Mental Health Hardest Test! Trivia Quiz

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| By Vickie T
Vickie T
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 206
Questions: 196 | Attempts: 206

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Mental Health Hardest Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    16.    A patient, aged 82 years, has Alzheimer’s disease. She lives with her daughter’s family and goes to a day care facility on weekdays. The nurse at the day care center noticed the patient was unkempt and had multiple bruises. When the daughter arrived to pick her up, the nurse discussed her observations. The daughter became defensive and said that her mother was very difficult to manage. She stated, “My mother is not my mother anymore. She is confused, and she wanders all night. We have to watch her constantly. Last night I fell asleep, and she fell down the stairs. Sometimes I just cannot bear to care for her.” Which nursing diagnosis would be most important to address for this patient?

    • A.

      Risk for injury related to impaired cognition, judgment, and coordination and lack of caregiver supervision

    • B.

      Nonadherence related to confusion and disorientation, as evidenced by lack of cooperation

    • C.

      Anxiety related to increasing disorientation, as evidenced by the patient wandering at night Anxiety related to increasing disorientation, as evidenced by the patient wandering at night

    • D.

      Impaired verbal communication related to brain impairment, as evidenced by the patient's confusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk for injury related to impaired cognition, judgment, and coordination and lack of caregiver supervision
    Explanation
    The most important nursing diagnosis to address for this patient is the risk for injury related to impaired cognition, judgment, and coordination and lack of caregiver supervision. The patient's Alzheimer's disease has caused confusion and disorientation, leading to wandering at night and the potential for falls and injuries. The daughter's statement about her mother being difficult to manage and the incident of falling down the stairs highlight the need for increased caregiver supervision to prevent further harm.

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  • 2. 

    18.    A nurse is working with a perpetrator of family violence who has a long history of violent rages when frustrated, with periods of remorse after each outburst. The nurse is most likely to establish the nursing diagnosis of:

    • A.

      Risk for injury related to victim reprisal.

    • B.

      Risk for other-directed violence related to stress.

    • C.

      Ineffective coping related to poor anger management.

    • D.

      Caregiver role strain related to feelings of being overwhelmed.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ineffective coping related to poor anger management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ineffective coping related to poor anger management." This nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a perpetrator of family violence who has a long history of violent rages when frustrated. The individual's inability to effectively cope with their anger and manage their emotions contributes to their violent outbursts. By identifying this nursing diagnosis, the nurse can develop interventions to help the individual develop healthier coping strategies and anger management skills, ultimately reducing the risk of further violence.

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  • 3. 

    13.    A victim of partner abuse, parent of one child, describes the partner as someone who is easily frustrated and more likely to be abusive after a experiencing an event in which self-esteem is challenged. The most recent episodes of violence were related to feeling “upset” over a job loss. What type of therapy would provide the greatest help to the victim?

    • A.

      Individual therapy

    • B.

      Group therapy

    • C.

      Couples therapy

    • D.

      Family therapy

    Correct Answer
    B. Group therapy
    Explanation
    Group therapy would provide the greatest help to the victim of partner abuse in this scenario. This type of therapy allows individuals to share their experiences and receive support from others who have gone through similar situations. It can help the victim feel less isolated and alone, while also providing a safe space to discuss their feelings and learn coping strategies. Additionally, group therapy can help the victim gain insight into their own patterns of behavior and develop healthier ways of dealing with challenges.

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  • 4. 

    21.    Several children a day are seen in the emergency department for treatment of illnesses and injuries. The situation that would create a high index of suspicion of child abuse is a child who:

    • A.

      Has repeated middle ear infections.

    • B.

      Complains of abdominal cramps and upset stomach.

    • C.

      Has perineal bruises and urinary tract infections.

    • D.

      Displays reduced functioning at school.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has perineal bruises and urinary tract infections.
    Explanation
    A child who has perineal bruises and urinary tract infections would create a high index of suspicion of child abuse because these symptoms could indicate sexual abuse. Perineal bruises could suggest physical trauma, and urinary tract infections can be a result of sexual abuse. This combination of symptoms raises concerns about the child's safety and well-being.

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  • 5. 

    22.    The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a patient who offers a number of vague somatic complaints that might not ordinarily prompt a visit to a caregiver: fatigue, back pain, headaches, and sleep disturbance. The patient seems tense, and after having spoken of the symptoms, seems reluctant to provide more information and is in a hurry to leave. The nurse can best serve the patient by:

    • A.

      Asking if the patient has ever had psychiatric counseling.

    • B.

      Completing a structured abuse assessment protocol.

    • C.

      Exploring the possibility of patient social isolation.

    • D.

      Asking the patient to disrobe to check for signs of abuse.

    Correct Answer
    B. Completing a structured abuse assessment protocol.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient presents with vague somatic complaints and exhibits signs of tension and reluctance to provide more information. These symptoms, combined with the patient's hurry to leave, suggest the possibility of abuse. Completing a structured abuse assessment protocol would be the best course of action for the nurse to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. This protocol would help identify any potential signs or indicators of abuse and allow for appropriate intervention and support.

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  • 6. 

    23.    A woman has concerns about a man she recently began to date. She confides to her friend, a nurse in the clinic, that she recently discovered that he had been charged with domestic violence in a previous relationship. She asks if this means he will also hurt her and what signs would indicate that he is likely to be abusive. What should the nurse tell her friend?

