- A.
It will resolve in 2-6 weeks without treatment
- B.
Don't worry this is normal
- C.
It will resolve on its own in 2-3 days
- D.
Oh don't worry, we all have that when we are babies
Correct Answer
A. It will resolve in 2-6 weeks without treatmentExplanation
The soft spot on the left side with bluish discoloration and edema is likely a cephalohematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp. It is a common condition in newborns and typically resolves on its own without treatment within 2-6 weeks. Therefore, there is no need for the mother to worry as it is a normal and temporary condition.Rate this question:
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- 32.
If you are about to administer methergine to your patient. What should you do before administration?
- A.
Check respirations
- B.
Check to see if she is voiding
- C.
Check heart rate
- D.
Check blood pressure
Correct Answer
D. Check blood pressureExplanation
Before administering methergine to a patient, it is important to check their blood pressure. Methergine is a medication that is commonly used to prevent or treat excessive bleeding after childbirth. However, it can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure as a side effect. Therefore, it is crucial to assess the patient's blood pressure to ensure that it is within a safe range before administering the medication. This helps to prevent any potential complications or adverse reactions that may occur due to the medication's effect on blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The characterisitcs of a neonate who is 39 weeks includes
- A.
creases on entire bottom of both feet
- B.
Abundant lanugo over shoulders
- C.
Dry, wrinkly skin
- D.
Nothing, cause i have never seen a baby at 39 weeks gestation
Correct Answer
A. creases on entire bottom of both feetExplanation
At 39 weeks gestation, a neonate (a newborn baby) would typically have creases on the entire bottom of both feet. This is a normal characteristic observed in newborns at this stage of development. The presence of these creases indicates that the baby's feet have fully developed and are ready for weight-bearing and walking.Rate this question:
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- 34.
You are caring for 4 neonates. Which one is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A.
LGA
- B.
Baby of substance abuse mother
- C.
Postmature at 42 weeks
- D.
All babies are at risk for hypogylcemia
Correct Answer
A. LGAExplanation
LGA stands for Large for Gestational Age, which means the baby is larger than average at birth. LGA babies are at a higher risk for hypoglycemia because their larger size can lead to difficulties in regulating blood sugar levels.Rate this question:
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- 35.
You are taking care of a patient post partially, this client has heart disease. Which order would you question from the physician?
- A.
Strict intake/output
- B.
High fiber diet
- C.
Force fluids
- D.
Nothing because whatever the physician says is right
Correct Answer
C. Force fluidsExplanation
The order to question from the physician would be "force fluids" because patients with heart disease often have fluid restrictions due to the potential for fluid overload and worsening of symptoms. Therefore, it is important to clarify with the physician whether forcing fluids is appropriate for this particular patient.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the correct conversion of lbs to kg if the infant is 4lbs 4 oz?
- A.
1.93 kg
- B.
2 kg
- C.
.44 kg
- D.
9.35 kg
Correct Answer
A. 1.93 kgExplanation
The correct conversion of lbs to kg for an infant weighing 4lbs 4 oz is 1.93 kg.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The newoborn you are taking care of has congenital hip displasia, you know that
- A.
the mother probably already abused this child
- B.
There is limited abduction in one hip
- C.
There is a negative ortolanis sign
- D.
Symmetrical gluteal folds
Correct Answer
B. There is limited abduction in one hipExplanation
The presence of limited abduction in one hip suggests that the newborn has congenital hip dysplasia. This condition occurs when the hip joint is not properly formed, leading to instability and potential dislocation. It is not appropriate to assume that the mother has abused the child based solely on this finding. The negative Ortolani's sign indicates that there is no audible click or sensation felt during hip examination, which further supports the diagnosis of hip dysplasia. Symmetrical gluteal folds may also be present in a newborn with this condition.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which statement made by a patient indicates that she has a good understanding of breastfeeding?
- A.
Fluid intake is important for adequate breast milk production
- B.
Avoid nursing for more than every 4 hours
- C.
I need to add 500 calories to pregnancy diet to meet both nutrtitional needs for both of us.
- D.
Who cares what she say it's her baby she can do what she wants
Correct Answer
A. Fluid intake is important for adequate breast milk productionExplanation
The statement "fluid intake is important for adequate breast milk production" indicates that the patient understands the importance of staying hydrated in order to produce enough breast milk for her baby. This shows that she has a good understanding of the factors that contribute to successful breastfeeding.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Infants HR IS 136/min RR are 36/min vigorous cry active movement acrocyanosis, what is this baby's APGAR score?
- A.
9
- B.
8
- C.
7
- D.
