1.
What is this lab safety symbol warning a person of?
Correct Answer
B. Biohazard: Bacteria or Virus that could be transmitted
Explanation
This lab safety symbol is biohazard. Remember the biohazard as 'circles of life' bio = life.
2.
Which of the following is NOT matched correctly with what they measure?
Correct Answer
C. Test Tube - Volume (liters)
Explanation
A test tube is NEVER used for measurement.
3.
Which of the following would INCREASE the validity in a study if Vitamin C makes wounds heal faster?
Correct Answer
D. Make groups with people all around the same age
Explanation
Older and younger people may heal naturally at different rates; having people the same age will help maintain consistent results
4.
Based on the graph provided, which pH is the best (optimal) pH for tadpoles?
Correct Answer
D. 6.5
Explanation
The most tadpoles were found in the 6.5 pH, therefore we can assume that is the best pH for tadpole growth.
5.
Jay broke a test tube in the lab but was not injured in the process of breaking the test tube or sweeping it up. Where should he put the broken test tube?
Correct Answer
D. Broken Glass Container
Explanation
Glass should be stored in a cardboard box, not a trashcan. The glass could cut the trashbag and open it, or it could cut the hand of the person handling the trashbag.
6.
What is the independent variable in the following study: A study that tests if more time studying will improve test scores.
Correct Answer
D. Amount of time studying
Explanation
The independent variable is the variable that the experimenter changes.
7.
Lead (Pb-208) is the heaviest stable isotope known. It has an atomic number of 82. How many neutrons does Pb-208 have?
Correct Answer
B. 126
Explanation
208 is the atomic mass, 82 is the atomic number. To find neutron number you take the atomic mass minus the atomic number.
8.
What are found in the space surrounding the nucleus of an atom?
Correct Answer
B. Electrons
Explanation
The electrons spin around the nucleus.The nucleus contains the protons and neutrons.
9.
If an atom gains an electron, what will be the overall charge of the atom?
Correct Answer
C. Negative
Explanation
Gaining an electron would create an overall negative charge because you would be increasing the negative charges. Electrons are negative.
10.
What bonds are formed by water molecules attracting to other water molecules through a process called cohesion?
Correct Answer
D. Hydrogen
Explanation
Water molecules are polar, meaning they have a slight positive charge at one end and a slight negative charge at the other. This polarity allows water molecules to attract to each other through a process called cohesion. The positive end of one water molecule is attracted to the negative end of another, forming a hydrogen bond. This bond is weaker than covalent or ionic bonds, but it is still strong enough to give water its unique properties, such as high surface tension and the ability to dissolve many substances.
11.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
Correct Answer
B. Nucleotides
Explanation
Nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids. Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, are composed of long chains of nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, or uracil). These nucleotides join together through phosphodiester bonds to form the backbone of the nucleic acid molecule. Therefore, nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids.
12.
A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
Correct Answer
A. 4.22
Explanation
The given information states that the pH of rainfall in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. Since the question asks for the most acidic rainfall, the answer would be the lowest pH value mentioned, which is 4.22.
13.
What is the function of enzymes?
Correct Answer
C. Speeds up the rate of chemical reactions
Explanation
Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in biological reactions. They speed up the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. This allows the reactions to happen at a faster rate, enabling essential processes such as digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication to occur efficiently. Enzymes do not store energy or genetic information; their primary function is to facilitate and regulate chemical reactions in living organisms.
14.
Which of the following structures would indicate that a cell is NOT prokaryotic?
Correct Answer
B. Mitochondria
Explanation
Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells, which indicates that the cell is not prokaryotic. Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria and have their DNA floating freely in the cytoplasm. Therefore, the presence of mitochondria suggests that the cell is eukaryotic.
15.
Which of the following would indicate that the cell you are observing is a plant cell rather than an animal cell?
Correct Answer
D. Cell Wall
Explanation
The presence of a cell wall would indicate that the cell being observed is a plant cell rather than an animal cell. While both plant and animal cells have a cell membrane, nucleus, and ribosomes, the cell wall is a unique feature of plant cells. The cell wall provides structural support and protection to plant cells, and is made up of cellulose. Animal cells do not have a cell wall, instead they have a flexible cell membrane that surrounds and protects the cell. Therefore, the presence of a cell wall is a distinguishing characteristic of plant cells.
16.
What is the letter 'N' pointing to?
Correct Answer
B. Golgi Apparatus
Explanation
The letter 'N' is pointing to the Golgi Apparatus. The Golgi Apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids that are synthesized by the cell. It is involved in the transport of these molecules to their final destinations within the cell or for secretion outside of the cell. It consists of a series of flattened sacs called cisternae, which are involved in the processing and modification of proteins and lipids.
17.
What is the function of the phospholipid bilayer?