    • A.

      “If he hasn’t been abusive or controlling so far. chances are he won’t be abusive later.”

    • B.

      “Abuse occurs within dysfunctional relationships, so it may not occur in your situation.”

    • C.

      “Danger signs include pathological jealousy and controlling the partner’s activities.”

    • D.

      “Because you are not masochistic or provocative, it is unlikely you will be abused.”

    Correct Answer
    C. “Danger signs include pathological jealousy and controlling the partner’s activities.”
    Explanation
    The nurse should tell her friend that danger signs of an abusive partner include pathological jealousy and controlling the partner's activities. This answer provides important information about what to look out for in a potentially abusive relationship. It acknowledges that there are warning signs that can indicate a person's likelihood to be abusive.

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  • 7. 

    1.    A woman was bound, taken to a remote location, and raped at gunpoint. When found, she was examined and treated in the emergency department. Which aspect of this crisis produced the greatest amount of psychological trauma?

    • A.

      The threat to her life

    • B.

      Collection of evidence

    • C.

      Physical pain experienced

    • D.

      Being in a remote location

    Correct Answer
    A. The threat to her life
    Explanation
    The threat to her life produced the greatest amount of psychological trauma because it represents a direct danger to her survival. The fear and helplessness she experienced during the assault, knowing that her life was at risk, would have a profound impact on her mental well-being. The physical pain experienced and being in a remote location may also contribute to the trauma, but the immediate threat to her life would likely be the most significant factor. The collection of evidence, although important for legal purposes, may not have had as much of a direct impact on her psychological trauma.

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  • 8. 

    2.    A woman, abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant, was found confused and disoriented. The nurse makes these observations about the patient: o   talking rapidly in disjointed phrases o   unable to concentrate o   indecisive when asked to make simple decisions What is the patient’s level of anxiety?

    • A.

      Weak

    • B.

      Mild

    • C.

      Moderate

    • D.

      Severe

    Correct Answer
    D. Severe
    Explanation
    The patient's level of anxiety is severe based on the nurse's observations. The patient is talking rapidly in disjointed phrases, unable to concentrate, and indecisive when asked to make simple decisions. These symptoms suggest high levels of anxiety, which can significantly impair a person's ability to function and make decisions.

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  • 9. 

    3.    After a person was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant, which assessment finding best indicates the acute phase of the rape-trauma syndrome?

    • A.

      Decreased motor activity

    • B.

      Confusion and disbelief

    • C.

      Flashbacks and dreams

    • D.

      Fears and phobias

    Correct Answer
    B. Confusion and disbelief
    Explanation
    After experiencing a traumatic event such as abduction and rape, it is common for individuals to feel confused and disbelieve what has happened to them. This is a normal reaction during the acute phase of the rape-trauma syndrome. Decreased motor activity may be a sign of depression or withdrawal, flashbacks and dreams are more commonly associated with the reorganization phase, and fears and phobias may develop later on as the individual tries to cope with the trauma.

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  • 10. 

    4.    A nurse interviews a patient abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. The patient says, “I can’t talk about it. Nothing happened. I have to forget.” What is the patient’s present coping strategy?

    • A.

      Somatization

    • B.

      Repression

    • C.

      Projection

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    The patient's present coping strategy is denial. This can be inferred from the patient's statement that they "can't talk about it" and that "nothing happened." This suggests that the patient is refusing to acknowledge or accept the traumatic experience they went through, possibly as a way to protect themselves from the emotional pain and distress associated with it. Denial is a defense mechanism often used to avoid facing uncomfortable or distressing realities.

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  • 11. 

    5.    An emergency department nurse prepares to assist with evidence collection for a sexual assault victim. Prior to photographs and pelvic examination, what documentation is important?

    • A.

      The patient’s vital signs

    • B.

      Consent signed by the patient

    • C.

      Supervision and credentials of the examiner

    • D.

      Storage location of the patient’s personal effects

    Correct Answer
    B. Consent signed by the patient
    Explanation
    Prior to conducting any evidence collection procedures, it is crucial to have the patient's consent. This ensures that the patient is aware of and agrees to the procedures being performed on them. Consent is an essential aspect of providing ethical and patient-centered care, especially in sensitive situations such as sexual assault cases. The other options, while important in the overall process, do not take precedence over obtaining the patient's consent.

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  • 12. 

    6.    Which aspect of assessment has priority when a nurse interviews a rape victim?

    • A.

      Coping mechanisms the patient is using

    • B.

      The patient’s previous sexual experiences

    • C.

      Adequacy of the patient’s interpersonal relationships

    • D.

      Whether the patient has ever had a sexually transmitted disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Coping mechanisms the patient is using
    Explanation
    When a nurse interviews a rape victim, the priority aspect of assessment is to determine the coping mechanisms the patient is using. This is important because it helps the nurse understand how the patient is dealing with the traumatic experience and provides insights into their emotional well-being. By assessing coping mechanisms, the nurse can identify any maladaptive behaviors or signs of distress that may require immediate intervention or support. Understanding the patient's coping mechanisms also helps in developing a comprehensive care plan tailored to their specific needs.

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  • 13. 

    8.    A rape victim tells the nurse, “I should not have been out on the street alone.” Select the nurse’s most helpful response.

    • A.

      “Rape can happen anywhere.”

    • B.

      “Blaming yourself increases your anxiety and discomfort.”