6
Correct Answer
A. 9Explanation
The baby's APGAR score is 9. The APGAR score is a quick assessment of a newborn's overall well-being and is based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the baby has a heart rate of 136/min, which is within the normal range, and a respiratory rate of 36/min, also within the normal range. The baby is crying vigorously, showing active movement, and has acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the extremities), which indicates good reflex irritability and color. Therefore, the baby's APGAR score is 9, which is considered excellent.Rate this question:
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- 40.
After 8-hour delivery who is at risk for postpartum atony? (choose all that may apply
- A.
Preciptious delivery
- B.
Vaginal delivery
- C.
Distended bladder
- D.
Macrosomic delivery
- E.
Periuretheral tear
Correct Answer(s)
A. Preciptious delivery
C. Distended bladder
D. Macrosomic deliveryExplanation
After an 8-hour delivery, individuals who are at risk for postpartum atony may include those who had a precipitous delivery, a distended bladder, and a macrosomic delivery. A precipitous delivery refers to a very rapid labor and delivery process, which can increase the risk of postpartum atony. A distended bladder can also contribute to postpartum atony as it can interfere with the contraction of the uterus. Macrosomic delivery, which refers to the birth of a larger-than-average baby, can also increase the risk of postpartum atony due to the strain it puts on the uterus during delivery.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How can a primigravida client most readily meeet her increased daily iron requirement?
- A.
By taking iron supplement with a vitamin c source
- B.
Adding an extra source of read meat to her diiet
- C.
Consuming at least 4 glasses of milk a day
- D.
Including extra source of fruits and vegetables
Correct Answer
A. By taking iron supplement with a vitamin c sourceExplanation
A primigravida client can most readily meet her increased daily iron requirement by taking an iron supplement with a vitamin C source. Vitamin C helps in the absorption of iron in the body, so taking the supplement with a vitamin C source will enhance the absorption and utilization of iron. This is important during pregnancy as the body's iron requirement increases to support the growing fetus and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Adding an extra source of red meat to her diet, consuming milk, and including extra sources of fruits and vegetables can also contribute to meeting her iron requirement, but taking an iron supplement with vitamin C is the most efficient way.Rate this question:
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- 42.
You are assessing a primigravide who is 26 weeks gestation, her blood type is AB negative and she has a history of one miscarriage at 20 weeks gestation. based on this information you anticipate, what is going to be ordered for this client?
- A.
An amniocentesis at 30 weeks
- B.
Administration of RHo(D) at 28 weeks
- C.
Blood test of the father to determine his blood type
- D.
Fetal blood sampling to deteremin fetal blood type
Correct Answer
B. Administration of RHo(D) at 28 weeksExplanation
Based on the information provided, the client has AB negative blood type, which means she lacks the Rh factor. Since she has a history of a previous miscarriage, there is a possibility of Rh incompatibility if the fetus is Rh positive. To prevent potential complications, the administration of RHo(D) at 28 weeks is ordered. RHo(D) is a medication that prevents the mother's immune system from producing antibodies against the Rh factor in case the fetus is Rh positive. This treatment helps protect future pregnancies from Rh incompatibility issues.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A client complains to you of abdominal cramping and pain after breastfeeding. what should you explain to the client about this type of pain?
- A.
To stop feeding the rugrat it's only hurting you so why do it
- B.
Breastfeeding causes the release of oxytocin, which causes uterine contractions
- C.
This kind of pain is usually associated with endometriosis
- D.
Allwomen experience abdomincal discomfort during the postpartum period
Correct Answer
B. Breastfeeding causes the release of oxytocin, which causes uterine contractionsExplanation
Breastfeeding causes the release of oxytocin, which causes uterine contractions. This is a normal physiological response that helps the uterus to contract and return to its pre-pregnancy size. The cramping and pain experienced by the client after breastfeeding is a common occurrence and not a cause for concern. It is important for the client to understand that this type of pain is a natural part of the postpartum period and will gradually decrease over time.Rate this question:
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- 44.
You are assessing a client 12 hours after prolonged labor and delivery. what assessment data would you be the most concerned with?
- A.
Oral temp of 100.6
- B.
Uterine fundus palpated to the right of the umbilicus
- C.
Moderate amount of dark red lochia
- D.
Episiotomy area bruised with small amount of dakr bloody drainage.
Correct Answer
B. Uterine fundus palpated to the right of the umbilicusExplanation
The correct answer is uterine fundus palpated to the right of the umbilicus. After prolonged labor and delivery, the uterus should be contracting and the fundus should be located at the midline or slightly above the umbilicus. If the fundus is palpated to the right of the umbilicus, it may indicate uterine atony or a possible uterine infection, which are concerning postpartum complications that require immediate attention and intervention. This assessment finding should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A client is 38 weeks pregnant and is admitted with bright red vaginal bleeding. she complains of abdominal discomfort, but she is not having contractions. after you assess her VS and the FHR. What is the most important information you need to obtain?
