Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 1 Part 5

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Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 1 Part 5 - Quiz


RF Transmissions Journeyman CDCs. Split up 20 questions at a time.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?

    • A.

      Sine.

    • B.

      Linear.

    • C.

      Non-uniform.

    • D.

      Companding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Linear.
    Explanation
    In real-time sampling, linear interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves. Linear interpolation involves estimating new data points within the range of known data points by connecting them with straight lines. This method is commonly used in digital signal processing to fill in missing data points or to smooth out jagged signals. Therefore, when measuring pulse waves in real-time sampling, linear interpolation is used to accurately estimate the values between the known data points.

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  • 2. 

    The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the

    • A.

      Total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.

    • B.

      Total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.

    • C.

      Number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

    • D.

      Number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
    Explanation
    The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern, not by the total amount of bandwidth or the number of bytes in the test pattern.

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  • 3. 

    What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

    • A.

      Cyclic redundancy check.

    • B.

      Bipolar violation.

    • C.

      Bit slip.

    • D.

      Frame.

    Correct Answer
    B. Bipolar violation.
    Explanation
    A bipolar violation is the type of error that occurs when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity violate the alternate mark inversion coding rules. This violation disrupts the normal pattern of alternating positive and negative pulses, leading to errors in the transmission of data. Cyclic redundancy check, bit slip, and frame are not relevant to this specific error.

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  • 4. 

    What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?

    • A.

      Cyclic redundancy check.

    • B.

      Bipolar violation.

    • C.

      Bit slip.

    • D.

      Frame.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bit slip.
    Explanation
    Bit slip is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be within a data transmission. This can happen due to various factors such as synchronization issues or signal disturbances. Bit slip errors can lead to data corruption and affect the accuracy of the transmitted information.

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  • 5. 

    A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the

    • A.

      Grounding point.

    • B.

      Inner earth stake Y.

    • C.

      Auxiliary current probe.

    • D.

      Auxiliary potential probe.

    Correct Answer
    C. Auxiliary current probe.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is auxiliary current probe. An earth ground tester is used to measure the electrical resistance of the earth ground electrode. In order to generate a known current, an auxiliary current probe is used. This probe is connected to the earth ground electrode and allows the tester to pass a specific amount of current through it. By measuring the voltage drop across the electrode, the tester can determine the resistance of the ground. The auxiliary potential probe, on the other hand, is used to measure the voltage at the grounding point, not to generate a current. The inner earth stake Y is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the

    • A.

      Auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode.

    • B.

      Auxiliary current electrode and the earth test ground electrode.

    • C.

      Auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes.

    • D.

      Earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.

    Correct Answer
    A. Auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode.
    Explanation
    In the fall of potential ground testing method, voltage potential is measured between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode. This method involves applying a known current to the ground and measuring the voltage drop between these two electrodes. By measuring the voltage potential, the resistance of the ground can be determined, which is important for ensuring proper grounding and electrical safety. The other options mentioned in the question are not correct because they do not involve the measurement of voltage potential in the fall of potential method.

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  • 7. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of

    • A.

      5 ohms or less.

    • B.

      10 ohms or less.

    • C.

      20 ohms or less.

    • D.

      25 ohms or less.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 ohms or less.
    Explanation
    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This is because a low ground resistance helps to ensure the safety and proper functioning of electrical systems. A higher ground resistance can lead to increased electrical noise, voltage fluctuations, and potential hazards such as electric shock or equipment damage. Therefore, it is important to maintain a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less to ensure the effective grounding of electrical systems.

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  • 8. 

    What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?

    • A.

      Filter.

    • B.

      Buffer.

    • C.

      Counter.

    • D.

      Central processing unit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Buffer.
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. The component that stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs is called a buffer. The buffer temporarily holds the captured frames before they are analyzed or processed further. It allows the user to define specific filters to capture only the desired network traffic, ensuring that the buffer stores only the relevant frames for analysis. By storing the frames in the buffer, the user can review and analyze the captured data at a later time, making it a crucial component of a protocol analyzer.

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  • 9. 

    What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?

    • A.

      Filter.

    • B.

      Buffer.

    • C.

      Counter.

    • D.

      Central processing unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Central processing unit.
    Explanation
    The central processing unit (CPU) on a protocol analyzer is responsible for processing the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs. It carries out the necessary computations and operations to analyze and interpret the data within the frames. The CPU acts as the brain of the protocol analyzer, executing instructions and performing tasks to extract valuable information from the captured frames.

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  • 10. 

    What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • A.

      Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    • B.

      Traffic generator.

    • C.

      Route generator.

    • D.

      Trace route.

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is an active test that is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the destination node and waits for a response. If the destination node responds, it means that it is connected and responding. PING is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to measure the round-trip time (RTT) between two nodes.

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  • 11. 

    What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

    • A.

      Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    • B.

      Traffic generator.

    • C.

      Route generator.

    • D.

      Trace route.

    Correct Answer
    D. Trace route.
    Explanation
    Trace route is the active test that is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip. This tool is commonly used to identify the route that packets take from the source to the destination, as well as to measure the latency or time delay in the network. By sending a series of packets with increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, trace route can determine the routers or hops that the packets pass through and calculate the round-trip time for each hop. This information helps in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying network bottlenecks.