    • C.

      “You are right. You should not have been alone on the street at night.”

    • D.

      “You feel as though this would not have happened if you had not been alone.”

    Correct Answer
    D. “You feel as though this would not have happened if you had not been alone.”
    Explanation
    The nurse's most helpful response is "You feel as though this would not have happened if you had not been alone." This response acknowledges and validates the victim's feelings without blaming or shaming them. It shows empathy and understanding towards the victim's perspective, which can help build trust and rapport between the nurse and the victim.

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  • 14. 

    11.    A victim of rape says, “My family is not very supportive.” Which belief contributes to a negative family response?

    • A.

      No one asks to be raped.

    • B.

      Rape is an act of aggression.

    • C.

      Rape should not be discussed.

    • D.

      Anyone is a potential rape victim.

    Correct Answer
    C. Rape should not be discussed.
    Explanation
    The belief that "Rape should not be discussed" can contribute to a negative family response because it implies that talking about rape is taboo or inappropriate. This belief may lead the family to avoid discussing the issue, which can result in a lack of support for the victim. By not discussing rape, the family may fail to provide the necessary emotional support, understanding, and resources that the victim needs to cope with the trauma.

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  • 15. 

    12.    A nurse works a rape telephone hotline. Communication should focus on:

    • A.

      Explaining immediate steps victims should take.

    • B.

      Providing callers with a sympathetic listener.

    • C.

      Obtaining information for law enforcement.

    • D.

      Arranging long-term counseling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explaining immediate steps victims should take.
    Explanation
    In the context of a rape telephone hotline, the most important focus of communication should be on explaining immediate steps that victims should take. This is crucial because victims of rape need immediate support and guidance on what actions they should take to ensure their safety and well-being. Providing callers with a sympathetic listener is important, but it is secondary to ensuring that victims receive the necessary information and guidance to handle the immediate aftermath of the incident. Obtaining information for law enforcement and arranging long-term counseling may also be important, but they are not the primary focus of communication on a rape hotline.

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  • 16. 

    15.    When a victim of sexual assault is discharged from the emergency department, the nurse should:

    • A.

      Notify the patient’s family of the event to ensure support for the patient.

    • B.

      Offer to stay with the patient until stability is regained.

    • C.

      Advise the patient to try not to think about the assault.

    • D.

      Provide referral information verbally and in writing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide referral information verbally and in writing.
    Explanation
    When a victim of sexual assault is discharged from the emergency department, it is important for the nurse to provide referral information verbally and in writing. This ensures that the patient has access to the necessary resources and support services, such as counseling, legal assistance, and support groups. Providing this information in both verbal and written form helps to ensure that the patient can easily access the information when needed and can make informed decisions about their next steps in seeking help and support.

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  • 17. 

    17.    A patient in the long-term phase of the rape-trauma syndrome had intrusive thoughts of the attack and developed fears of being alone. Which finding best demonstrates the patient has improved? The patient:

    • A.

      Uses increased activity to reduce fear.

    • B.

      Plans coping strategies for fearful situations.

    • C.

      Temporarily withdraws from social situations.

    • D.

      Expresses willingness to engage in sexual activity.

    Correct Answer
    B. Plans coping strategies for fearful situations.
    Explanation
    The finding that the patient plans coping strategies for fearful situations demonstrates improvement because it indicates that the patient is actively taking steps to manage their fears and regain control over their life. This shows that they are developing a proactive approach to deal with their intrusive thoughts and fears, which is a positive sign of progress in the long-term phase of the rape-trauma syndrome.

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  • 18. 

    19.    A friend brings a teenager to the emergency department. The friend found the patient unconscious in a bedroom at a party. Semen is observed on the patient’s underclothes. Priority actions by the nurse should focus on:

    • A.

      Preserving rape evidence.

    • B.

      Maintaining the patient’s airway.

    • C.

      Obtaining a description of the rape.

    • D.

      Determining what drugs were ingested.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintaining the patient’s airway.
    Explanation
    The priority actions by the nurse should focus on maintaining the patient's airway. This is because the patient is found unconscious, indicating a potential risk to their breathing and oxygenation. Ensuring a clear airway is crucial for the patient's immediate safety and well-being. While preserving rape evidence and obtaining a description of the rape are important considerations, they are not the immediate priority in this situation. Determining what drugs were ingested may be relevant for the patient's overall care, but it is not the priority action at this moment.

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  • 19. 

    20.    A victim of a violent rape was treated in the emergency department. As discharge preparation begins, the victim says softly, “I will never be the same again. I can’t face my friends. There is no reason to go on.” Select the nurse’s most appropriate response.

    • A.

      “Are you thinking of harming yourself?”

    • B.

      “It will take time, but you will feel the same.”

    • C.

      “Your friends will understand when you explain it was not your fault.”

    • D.

      “You will be able to find meaning in this experience as time goes on.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Are you thinking of harming yourself?”
    Explanation
    The nurse's most appropriate response is "Are you thinking of harming yourself?" because the victim expressed feelings of hopelessness and mentioned that there is no reason to go on. This response shows concern for the victim's well-being and acknowledges the possibility of suicidal thoughts, which is important in assessing the level of risk and ensuring appropriate intervention is provided if needed.

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  • 20. 

    21.    A nurse cares for a rape victim who was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) by the assailant. Which intervention has priority? Monitoring for:

    • A.