- A.
The amount of cervical dilation
- B.
Exact location of the abdomincal discomfort
- C.
The station of the presenting part
- D.
At what time the client last ate.
Correct Answer
D. At what time the client last ate.Explanation
The most important information to obtain in this scenario is at what time the client last ate. This is because the client is 38 weeks pregnant and experiencing bright red vaginal bleeding, which may indicate a potential complication such as placenta previa or placental abruption. Knowing the time of her last meal is crucial as it helps determine if the client needs to undergo emergency surgery or if she can safely undergo anesthesia if needed.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A woman who gave birth 3 weeks ago is calling you to ask what she should do for her sore, cracked nipples. what do you tell her?
- A.
Stop breatfeeding the infant until nipples heal
- B.
Make sure the entire areola is in the mouth when baby breastfeeds
- C.
Cleanse the nipple with peroxide and air dry
- D.
Place a cool compress on nipples after breast feeding.
Correct Answer
B. Make sure the entire areola is in the mouth when baby breastfeedsExplanation
Ensuring that the entire areola is in the baby's mouth while breastfeeding is the correct answer because it promotes proper latch and reduces the chances of sore and cracked nipples. When the baby latches on correctly, it helps distribute the pressure evenly and prevents excessive friction on the nipples. This can help in healing the soreness and preventing further damage.Rate this question:
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- 47.
You're nursing assessment of the infant reveals expiratory grunting, substernal retractions, and a temp of 99. What is your first action?
- A.
Place infant in trendlenberg position
- B.
Begin administration of 40% humidified oxygen
- C.
Increase the temperature of the environment
- D.
Perform a complete assessment for congenital anomalies.
Correct Answer
B. Begin administration of 40% humidified oxygenExplanation
The infant's symptoms, such as expiratory grunting and substernal retractions, suggest respiratory distress. A temperature of 99 degrees may indicate an underlying infection. Administering 40% humidified oxygen would help improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. This would be the first action to take in order to address the infant's symptoms and provide immediate support for breathing.Rate this question:
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- 48.
You assess the psycholgic status of the mother and promotes bonding during delivery and after delivery, which of the following maternal observations would cause you to be concerned regarding the bonding process
- A.
Mother is not interested in breastfeeding after birth
- B.
Mother hands the infnat to the father to hold immediately after birth
- C.
Mother is tired and does not want to see the infant at birth
- D.
Mother is concerned reagarding new borns acrocyanosis and molding of the head
Correct Answer
C. Mother is tired and does not want to see the infant at birthExplanation
If the mother is tired and does not want to see the infant at birth, it may indicate a lack of interest or emotional connection towards the baby. This could be concerning regarding the bonding process, as maternal-infant bonding typically involves the mother's desire to see and interact with her newborn immediately after birth. It is important for the mother to have an initial positive interaction with the infant to promote bonding and establish a nurturing relationship.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A mother dleivers a healthy term infant and has decided she wants to bottle feed her baby. what will important to teach her regarding care of her breasts?
- A.
She should ear a tight bra and apply ice packs to both breasts
- B.
She will need to pump her breast at least every 3 hours to prevent engorgement
- C.
She will be given medication to prevent formation of milk and breast engorgement
- D.
She can take warm showers and to decrease her fluid intake to decrease milk formation.
Correct Answer
A. She should ear a tight bra and apply ice packs to both breastsExplanation
The given answer is incorrect. Wearing a tight bra and applying ice packs to both breasts is not the appropriate care for a mother who has decided to bottle feed her baby. This may actually inhibit milk production and cause discomfort. The correct answer should focus on teaching the mother about techniques to prevent engorgement and maintain breast health, such as pumping her breasts regularly, using warm showers for comfort, and maintaining a balanced fluid intake to support milk production.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A primigravida is 26 weeks gestation and has been administered a glucose tolerance test. what would you expect the result to be considered within the normal range?
- A.
Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 5.0%
- B.
Blood glucose of 200 mg/L at 60 minutes
- C.
24 hour urine glucose level of 5 mg/dL
- D.
Blood glucose lever of 110 mg/L at 3 hours
Correct Answer
D. Blood glucose lever of 110 mg/L at 3 hoursExplanation
A glucose tolerance test measures how well the body can process glucose. In a pregnant woman, a blood glucose level of 110 mg/L at 3 hours would be considered within the normal range. This indicates that the woman's body is able to effectively regulate blood sugar levels after consuming a high amount of glucose. The other options provided, such as a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 5.0%, blood glucose of 200 mg/L at 60 minutes, and a 24-hour urine glucose level of 5 mg/dL, do not provide information about the body's ability to process glucose during a glucose tolerance test.Rate this question:
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Jun 10, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Feb 17, 2012Quiz Created by
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