Z2g051 Volume 1 Unit Review Exercise

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Z2g051 Volume 1 Unit Review Exercise - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What is the core component of combat logistics support?

    • A.

      A. Logistics planning function.

    • B.

      B. Light, lean, lethal forces.

    • C.

      C. Time definite resupply.

    • D.

      D. Agile logistics.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Logistics planning function.
    Explanation
    The core component of combat logistics support is the logistics planning function. This involves the process of developing and coordinating logistics plans, policies, and procedures to ensure that resources are effectively and efficiently allocated to support combat operations. It involves activities such as determining requirements, forecasting demand, coordinating transportation, and managing inventory. This function is essential in ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time and place to support military operations.

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  • 2. 

    (001) For which areas do log planners (or "loggies") evaluate assigned functions and direct operation of logistics plans processes and special activities?

    • A.

      A. Unit control centers.

    • B.

      B. Disaster response teams.

    • C.

      C. Contingency action teams.

    • D.

      D. Deployment control centers.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Deployment control centers.
    Explanation
    Log planners, also known as "loggies," evaluate assigned functions and direct the operation of logistics plans processes and special activities in deployment control centers. These centers are responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics of deploying personnel, equipment, and supplies to support military operations or disaster response efforts. They ensure that all necessary resources are available and properly allocated to meet operational requirements. Log planners in deployment control centers play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of logistics plans during deployments.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which log plans program is one of the biggest reimbursement generators for a base?

    • A.

      A. Deployments.

    • B.

      B. Support planning.

    • C.

      C. Support agreements.

    • D.

      D. War readiness materiel (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Support agreements.
    Explanation
    Support agreements are one of the biggest reimbursement generators for a base. These agreements involve the base providing support services to other organizations or countries in exchange for financial compensation. This can include services such as maintenance, logistics, or training. By entering into support agreements, the base can generate significant revenue, making it a key program for reimbursement.

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  • 4. 

    (002) How many core competencies are there for log plans?

    • A.

      A. Ten.

    • B.

      B. Six.

    • C.

      C. Five.

    • D.

      D. One.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Five.
    Explanation
    There are five core competencies for log plans. These competencies refer to the essential skills and abilities required for effective logistical planning. These competencies include demand planning, inventory management, transportation management, warehouse management, and supply chain visibility. Each of these competencies plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth flow of goods and materials throughout the supply chain.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Which logistics plans core competency includes the integrating and performing training and logistics modeling area of expertise?

    • A.

      A. Readying the force.

    • B.

      B. Positioning the force.

    • C.

      C. Recovering the force.

    • D.

      D. Employing and sustaining the force.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Readying the force.
    Explanation
    The logistics plans core competency that includes the integrating and performing training and logistics modeling area of expertise is "Ready the force." This involves ensuring that the force is prepared and trained for deployment, as well as using logistics modeling to optimize the planning and execution of logistics operations. This competency focuses on the readiness and effectiveness of the force in carrying out their missions.

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  • 6. 

    (002) What program is used to visualize and analyze the gross transportation feasibility of an Operation Plan (OPLAN) time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?

    • A.

      A. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • B.

      B. Logistician’s Contingency Assessment Tools (LOGCAT).

    • C.

      C. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST).

    • D.

      D. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Joint Flow Analysis System for Transportation (JFAST). JFAST is a program used to visualize and analyze the gross transportation feasibility of an Operation Plan (OPLAN) time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). It helps in assessing the transportation requirements and capabilities for a given operation plan.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Right-sized unit type codes (UTC) are scalable and

    • A.

      A. sustainable.

    • B.

      B. deployable.

    • C.

      C. modular.

    • D.

      D. tailored.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. modular.
    Explanation
    Right-sized unit type codes (UTC) being scalable means that they can be adjusted or expanded according to the needs or demands of a particular situation or context. However, this does not necessarily imply that they are sustainable or deployable. On the other hand, being modular means that the UTC can be easily broken down into smaller components or modules, which can be rearranged or combined in different ways. This flexibility and adaptability make modular UTCs the most suitable choice in this scenario. The term "tailored" does not accurately describe the concept of UTCs being scalable and adaptable. Therefore, the correct answer is c. modular.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Which resource can provide access to critical materiel and services when preparing the battlefield?

    • A.

      A. War readiness materiel (WRM).

    • B.

      B. Host-nation support (HNS).

    • C.

      C. Request for forces (RFF).

    • D.