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  • 12. 

    A radio frequency generator is used to

    • A.

      Monitor odd harmonics.

    • B.

      Align telemetry receivers.

    • C.

      Modulate subcarrier oscillators.

    • D.

      Check galvanometer frequency response.

    Correct Answer
    B. Align telemetry receivers.
    Explanation
    A radio frequency generator is used to align telemetry receivers. This means that it is used to adjust and calibrate the receivers so that they can accurately receive and interpret signals from telemetry devices. The generator helps to ensure that the receivers are properly tuned and functioning optimally, allowing for reliable and accurate data collection and analysis.

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  • 13. 

    Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?

    • A.

      Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • B.

      Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • C.

      Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • D.

      Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters." These four classes of electronic counters are commonly used in various applications. Frequency counters are used to measure the frequency of a signal, while universal counters can measure various parameters such as frequency, period, and time interval. Microwave counters are specifically designed to work with microwave signals. Reciprocal counters are used to measure the reciprocal of a signal's frequency, which can be used to calculate the signal's period.

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  • 14. 

    The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)?

    • A.

      1 dB.

    • B.

      3 dB.

    • C.

      6 dB.

    • D.

      10 dB.

    Correct Answer
    D. 10 dB.
    Explanation
    The bel is a unit used to express the ratio of two power values. One bel is equal to a power ratio of 10:1. Since 1 bel is equal to 10 decibels (dB), the 10:1 power ratio can also be represented by 10 dB.

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  • 15. 

    When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by

    • A.

      1 dB.

    • B.

      2 dB.

    • C.

      3 dB.

    • D.

      4 dB.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 dB.
    Explanation
    When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, the increase in power is measured in dB. The dB scale is logarithmic, so doubling the power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB. This means that the power is multiplied by a factor of 2, which results in a 3 dB increase.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter?

    • A.

      DBm.

    • B.

      Watts.

    • C.

      Decibels.

    • D.

      Milliwatts.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decibels.
    Explanation
    Decibels is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter. Power meters typically display power levels in units such as dBm (decibels relative to 1 milliwatt), watts, and milliwatts. Decibels, on the other hand, are a unit used to express the ratio of two power levels or the ratio of a power level to a reference level. They are not a direct measurement of power level and therefore not a type of power level displayed by a power meter.

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  • 17. 

    Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the

    • A.

      Selection of the autorange function.

    • B.

      Frequency and power to be measured.

    • C.

      1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels.

    • D.

      Absolute and relative power levels to be measured.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency and power to be measured.
    Explanation
    The plug-in elements of the wattmeter are chosen based on the frequency and power that need to be measured. The wattmeter requires specific elements that can accurately measure the frequency and power levels of the electrical system. These elements are selected to ensure that the wattmeter can provide precise measurements for the given frequency and power values.

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  • 18. 

    What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?

    • A.

      Volt meter.

    • B.

      Oscilloscope.

    • C.

      Impedance meter.

    • D.

      Communication service monitor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Communication service monitor.
    Explanation
    A communication service monitor combines the functions of multiple test instruments into one compact unit. It can perform tasks such as measuring voltage, impedance, and monitoring communication signals. This makes it a versatile tool for testing and troubleshooting various communication systems. A voltmeter only measures voltage, an oscilloscope displays waveforms, and an impedance meter measures impedance. Therefore, a communication service monitor is the correct answer as it combines the operations of many test instruments.

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  • 19. 

    What function is not part of the communication service monitor?

    • A.

      Radio frequency generator.

    • B.

      Analog multimeter.

    • C.

      Oscilloscope.

    • D.

      Receiver.

    Correct Answer
    B. Analog multimeter.
    Explanation
    The question is asking which function is not part of the communication service monitor. A communication service monitor is a device used to test and monitor communication systems. The functions typically included in a communication service monitor are a radio frequency generator, oscilloscope, and receiver. An analog multimeter, on the other hand, is a device used to measure electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance. It is not directly related to communication systems, so it is not part of the communication service monitor.

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  • 20. 

    What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?

    • A.

      Scope.

    • B.

      Duplex.

    • C.

      Receiver.

    • D.

      Function generator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Function generator.
    Explanation
    The operational capability of a communication service monitor that produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms is known as a function generator. A function generator is a versatile electronic device that can generate various types of waveforms for testing and troubleshooting purposes. It is commonly used in the field of communications to simulate different signal types and frequencies. The scope, duplex, and receiver are not directly related to generating waveforms, so they are not the correct answer in this case.

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  • 21. 

    What is the first step in testing ground?

    • A.

      Place two earth stakes in the soil in a direct line.

    • B.

      Connect the earth ground tester to the earth electrode.

    • C.

      Depress the measure button to measure ground resistance.

    • D.

      Disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site.

    Correct Answer
    D. Disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site.
    Explanation
    The first step in testing ground is to disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site. This is important because it allows for accurate measurement of ground resistance without any interference from other connections or equipment. By disconnecting the electrode, the tester can directly measure the resistance of the ground itself, providing reliable results.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 30, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Scott
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