Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 1 Part 1
RF Transmissions Journeyman CDCs. Split up 20 questions at a time.
- 1.
Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?
- A.
Indicates resource constraints.
- B.
Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).
- C.
Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.
- D.
Identifies duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path.
Correct Answer
B. Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).Explanation
The sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I serve various functions such as indicating resource constraints, explaining the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used, and identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not one of the functions of these sections. The STS is a separate component that outlines the specific training requirements and competencies for a particular specialty within the career field.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?
- A.
Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
- B.
Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
- C.
Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153.
- D.
Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.
Correct Answer
A. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153. -
- 3.
Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?
- A.
Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X2).
- D.
Cyber Surety (3D0X3).
Correct Answer
B. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. Professionals in this field are responsible for responding to service outages and interruptions to network operations, ensuring that the systems are running smoothly and addressing any issues that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?
- A.
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- B.
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- D.
Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer
B. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).Explanation
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field focuses on ensuring the smooth functioning and security of network infrastructure systems and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?
- A.
Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
- B.
Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
- C.
Job safety training outline (JSTO).
- D.
Job safety training instruction (JSTI).
Correct Answer
C. Job safety training outline (JSTO).Explanation
The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because the question asks for the document that outlines mandatory training items used by supervisors to prepare job safety training guides. The Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI) are not specific to job safety training guides and may cover broader safety topics. The Job safety training instruction (JSTI) is not mentioned in the question and cannot be assumed to be the correct answer. Therefore, the Job safety training outline (JSTO) is the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
1118.
- B.
457.
- C.
55.
- D.
3.
Correct Answer
B. 457.Explanation
The correct answer is 457. This is because AF Form 457, also known as the USAF Hazard Report, is used to report hazardous conditions that may pose a risk to Air Force personnel or property. This form allows individuals to document and report any unsafe conditions or practices, enabling appropriate action to be taken to mitigate the risks and ensure the safety of personnel and property.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
Biological.
- B.
Chemical.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Stress.
Correct Answer
D. Stress.Explanation
The given hazards such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that contribute to stress in the workplace. These conditions can lead to mental and emotional strain, resulting in stress-related health issues.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?
- A.
Ground safety program.
- B.
Hazard reporting program.
- C.
Hazard communication program.
- D.
Ground safety mishap prevention program.
Correct Answer
B. Hazard reporting program.Explanation
The correct answer is the hazard reporting program. This program is designed to provide a means for reporting any hazards that may arise in the Air Force, whether they are related to flight, ground operations, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential dangers or risks they observe, ensuring that appropriate action can be taken to prevent accidents or mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 9.
To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
25.
- B.
50.
- C.
75.
- D.
100.
Correct Answer
A. 25.Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy items alone can put excessive strain on the body and increase the risk of injuries such as back sprains or strains. By using a team lifting approach, the load can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injuries.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is
- A.
100 mA.
- B.
75 mA.
- C.
50 mA.
- D.
25 mA.
Correct Answer
C. 50 mA.Explanation
The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that can cause death is 50 mA. This level of current is enough to disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to cardiac arrest. At this level, the current can cause ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening condition where the heart beats in an irregular and ineffective manner. It is important to note that the actual threshold for cardiac arrest may vary depending on individual factors, such as overall health and electrical resistance of the body.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?
- A.
24.
- B.
48.
- C.
72.
- D.
96.
Correct Answer
C. 72.Explanation
If non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs, a medical exam should be conducted within 72 hours. This timeframe allows for prompt evaluation and potential treatment of any adverse effects or symptoms that may arise from the overexposure. Waiting longer than 72 hours could potentially delay necessary medical intervention and increase the risk of complications.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?
- A.
TO 31–20 series.
- B.
TO 61–20 series.
- C.
TO 31–10 series.
- D.
TO 61–10 series.
Correct Answer
C. TO 31–10 series.Explanation
The TO 31–10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices. This publication series provides guidelines and instructions for various installation procedures and practices followed by the Air Force. It includes information on topics such as construction, maintenance, repair, and safety standards. The TO 31–10 series is essential for ensuring consistent and standardized practices across Air Force installations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
- A.
Lower.
- B.
Upper.
- C.
Right.
- D.
Left.
Correct Answer
B. Upper.Explanation
The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This is because signal and control cables are typically more sensitive and require better protection from interference and damage. Placing them in the upper section of the cable duct helps to minimize the risk of interference from other cables and equipment, ensuring reliable transmission of signals and control signals.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
- A.
Minimize transmission loss.
- B.
To aid in troubleshooting.
- C.
Reduce potential damage.
- D.
Prevent eavesdropping.
Correct Answer
A. Minimize transmission loss.Explanation
The number of splices should be controlled during fiber optic installation to minimize transmission loss. Each splice introduces a certain amount of signal loss, so by keeping the number of splices to a minimum, the overall transmission loss can be reduced. This is important for maintaining the quality and efficiency of the fiber optic communication system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How are connectorized cables labeled?
- A.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- B.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- C.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- D.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
Correct Answer
D. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.Explanation
The correct answer is the last option. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second label is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM".Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?
- A.
Adhesive.
- B.
Special foil.
- C.
Cable sheath.
- D.
Heat shrink tubing.
Correct Answer
A. Adhesive.Explanation
The correct answer is adhesive. Adhesive labels are commonly used for marking items with machine printed markings of indelible ink. These labels have a sticky backing that allows them to be easily attached to various surfaces. The machine printing ensures clear and legible markings, while the indelible ink ensures that the markings are permanent and cannot be easily removed or smudged. Adhesive labels are versatile and can be used in various industries for labeling purposes.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Job control.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Flight commander/chief.
Correct Answer
D. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. This individual holds the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding the necessary procedures and documentation for equipment maintenance and operation. They oversee the overall operations of the flight and have the final say in determining the specific requirements for checklists and work cards for equipment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What are the three main functions of grounding?
- A.
Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- B.
Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
- C.
Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
- D.
Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
Correct Answer
A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.Explanation
Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personnel safety is ensured by providing a path for electrical current to flow into the ground, preventing electric shock. Grounding also protects equipment by providing a reference point for electrical currents and preventing damage from power surges. Additionally, grounding helps reduce electrical noise by providing a stable reference for signals and reducing interference.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
D. Lightning protection.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are designed to divert excess voltage caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground, protecting the facility from potential damage. This helps to ensure the safety and functionality of the electrical system by preventing the harmful effects of lightning-induced power surges.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Annealing.
- D.
Grounding.
Correct Answer
A. Bonding.Explanation
Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and secure connection between the surfaces, allowing for efficient transfer of electrical current or signal. Bonding is commonly used in various applications such as electrical systems, electronics, and telecommunications to prevent interference, improve conductivity, and ensure safety. It involves the use of conductive materials or techniques to establish a reliable connection between the metal surfaces, reducing resistance and minimizing the risk of electrical faults or damage.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 29, 2017Quiz Created by
Scott
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