      Coma

    • B.

      Seizures

    • C.

      Hypotonia

    • D.

      Respiratory depression

    Correct Answer
    D. Respiratory depression
    Explanation
    The priority intervention for a rape victim who was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) by the assailant is monitoring for respiratory depression. Flunitrazepam is a benzodiazepine that can cause central nervous system depression, including respiratory depression. This can be life-threatening and requires immediate attention. Coma, seizures, and hypotonia may also occur as a result of the drug, but respiratory depression poses the greatest immediate risk to the patient's life.

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  • 21. 

    1.    An adult confides to a nurse, “The cancer in my neck spread in only 2 months. That is how my whole life has been. No matter what I do, I am sabotaged.” As this patient faces the prospect of dying, which motif is evident?

    • A.

      Quest: seeking meaning in dying

    • B.

      Volatile: unresolved and unresigned

    • C.

      Endurance: triumph of inner strength

    • D.

      Incorporation: belief system accommodates death

    Correct Answer
    B. Volatile: unresolved and unresigned
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Volatile: unresolved and unresigned." This motif is evident in the patient's statement about how their cancer spread quickly and how their whole life has been sabotaged, indicating a sense of unresolved anger, frustration, and lack of acceptance. This suggests that the patient is not resigned to their fate and is still grappling with the emotional and psychological impact of their illness.

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  • 22. 

    2.    Four teenagers died in an automobile accident. One week later, which behavior by parents indicates adaptive mourning? The parents who:

    • A.

      Isolate themselves at home.

    • B.

      Return immediately to employment.

    • C.

      Forbid other teens in the household to drive a car.

    • D.

      Create a scholarship fund at their child’s high school.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create a scholarship fund at their child’s high school.
    Explanation
    Creating a scholarship fund at their child's high school indicates adaptive mourning because it shows that the parents are finding a positive way to remember and honor their child's memory. By creating a scholarship fund, they are helping other students and contributing to their child's school community, which can bring a sense of purpose and healing during the grieving process. This behavior also shows resilience and a desire to make a difference in their child's name.

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  • 23. 

    8.    A patient who was widowed 18 months ago says, “I can remember good times we had without getting upset. Sometimes I even think about the disappointments. I am still trying to become accustomed to sleeping in the bed all alone.” The work of mourning:

    • A.

      Is beginning.

    • B.

      Has not begun.

    • C.

      Is at or near completion.

    • D.

      Is progressing abnormally.

    Correct Answer
    C. Is at or near completion.
    Explanation
    The patient's statement indicates that they are able to remember the good times without getting upset and are even thinking about the disappointments. They also mention that they are still trying to become accustomed to sleeping alone. These statements suggest that the patient has already gone through the process of mourning and is at or near completion.

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  • 24. 

    13.    Which finding indicates successful completion of an individual’s grieving process?

    • A.

      For 2 years after her husband’s death, a widow has kept her husband’s belongings in their usual places.

    • B.

      After 15 months, a widower realistically remembers both the pleasures and disappointments of his relationship with his wife.

    • C.

      Three years after her husband’s death, a widow talks about her husband as if he is alive and weeps when others mention his name.

    • D.

      Eighteen months after a spouse’s death, a person says, “I have never cried or had feelings of loss, even though we were very close.”

    Correct Answer
    B. After 15 months, a widower realistically remembers both the pleasures and disappointments of his relationship with his wife.
    Explanation
    This finding indicates successful completion of an individual's grieving process because it shows that the widower is able to remember the positive and negative aspects of his relationship with his wife in a realistic manner. This suggests that he has come to terms with the loss and has processed his emotions, allowing him to reflect on the past without being overwhelmed by grief.

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  • 25. 

    14.    A child drowned while swimming in a local lake 2 years ago. Which behavior indicates the child’s parents are mourning in an effective way? The parents who:

    • A.

      Forbid their other children from going swimming.

    • B.

      Keep a place set for the dead child at the family dinner table.

    • C.

      Sealed their child’s room exactly as the child left it 2 years ago.

    • D.

      Throw flowers on the lake at each anniversary date of the accident.

    Correct Answer
    A. Forbid their other children from going swimming.
    Explanation
    The behavior that indicates the child's parents are mourning in an effective way is forbidding their other children from going swimming. This behavior shows that the parents are taking precautions to ensure the safety of their remaining children and are actively trying to prevent a similar tragedy from happening again.

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  • 26. 

    28.    A nurse asks a hospice nurse, “Who should be referred for hospice care?” Select the correct reply.

    • A.

      “Hospice is for terminally ill patients with cancer.”

    • B.

      “Patients in the end stage of any disease are eligible.”

    • C.

      “We are best equipped to care for patients with end-stage renal disease.”

    • D.

      “Patients with degenerative neurological disease are eligible after respiration is affected.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “Patients in the end stage of any disease are eligible.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Patients in the end stage of any disease are eligible." This answer is correct because hospice care is not limited to patients with cancer. Hospice care is provided to individuals who are in the final stages of any disease, regardless of the specific diagnosis. Hospice care focuses on providing comfort and support to patients and their families during this difficult time.

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  • 27. 

    1.    Which statement about aggression would accurately serve as a basis for care planning?

    • A.

      Brain injury or disorders are often blamed for, but rarely contribute to, violence.

    • B.

      Some people are biologically predisposed to become irritated or angry more easily.