Correct Answer
A. Control what goes into and out of the cell
Explanation
The phospholipid bilayer is a crucial component of the cell membrane that controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. Its structure allows it to create a selectively permeable barrier, regulating the passage of molecules and ions. This function is vital for maintaining homeostasis and protecting the cell from harmful substances.
18.
If a cell has 5% dissolved solutes, and the solution that has 3% dissolved solutes, what kind of solution is the cell in?
Correct Answer
B. Hypotonic
Explanation
The cell is in a hypotonic solution. This is because the concentration of dissolved solutes in the cell (5%) is higher than the concentration of dissolved solutes in the surrounding solution (3%). In a hypotonic solution, there is a lower concentration of solutes outside the cell compared to inside the cell, causing water to move into the cell through osmosis.
19.
What is the function of ribosomes?
Correct Answer
C. To make proteins
Explanation
Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis in cells. They are small structures found in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. Ribosomes read the genetic information stored in DNA and use it to assemble amino acids into proteins. Therefore, their main function is to make proteins, which are essential for various cellular processes and functions.
20.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about ATP
Correct Answer
D. Used ATP is discarded by the cell as waste
Explanation
ATP is not discarded by the cell as waste. Instead, when ATP is used by the cell to provide energy for cellular processes, it is converted into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) by removing one phosphate group. ADP can then be converted back into ATP through cellular respiration, allowing the cell to reuse the energy stored in ATP.
21.
Which of the following is an autotroph?
Correct Answer
C. Oak Tree
Explanation
An autotroph is an organism that can produce its own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. Oak trees are autotrophs because they can convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into glucose and oxygen through photosynthesis. They have chlorophyll in their leaves, which enables them to capture sunlight and convert it into energy. This energy is used to produce glucose, which is then stored or used for growth and development.
22.
Where do plants get the energy they need to carry out photosynthesis?
Correct Answer
C. Sunlight
Explanation
Plants get the energy they need to carry out photosynthesis from sunlight. During photosynthesis, plants use the energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, where chlorophyll absorbs sunlight and initiates the chemical reactions necessary for photosynthesis. Without sunlight, plants would not be able to produce the energy-rich molecules they need to grow and survive.
23.
Which of the following is showing ATP in this Photosynthesis reaction?
Correct Answer
B. 5
Explanation
In photosynthesis, ATP is produced during the light-dependent reactions in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts. It is used to convert light energy into chemical energy, which is then used to power the light-independent reactions. Option 5 is showing ATP in the photosynthesis reaction because it is the only option that represents ATP.
24.
What is the item labeled 'D' in the diagram of cellular respiration?
Correct Answer
B. Oxygen
Explanation
In the diagram of cellular respiration, the item labeled 'D' represents oxygen. Oxygen is an essential component in cellular respiration as it is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain. It combines with electrons and hydrogen ions to form water, which is a byproduct of cellular respiration. Oxygen is necessary for the production of ATP, the energy currency of cells, through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
25.
Which of the following shows the steps of cellular respiration in the correct order?
Correct Answer
D. Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport Chain
Explanation
The correct order of the steps of cellular respiration is Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, and Electron Transport Chain. Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down into pyruvate. The pyruvate then enters the Krebs Cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, where it is further broken down and produces ATP. Finally, the high-energy electrons generated from the Krebs Cycle are transferred to the Electron Transport Chain, where they are used to produce even more ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
26.
During Glycolysis, 6-carbon Glucose is turned into 3-carbon ____________ ?
Correct Answer
C. Pyruvic acid
Explanation
During glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken down into two 3-carbon molecules called pyruvic acid. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Pyruvic acid can then be further metabolized in the presence of oxygen to produce more energy, or it can undergo fermentation in the absence of oxygen to produce lactic acid or alcohol.
27.
What is the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain?
Correct Answer
C. Oxygen
Explanation
In the Electron Transport Chain, the final electron acceptor is oxygen. During cellular respiration, electrons are passed down the electron transport chain, releasing energy which is used to generate ATP. Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor, combining with the electrons and protons to form water. This process is crucial for the production of ATP, the main energy currency of the cell.
28.
What phase of cell growth and division is this image showing?
Correct Answer
B. InterpHase
Explanation
The image is showing a phase of cell growth and division where the cell is not actively dividing. This phase is called interphase. During interphase, the cell prepares for division by replicating its DNA and organelles. It is the longest phase of the cell cycle and can be further divided into three stages: G1 (growth and preparation for DNA replication), S (DNA synthesis), and G2 (growth and preparation for cell division). In this phase, the cell is not visibly dividing or undergoing any significant changes, which is why it is the correct answer.
29.
What is cancer?