      D. Support agreements.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Host-nation support (HNS).
    Explanation
    Host-nation support (HNS) can provide access to critical materiel and services when preparing the battlefield. HNS refers to the support and assistance provided by a host nation to a foreign military force operating within its territory. This support can include logistics, infrastructure, intelligence, and other resources necessary for military operations. By leveraging the resources and capabilities of the host nation, the foreign military force can enhance its readiness and effectiveness in preparing the battlefield.

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  • 9. 

    (003) If postured to deploy, what requirements must noncommissioned officers (NCO) be prepared to meet?

    • A.

      A. Line remark.

    • B.

      B. Pre-deployment.

    • C.

      C. Combatant commander.

    • D.

      D. Supporting commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Pre-deployment.
    Explanation
    Noncommissioned officers (NCOs) must be prepared to meet the requirements of pre-deployment if they are postured to deploy. This means that they need to be ready to fulfill the necessary tasks and responsibilities before being deployed to a combat or operational zone. This may include tasks such as preparing equipment, conducting training, ensuring proper documentation and paperwork, and coordinating logistics. Being prepared for pre-deployment is crucial for NCOs to ensure a smooth and successful deployment process.

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  • 10. 

    (003) During which process do Airmen assist in monitoring and reporting limiting factors?

    • A.

      A. Deployments.

    • B.

      B. Support agreement.

    • C.

      C. Adaptive planning process.

    • D.

      D. War readiness materiel (WRM) process.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Adaptive planning process.
    Explanation
    Airmen assist in monitoring and reporting limiting factors during the adaptive planning process. This process involves continuously assessing and adjusting plans based on changing circumstances and potential constraints. By monitoring and reporting limiting factors, Airmen can identify any obstacles or challenges that may impact the effectiveness or feasibility of the plan, allowing for necessary adjustments to be made. This helps ensure that the plan remains adaptable and responsive to the evolving needs and conditions of the mission.

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  • 11. 

    (003) Which function do noncommissioned officers (NCO) provide during base support and expeditionary site planning processes?

    • A.

      A. Validate and monitor war readiness materiel (WRM) deficiencies.

    • B.

      B. Conduct training for subordinate and tenant units.

    • C.

      C. Reporting limiting factors (LIMFACS).

    • D.

      D. Coordinate international logistics.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Conduct training for subordinate and tenant units.
    Explanation
    Noncommissioned officers (NCO) play a crucial role in conducting training for subordinate and tenant units during base support and expeditionary site planning processes. This involves providing guidance, instruction, and supervision to ensure that these units are properly trained and prepared for their missions. NCOs have the experience and expertise to train and mentor soldiers, helping them develop the necessary skills and knowledge to successfully carry out their duties. By conducting training, NCOs contribute to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the military organization.

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  • 12. 

    (004) What must craftsman complete to be awarded a 7-skill level?

    • A.

      A. Ancillary and Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) training.

    • B.

      B. Ancillary and Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS) training.

    • C.

      C. 7-skill level career development course (CDC) and CFETP training.

    • D.

      D. 7-skill level CDC and 7-skill level core tasks.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 7-skill level CDC and 7-skill level core tasks.
    Explanation
    To be awarded a 7-skill level, a craftsman must complete the 7-skill level CDC (career development course) and also complete the 7-skill level core tasks. This means that they must not only go through the necessary training and education, but also demonstrate proficiency in the specific skills required for the 7-skill level.

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  • 13. 

    (004) What school will individuals attend when promoted to Technical Sergeant (TSgt)?

    • A.

      A. War readiness materiel (WRM) training.

    • B.

      B. Noncommissioned officers Academy (NCOA).

    • C.

      C. Contingency Wartime Planning Course (CWPC).

    • D.

      D. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Noncommissioned officers Academy (NCOA).
    Explanation
    When individuals are promoted to Technical Sergeant (TSgt), they will attend the Noncommissioned Officers Academy (NCOA). This academy is designed to provide advanced leadership and management training for noncommissioned officers in the military. It focuses on developing their skills in areas such as communication, decision-making, and problem-solving. Attending NCOA helps individuals in their career progression and prepares them for the increased responsibilities that come with the rank of TSgt.

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  • 14. 

    (004) What position can a 9-level be expected to fill?

    • A.

      A. Noncommissioned officer in charge war readiness materiel.

    • B.

      B. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • C.

      C. Support agreement.

    • D.

      D. Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Superintendent.
    Explanation
    A 9-level can be expected to fill the position of a superintendent. This position is typically responsible for managing and overseeing a specific area or department within an organization. They are often in charge of supervising and leading a team, ensuring that operations run smoothly, and making decisions to achieve organizational goals. A 9-level is considered to have a high level of expertise and experience in their field, making them suitable for a leadership role such as a superintendent.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Which area is not a base-level log plans function?

    • A.