    • C.

      Aggression is an innate behavior rather than a learned response to frustration.

    • D.

      Mature persons with patterns of effective coping almost never behave violently.

    Correct Answer
    B. Some people are biologically predisposed to become irritated or angry more easily.
    Explanation
    Some people are biologically predisposed to become irritated or angry more easily. This statement accurately serves as a basis for care planning because it recognizes that aggression can be influenced by biological factors. Understanding this predisposition can help healthcare professionals develop appropriate interventions and strategies to manage and prevent aggressive behaviors in individuals who are more prone to becoming easily irritated or angry.

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  • 28. 

    4.    A patient is admitted for psychiatric observation after being arrested for breaking windows in the home of his former girlfriend, who had refused to see him. His history reveals abuse as a child by a punitive father, torturing family pets, and one arrest for disorderly conduct. The priority nursing diagnosis that should be considered is:

    • A.

      Stress overload.

    • B.

      Ineffective coping.

    • C.

      Risk for self-directed violence.

    • D.

      Risk for other-directed violence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Risk for other-directed violence.
    Explanation
    Based on the patient's history of breaking windows in his former girlfriend's home and his previous arrest for disorderly conduct, it is evident that he has a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior suggests that he may pose a threat to others, specifically his former girlfriend. Therefore, the priority nursing diagnosis should be focused on assessing and managing this risk to ensure the safety of both the patient and others.

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  • 29. 

    6.    A patient who has been seen responding to auditory hallucinations earlier in the morning approaches the nurse and shakes his fist, saying, “Back off, bitch!” and then goes into the day room. Which intervention would be most important to undertake before the nurse follows the patient into the day room?

    • A.

      Contact the patient’s physician to obtain an order for seclusion.

    • B.

      Review the patient’s history for clues about his risk of violence.

    • C.

      Assure that adequate staff are available and nearby for backup.

    • D.

      Check for orders for PRN medication and prepare a sedative.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assure that adequate staff are available and nearby for backup.
    Explanation
    Before following the patient into the day room, the most important intervention would be to assure that adequate staff are available and nearby for backup. The patient's aggressive behavior indicates a potential risk of violence, and having enough staff present ensures the safety of both the patient and the nurse. It allows for immediate assistance if the situation escalates and helps prevent any harm or injury. Contacting the patient's physician, reviewing the patient's history, and preparing a sedative may be important interventions as well, but ensuring the presence of sufficient staff is the priority in this situation.

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  • 30. 

    9.    Which characteristics of the unit milieu are most likely to result in a low incidence of violent behavior?

    • A.

      A milieu that emphasizes maintaining control and structure

    • B.

      A unit that is adequately staffed and not overcrowded

    • C.

      A unit that has a high percentage of newer, fresher staff

    • D.

      A milieu that focuses on privileges to reward or punish behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. A unit that is adequately staffed and not overcrowded
    Explanation
    A unit that is adequately staffed and not overcrowded is likely to result in a low incidence of violent behavior because having enough staff ensures that patients receive appropriate care and attention, reducing the likelihood of conflicts or aggression. Additionally, an overcrowded unit can create a stressful and tense environment, increasing the chances of violent behavior.

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  • 31. 

    14.    A cognitively impaired patient who has been a widow for 30 years is frantically trying to leave the unit, saying, “I have to go home to start dinner before my husband comes home from work.” To intervene with validation therapy, the nurse should say:

    • A.

      “Please, you must come away from the door.”

    • B.

      “Mrs. Smith, you have been a widow for many years.”

    • C.

      “You want to go home to get your husband’s dinner.”

    • D.

      “I think your husband said he is going to eat out tonight.”

    Correct Answer
    C. “You want to go home to get your husband’s dinner.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "You want to go home to get your husband’s dinner." This response acknowledges and validates the patient's feelings and desires, demonstrating understanding and empathy. By affirming the patient's need to go home and prepare dinner for her husband, the nurse is using validation therapy to validate the patient's reality and help her feel heard and understood. This approach can help reduce the patient's anxiety and agitation, promoting a sense of calm and well-being.

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  • 32. 

    18.    The emergency department nurse realizes that the husband of a patient appears increasingly irritable as he waits alone in the waiting room. Which intervention would best prevent further escalation?

    • A.

      Periodically update the husband about his wife and what is being done for her.

    • B.

      Explain that waiting is necessary because patients are treated in order of need.

    • C.

      Reassure him that everything possible is being done and suggest ways to relax.

    • D.

      Suggest that he return home and await an update from the physician in 3 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodically update the husband about his wife and what is being done for her.
    Explanation
    Periodically updating the husband about his wife and what is being done for her would best prevent further escalation. This intervention shows empathy and provides the husband with information, helping to alleviate his anxiety and irritability. It keeps him engaged and informed, reducing his feelings of helplessness and frustration. By regularly updating him, the nurse acknowledges his concerns and demonstrates that his wife's care is a priority. This intervention promotes effective communication and helps to maintain a positive and supportive environment in the waiting room.

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  • 33. 

    22.    When a patient’s aggression quickly escalates, on which principle should nursing intervention be based?

    • A.

      Staff should match their tone of voice and level of intensity to the patient’s.

    • B.

      When there is no time to de-escalate, immediate use of restraint is necessary.

    • C.

      Always ask the patient what will be most helpful to increase his sense of control.