Correct Answer
A. Uncontrolled cell growth
Explanation
Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth, where cells divide and multiply without any regulation or control. This uncontrolled growth leads to the formation of tumors and can invade nearby tissues and organs. Unlike normal cells that have a limited lifespan, cancer cells continue to divide and accumulate, causing the disease to progress. This uncontrolled cell growth is a hallmark of cancer and is responsible for the various symptoms and complications associated with the disease.
30.
Which of the following is a NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction?
Correct Answer
C. Increases genetic diversity
Explanation
asexual reproduction is making clones, therefore there is no genetic diversity
31.
Plant cells have to form what during their cytokinesis in order to split the cell?
Correct Answer
C. Cell Plate
Explanation
During cytokinesis in plant cells, a new cell wall known as the cell plate forms between the two daughter cells. This cell plate is made up of vesicles containing cell wall material that fuse together, eventually dividing the cytoplasm and forming two separate cells. Therefore, the correct answer is the cell plate.
32.
Please click the products of Photosynthesis.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Sugar
E. Oxygen
Explanation
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into glucose (sugar) and oxygen. This glucose serves as the primary source of energy for the plant, while oxygen is released as a byproduct. Therefore, sugar and oxygen are the products of photosynthesis.
33.
What stage do the chromosomes become visible?
Correct Answer
C. PropHase
Explanation
During prophase, the chromosomes condense and become visible under a microscope. This is the first stage of mitosis, where the nuclear membrane starts to break down and the chromosomes begin to move towards the center of the cell. The condensation of the chromosomes allows for easier manipulation and separation during cell division. Therefore, prophase is the stage at which the chromosomes become visible.
34.
What is the image labeled 'B' in the picture?
Correct Answer
B. Chromosomes
Explanation
The image labeled 'B' in the picture is chromosomes. Chromosomes are structures found in the nucleus of cells that contain genetic material. They are visible during cell division and play a crucial role in the transmission of genetic information from one generation to the next.
35.
What stage of interphase do cells do most of their growing?
Correct Answer
A. G1
Explanation
During the G1 stage of interphase, cells primarily focus on growth. This is the phase where the cells increase in size, synthesize proteins, and accumulate energy reserves. It is a preparatory stage for DNA replication and cell division. G2 is the phase where the cells continue to grow and prepare for division, but it is not the stage where most of the growth occurs. S phase is the stage where DNA replication takes place, and Prophase is a stage of mitosis, not interphase.
36.
What is the phenotype for the person who is homozygous recessive for the cystic fibrosis trait?
Correct Answer
C. Has cystic fibrosis
Explanation
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, if you have both recessive traits, then you have the disease.
37.
Chickens have a codominant means of feather color inheritance. Black (B) and White (W) are both dominant alleles. What would be the phenotype of the offspring if you crossed a black chicken with a white chicken?
Correct Answer
C. Speckled
Explanation
Black chicken = BB; White chicken = WW BBWBWBWWBWBWAll of the offspring will be speckled, both black and white feathers.
38.
What is the genotype of the unknown parent?
Correct Answer
C. Aa
Explanation
The parent has to be aa because all of the offspring are Aa
39.
G = golden hair. g = white hair. In the punnett square provided, how many offspring will have golden hair?
Correct Answer
B. 3 out of 4 offspring.
Explanation
In the punnett square, one parent has the genotype Gg (golden hair) and the other parent has the genotype Gg (golden hair). Each parent can pass on either a G or a g allele to their offspring. The punnett square shows that there are 4 possible combinations of alleles: GG, Gg, gG, and gg. Out of these 4 combinations, 3 of them (GG, Gg, and gG) have at least one G allele, which represents golden hair. Therefore, 3 out of 4 offspring will have golden hair.
40.
RYRyrYryRYA Ry CrY B ry DR = round, r = wrinkled, Y = yellow, y = greenWhat is the phenotype for the letter 'B' in the dihybrid cross?
Correct Answer
C. Wrinkled and Yellow
Explanation
B would be rrYY and this is wrinkled and Yellow.
41.
This pedigree is showing a recessive trait (PKU). The carriers are NOT filled in for you. P = normal, p = PKU.Which of the following certainly have the genotype Pp?
Correct Answer
B. II2
Explanation
Because the mother has the disorder, and therefore has the genotype pp, the children will all carry a trait for the disorder.
42.
Muscular dystrophy is an X-linked disorder that causes progressive weakening of skeletal muscles. A mother who is a carrier for this disorder (XX’) marries a man who is normal (XY). What are the chances they will have a son who has the disorder?li.li1 {margin: 0.0px 0.0px 0.0px 0.0px; font: 12.0px Helvetica}
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Correct Answer
C. 50%
Explanation
XYXXXXYX'XX'X'YWhen we are looking at sons, there is one out of two that is expected to have muscular dystrophy. This would equate to 50% chance.