      A. Support agreement.

    • B.

      B. War readiness materiel.

    • C.

      C. Functional management.

    • D.

      D. Deployment management.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Functional management.
    Explanation
    Functional management is not a base-level log plans function because it refers to the management of specific departments or areas within an organization, such as finance, human resources, or operations. Base-level log plans functions typically involve activities related to logistics planning, coordination, and execution, such as support agreements, war readiness materiel, and deployment management. Functional management is not directly related to these logistics functions and is therefore not considered a base-level log plans function.

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  • 16. 

    (005) Which section is a base-level log plans function?

    • A.

      A. War readiness materiel management.

    • B.

      B. Unit control center management.

    • C.

      C. Functional management.

    • D.

      D. Programs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. War readiness materiel management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. War readiness materiel management. This section is considered a base-level log plans function because it is responsible for managing and maintaining the readiness of war materials. This includes coordinating and overseeing the procurement, storage, distribution, and disposal of materiel to ensure that it is readily available for use in combat or other military operations. This function plays a crucial role in supporting the overall readiness and operational effectiveness of military units.

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  • 17. 

    (005) Who will provide training with the assistance of the finance and manpower offices to the Functional Area Agreement Coordinators (FAAC)?

    • A.

      A. War readiness materiel (WRM) manager.

    • B.

      B. Support agreement manager.

    • C.

      C. Wing commander.

    • D.

      D. Unit.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Support agreement manager.
    Explanation
    The support agreement manager will provide training to the Functional Area Agreement Coordinators (FAAC) with the assistance of the finance and manpower offices. This is because the support agreement manager is responsible for overseeing and managing support agreements, which includes coordinating training and resources for the FAAC. The finance and manpower offices will assist in providing the necessary financial and personnel resources for the training.

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  • 18. 

    (005) What kind of activities will 20 percent of your time be spent?

    • A.

      A. Reading.

    • B.

      B. Training.

    • C.

      C. Supervision.

    • D.

      D. Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Deployment.
    Explanation
    20 percent of your time will be spent on deployment activities. This means that a significant portion of your time will be dedicated to implementing and launching projects or initiatives. This could involve tasks such as setting up systems, installing software, configuring hardware, and ensuring that everything is in place for the successful execution of the project. Deployment activities are crucial in ensuring that plans are executed effectively and that the desired outcomes are achieved.

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  • 19. 

    (005) To which organizational level do the managing Base Support Plans (BSP) logistic planners forward limiting factors (LIMFAC)?

    • A.

      A. Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      B. Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

    • C.

      C. Number Air Force (NAF).

    • D.

      D. Unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Number Air Force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The managing Base Support Plans (BSP) logistic planners forward limiting factors (LIMFAC) to the Number Air Force (NAF). This suggests that the NAF is the organizational level responsible for addressing and managing these limiting factors.

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  • 20. 

    (006) In which area do major command (MAJCOM) personnel work with other logistics functional areas to ensure needed logistics resources are identified and programmed in the program objective memorandum (POM)?

    • A.

      A. Programs.

    • B.

      B. Agreements.

    • C.

      C. Deployments.

    • D.

      D. War readiness materiel (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Programs.
    Explanation
    Major command (MAJCOM) personnel work with other logistics functional areas in the Programs area to ensure needed logistics resources are identified and programmed in the program objective memorandum (POM). This involves collaborating with different functional areas to determine the logistics requirements and allocate resources accordingly. The Programs area is responsible for planning and organizing the logistics support needed for various operations and initiatives.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Which agency is the senior war-fighting echelon of the US Air Force?

    • A.

      A. A4 Contingency Action Team (CAT).

    • B.

      B. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      C. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • D.

      D. Joint Task Force (JTF).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Numbered Air Force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Numbered Air Force (NAF). A Numbered Air Force (NAF) is the senior war-fighting echelon of the US Air Force. It is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping subordinate units to execute assigned missions. NAFs are commanded by a General Officer and are responsible for the operational readiness and effectiveness of their assigned forces. They provide combat-ready forces to combatant commanders and support the overall mission of the US Air Force.

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  • 22. 

    (007) What is the highest classification level of material on a national level?

    • A.

      A. SECRET.

    • B.

      B. TOP SECRET.

    • C.

      C. NATO ATOMAL.

    • D.

      D. Sensitive compartmented information.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. TOP SECRET.
    Explanation
    The highest classification level of material on a national level is TOP SECRET. This level of classification is used for information that, if disclosed, could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. It is the highest level of classification and is reserved for the most sensitive and classified information.

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  • 23. 

    (007) Which of the following is a classified document that a logistics planner may use on a day-to-day basis?

    • A.