    • D.

      Choose the least restrictive measure that will keep the patient and others safe.

    Correct Answer
    D. Choose the least restrictive measure that will keep the patient and others safe.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to choose the least restrictive measure that will keep the patient and others safe. This principle is based on the ethical concept of promoting autonomy and minimizing harm. It recognizes the importance of respecting the patient's rights and dignity while ensuring the safety of everyone involved. By prioritizing the least restrictive intervention, nurses aim to maintain a therapeutic and supportive environment that encourages the patient's sense of control and autonomy. This approach also aligns with the principles of trauma-informed care, which emphasizes the importance of minimizing retraumatization and promoting empowerment.

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  • 34. 

    23.    A newly admitted patient required seclusion immediately on entering the inpatient unit. His assessment was incomplete, and no medical orders had been written. Immediately after secluding the patient, the priority action of the nurse should be to:

    • A.

      Provide a chance for the patient to use the bathroom.

    • B.

      Notify the physician and obtain an order for seclusion.

    • C.

      Complete necessary forms and notify the unit manager.

    • D.

      Debrief the staff and any witnesses to the incident.

    Correct Answer
    B. Notify the pHysician and obtain an order for seclusion.
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient required seclusion immediately upon entering the inpatient unit. However, the assessment was incomplete and no medical orders had been written. The priority action for the nurse should be to notify the physician and obtain an order for seclusion. This is important to ensure that the patient's safety and well-being are properly addressed and that the appropriate legal and ethical procedures are followed.

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  • 35. 

    24.    A newly admitted patient required seclusion immediately on entering the inpatient unit. What criteria would the nurse use to decide when to discontinue the use of seclusion?

    • A.

      Seclusion can be discontinued when the patient seems calm.

    • B.

      Discontinuation is based on outcomes developed for each patient.

    • C.

      Seclusion continues until the patient has been calm for at least 4 hours.

    • D.

      Seclusion lasts until the physician orders its discontinuation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Discontinuation is based on outcomes developed for each patient.
    Explanation
    The nurse would use the criteria of outcomes developed for each patient to decide when to discontinue the use of seclusion. This means that the decision to discontinue seclusion would be based on the specific goals and progress of the individual patient, rather than a set time frame or the physician's orders.

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  • 36. 

    25.    A patient requires as-needed sedation. What would the nurse keep in mind when choosing a PRN sedative for an agitated patient?

    • A.

      Intramuscular injection can be traumatic, so oral meds should be used where possible.

    • B.

      Benzodiazepines are less sedating but have the advantage of no side effects.

    • C.

      Lithium carbonate works well but only for those already taking regular daily dosages.

    • D.

      Diazepam (Valium) is the preferred benzodiazepine because it is a short-acting sedative.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intramuscular injection can be traumatic, so oral meds should be used where possible.
    Explanation
    The nurse should keep in mind that intramuscular injection can be traumatic, so oral medications should be used whenever possible. This means that if there is an option to administer the sedative orally, it should be chosen over the intramuscular route. This is because intramuscular injections can be painful and may cause discomfort for the patient. Using oral medications can provide a more comfortable and less invasive method of administering the sedative.

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  • 37. 

    1.    A patient with schizophrenia, aged 60 years, spent 5 years in a state hospital before being discharged to a community residence. The patient requires persistent direction to accomplish daily activities of living, has difficulty determining what to do with his time, and is resistant to behaving independently, expecting others to provide meals or wash his clothes. The nurse assesses this passive behavior as being the probable result of:

    • A.

      Dependency caused by institutionalization.

    • B.

      Cognitive deterioration from schizophrenia.

    • C.

      Brain damage from recreational drug use.

    • D.

      Side effects of neuroleptic medications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dependency caused by institutionalization.
    Explanation
    The patient's passive behavior and difficulty in performing daily activities of living, as well as the expectation for others to provide meals and wash clothes, suggest that the behavior is likely a result of dependency caused by institutionalization. Spending 5 years in a state hospital may have led to the patient becoming accustomed to relying on others for their needs, resulting in a lack of independence and difficulty in determining how to spend their time. This explanation is supported by the information provided in the question.

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  • 38. 

    3.    A man with schizophrenia states: “I will not take medicine—there is nothing wrong with me! Why would I take medicine when I’m not sick! They only put me here because they want to steal my thoughts so they can sell them.” What is this patient demonstrating?

    • A.

      Denial

    • B.

      Anosognosia

    • C.

      Rationalization

    • D.

      Hallucinations

    Correct Answer
    B. Anosognosia
    Explanation
    The patient is demonstrating anosognosia, which is a lack of awareness or denial of their own illness. The patient believes that there is nothing wrong with them and refuses to take medicine because they do not perceive themselves as being sick. They also have delusions that the hospital staff wants to steal their thoughts, which is a symptom of schizophrenia.

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  • 39. 

    4.    A severely mentally ill man neglects to pay his rent and becomes homeless, so he sleeps in 24-hour laundromats and washes in public restrooms. His SSI checks are returned as undeliverable. Without money he cannot buy food, and as a result he steals a bag of chips, leading to incarceration. Which nursing diagnosis would most likely apply?

    • A.

      Social isolation

    • B.

      Risk for low self-esteem

    • C.

      Impaired social interaction

    • D.

      Self-care deficit

    Correct Answer
    B. Risk for low self-esteem
    Explanation
    The nursing diagnosis that would most likely apply in this situation is "Risk for low self-esteem." This is because the individual's mental illness and subsequent homelessness can lead to feelings of worthlessness and a negative self-perception. The lack of social interaction, inability to meet basic needs, and resorting to stealing further contribute to the risk of low self-esteem.

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  • 40. 

    7.    A homeless individual with severe mental illness, anosognosia, and a history of persistent treatment nonadherence is persuaded to come to the day program at the community mental health center. Which intervention should be the team’s initial priority?

    • A.

      Educate him about the importance of treatment adherence.

    • B.

      Help him obtain employment in a local sheltered workshop.

    • C.

      Interact regularly and supportively without trying to change him.

    • D.

      Teach appropriate health maintenance and prevention practices.

    Correct Answer
    C. Interact regularly and supportively without trying to change him.
    Explanation
    The team's initial priority should be to interact regularly and supportively without trying to change the individual. This approach can help build a trusting relationship and create a safe and non-judgmental environment for the individual. By establishing a positive rapport, the team can better understand the individual's needs and concerns, which can eventually lead to addressing treatment adherence and other important aspects of their well-being.

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  • 41. 

    8.    A patient with paranoid schizophrenia and anosognosia has had several hospitalizations. He responds quickly to antipsychotic medication but stops taking the medication soon after discharge. Discharge planning will include follow-up at the mental health clinic, placement in a group home, and daily attendance at a psychosocial day program. Which medication strategy will most likely be used as he transitions from hospital to community?

    • A.

      Administer a second-generation antipsychotic to help negative symptoms.

    • B.

      Prescribe a long-acting intramuscular antipsychotic medication.

    • C.

      Involve the patient in the decision about which medication is best.

    • D.

      Prescribe a quick-dissolving formulation to reduce “cheeking.”

    Correct Answer
    C. Involve the patient in the decision about which medication is best.
    Explanation
    The most likely medication strategy that will be used as the patient transitions from the hospital to the community is to involve the patient in the decision about which medication is best. This approach recognizes the patient's autonomy and respects their right to be involved in their own treatment decisions. By involving the patient in the decision-making process, it increases the likelihood of medication adherence and reduces the risk of the patient discontinuing their medication soon after discharge. This collaborative approach also promotes a sense of empowerment and engagement in their own care, which can contribute to better long-term outcomes.

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  • 42. 

    16.    A man with severe mental illness dies suddenly at the age of 52. He had been living successfully in the community for 5 years without a hospitalization and worked for the past 6 months in the first job he had held for more than 20 years. His family is in shock, having been caught completely by surprise by his death, and asks why this has happened. Which of the following responses accurately reflects the research on mortality and serious mental illness and best addresses the family’s question?

    • A.

      “A certain number of people die young from undetected diseases, and it’s just one of those sad things that happens sometimes to unlucky people.”

    • B.

      “Mentally ill people tend to die much younger than others, perhaps because they do not take as good care of their health, or smoke more, or are overweight.”

    • C.

      “We will have to wait for the autopsy to see for sure what happened. He had had some medical problems, but we were not expecting this.”

    • D.

      “We are all surprised. He had been doing so well, and he sees the nurse every other week; all we knew was wrong was that he was overweight.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “Mentally ill people tend to die much younger than others, perhaps because they do not take as good care of their health, or smoke more, or are overweight.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer reflects the research on mortality and serious mental illness by stating that mentally ill people tend to die much younger than others. This may be due to factors such as not taking good care of their health, smoking more, or being overweight. This explanation suggests that the man's mental illness may have contributed to his premature death.

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  • 43. 

    17.    A judge notices that many of the persons brought before her criminal court are mentally ill people who have committed minor offenses, are off their medications, and who probably offended because of their illness. She consults the nurse director of the local community mental health center for guidance about how to most helpfully respond when handling such cases. Which advice from the nurse would be most appropriate?

    • A.

      “Sometimes a little time in jail makes a person rethink what they’ve been doing and puts them back on the right track.”

    • B.

      “Sentencing such persons to participate in treatment instead of incarcerating them has been shown to reduce repeat offenses.”

    • C.

      “Actually, police arresting these people helps them in the long run; sometimes I can’t hospitalize them, but in jail they’ll at least get their meds.”

    • D.

      “Research suggests that special ‘mental health courts’ aren’t making much of a difference so far, but outpatient commitment does seem to help.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “Sentencing such persons to participate in treatment instead of incarcerating them has been shown to reduce repeat offenses.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sentencing such persons to participate in treatment instead of incarcerating them has been shown to reduce repeat offenses." This advice is the most appropriate because it acknowledges the connection between mental illness and minor offenses, and recognizes the importance of providing treatment rather than punishment. It suggests that participating in treatment can help address the underlying issues that led to the offense, reducing the likelihood of repeat offenses in the future.

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  • 44. 

    2.    A leader is planning to start a new self-esteem group. Which intervention would be most helpful for assuring mutual respect within the group?

    • A.

      Describe the importance of mutual respect in the first session, and make it a group norm.

    • B.

      Exclude potential members whose behavior suggests they are likely to be disrespectful.

    • C.

      Give members a brochure describing the purpose, norms, and expectations of group.

    • D.

      Explain that mutual respect is expected, and confront those who aren’t respectful.

    Correct Answer
    A. Describe the importance of mutual respect in the first session, and make it a group norm.
    Explanation
    The most helpful intervention for assuring mutual respect within the group would be to describe the importance of mutual respect in the first session and make it a group norm. By explicitly discussing the significance of mutual respect and setting it as a norm from the beginning, the leader establishes a foundation for respectful interactions among group members. This approach helps to create a positive and supportive environment where individuals feel valued and heard, leading to better group dynamics and outcomes.

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  • 45. 

    5.    During a group therapy session, a newly admitted patient suddenly says to the nurse, “How old are you? You seem too young to be leading a group.” The most appropriate response the nurse might make is:

    • A.

      “I am wondering what leads you to ask. Could you tell me more, please?”

    • B.

      “I am old enough to be a nurse, so that would make me in my 20s at least.”

    • C.

      “My age is not pertinent to why we are here and should not really concern you.”

    • D.

      “You are wondering whether I have enough experience to lead this group.”

    Correct Answer
    D. “You are wondering whether I have enough experience to lead this group.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "You are wondering whether I have enough experience to lead this group." This response acknowledges the patient's concern and addresses it directly. It shows empathy and invites the patient to express their thoughts and concerns further, allowing for open communication and building trust between the nurse and the patient.

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  • 46. 

    6.    A patient in a group therapy session listens for a time and then remarks, “I used to think I was the only one who felt afraid. I guess I’m not as alone as I thought.” This is an example of:

    • A.

      Ventilation.

    • B.

      Altruism

    • C.

      Universality

    • D.

      Group cohesiveness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Universality
    Explanation
    The patient's remark indicates that they have realized that they are not the only one who feels afraid, suggesting that others in the group also share similar fears. This demonstrates universality, which refers to the understanding that one's experiences and feelings are not unique and that others can relate to them.

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  • 47. 

    9.    A patient, Mary, has talked constantly throughout the group therapy session. She has repeated the same material several times. Other members were initially attentive then became bored, inattentive, and finally sullen. Which intervention would be most effective for the nurse leader to take?

    • A.

      “Most of you have become quiet. I’m wondering if it might be related to concerns you may have about how the group is progressing today.”

    • B.

      “Mary has been doing most of the talking. I think it would be helpful for everyone to tell Mary how that has affected your experience of the group.”

    • C.

      “I noticed that as the group went on, most members became quiet, then disinterested, and now seem almost angry. What is going on?”

    • D.

      “Mary, you have been doing most of the talking, and others have not had much chance to speak as a result. Could you please yield to others now?”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Most of you have become quiet. I’m wondering if it might be related to concerns you may have about how the group is progressing today.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer acknowledges the change in behavior of the group members and addresses their potential concerns about the group's progress. By opening up the discussion to the group, the nurse leader allows the members to express their thoughts and feelings, which can help identify any underlying issues and facilitate a more productive group therapy session. This intervention promotes active participation and engagement from all members, rather than singling out Mary or directly confronting her about her excessive talking.

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  • 48. 

    10.    The nurse is co-leader of a group. The guidelines followed by the leaders include focusing on recognizing dysfunctional behavior and thinking patterns, then identifying and practicing alternate behaviors and thinking that are more adaptive. What theory is represented by this group approach?

    • A.

      Behavioral

    • B.

      Interpersonal

    • C.

      Psychodynamic

    • D.

      Cognitive-behavioral

    Correct Answer
    D. Cognitive-behavioral
    Explanation
    The group approach described in the question focuses on recognizing dysfunctional behavior and thinking patterns and replacing them with more adaptive behaviors and thinking. This aligns with the principles of cognitive-behavioral theory, which emphasizes the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors and seeks to modify negative or maladaptive thoughts and behaviors.

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  • 49. 

    13.    Three members of the therapy group share covert glances as other members of the group bring up problems. One of them often makes a statement that subtly puts down another speaker or takes exception to a comment by the group leader. The others then nod in agreement. What explanation should the leader suspect underlies this group dynamic?

    • A.

      Some members are acting as a subgroup instead of as members of the main group.

    • B.

      The members in question are showing their frustration with slower members.

    • C.

      Some of the members have become bored and are tuning out the rest.

    • D.

      The members in question are passive aggressive in their personality style.

    Correct Answer
    A. Some members are acting as a subgroup instead of as members of the main group.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the three members who share covert glances and make subtle put-downs or objections are forming a subgroup within the therapy group. This subgroup is likely to have its own dynamics and agenda, which may be different from the goals and purpose of the main group. Their behavior indicates that they are not fully participating as members of the main group, but rather engaging in their own separate interactions and dynamics.

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  • 50. 

    15.    During an inpatient therapy group that uses existential/Gestalt theory, feelings experienced by patients at the time of their admission to the unit are discussed. As a silence falls, one member mentions, “We have heard from several people who describe feeling angry. I would like to hear from some people who experienced other feelings.” The nurse identifies this comment as an example of the group role of:

    • A.

      Energizer

    • B.

      Compromiser

    • C.

      Encourager

    • D.

      Self-confessor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Encourager
    Explanation
    The nurse identifies the comment as an example of the group role of encourager because the member is actively promoting and supporting the expression of different feelings within the group. By requesting to hear from individuals who experienced other emotions, the member is encouraging a diverse range of perspectives and emotions to be shared, fostering a supportive and inclusive group environment.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 11, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Vickie T
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