      A. Logistics planning subsystem (LOGPLAN) materiel list.

    • B.

      B. Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C.

      C. Acquisition and cross servicing agreement.

    • D.

      D. Support agreement.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Time-pHased force and deployment data (TPFDD).
    Explanation
    A logistics planner may use the Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) on a day-to-day basis because it provides information about the movement and deployment of military forces and equipment. This document helps in coordinating and planning logistics operations, ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time and place. It includes details such as transportation requirements, unit locations, and deployment schedules, which are crucial for effective logistics planning and execution.

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  • 24. 

    (007) From what document might an enemy gain a great strategic advantage by knowing where we plan to mass our forces in the event of a conflict?

    • A.

      A. Support agreement.

    • B.

      B. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents.

    • C.

      C. Logistics module (LOGMOD) unit type code (UTC) report.

    • D.

      D. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) data.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents.
    Explanation
    Knowing where a military force plans to mass their forces in the event of a conflict can provide an enemy with a great strategic advantage. War readiness materiel (WRM) documents would contain information about the location and availability of military equipment and supplies, which would be crucial for an enemy to effectively plan their own strategies and counteract the massing of forces. This information would allow the enemy to target specific areas or devise tactics to exploit any weaknesses in the planned massing of forces.

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  • 25. 

    (007) What factor is considered before transporting classified material?

    • A.

      A. Chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel.

    • B.

      B. Time of day to ship the material.

    • C.

      C. Cost to ship the material.

    • D.

      D. Weight of the material.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel.
    Explanation
    Before transporting classified material, the factor that is considered is the chances of confiscation by unauthorized personnel. This is important because classified material needs to be protected and kept secure, and there is a risk that unauthorized individuals may try to gain access to or steal the material during transportation. Therefore, the likelihood of confiscation by unauthorized personnel is a key factor that needs to be assessed and minimized to ensure the safe and secure transport of classified material.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Who is the statutory military advisor to the National Security Council (NSC)?

    • A.

      A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B.

      B. Director of Central Intelligence.

    • C.

      C. Air Force Chief of Staff.

    • D.

      D. Secretary of Defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States Armed Forces and serves as the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. They provide military advice and expertise on matters related to national security and defense policy, making them the appropriate statutory military advisor to the National Security Council.

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  • 27. 

    (008) The primary means by which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) performs joint strategic planning is the

    • A.

      A. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • B.

      B. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C.

      C. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    • D.

      D. Adaptive Planning System (APS).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS). The JSPS is the primary means by which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) performs joint strategic planning. It is a system that allows for the development and coordination of joint strategic plans, providing a framework for the CJCS to evaluate and prioritize military capabilities and resources. The JSPS helps in aligning military objectives with national security goals and facilitates collaboration and coordination among the different branches of the military.

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  • 28. 

    (008) Which is the principal process to review military policy?

    • A.

      A. Joint Strategy Review (JSR).

    • B.

      B. Joint Planning Document (JPD).

    • C.

      C. National Military Strategy (NMS).

    • D.

      D. Strategic Planning Guidance (SPG).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Joint Strategy Review (JSR).
    Explanation
    The principal process to review military policy is the Joint Strategy Review (JSR). This process involves a comprehensive assessment of the military's strategy and objectives, considering factors such as threats, capabilities, and resources. The JSR helps to ensure that military policy aligns with national security goals and provides a framework for decision-making and resource allocation. It involves the participation of multiple stakeholders, including military leaders, policymakers, and experts, to ensure a comprehensive and informed review of military policy.

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  • 29. 

    (008) A major goal of the planning, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) system is to

    • A.

      A. provide funds for developing plans as directed by the Joint Strategic Planning System.

    • B.

      B. directly tie allocated funds to corresponding programs driven by each services unique needs.

    • C.

      C. link any major decision for acquisition, force structure, operational concepts, and infrastructure.

    • D.

      D. document the provision of funding to service unique plans for infrastructure and force requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. link any major decision for acquisition, force structure, operational concepts, and infrastructure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. The planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE) system aims to link any major decision for acquisition, force structure, operational concepts, and infrastructure. This means that the system is designed to ensure that all major decisions related to these areas are connected and aligned with each other. By doing so, the PPBE system helps to create a comprehensive and cohesive approach to resource allocation and decision-making within the organization. It allows for a more efficient and effective use of resources and ensures that all aspects of the organization's plans and requirements are considered in the decision-making process.

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  • 30. 

    (008) The planning, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) system is concerned with allocating resources to meet the war fighting needs of

    • A.

      A. combatant commanders (CCDR).

    • B.

      B. major commands (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      C. numbered air forces (NAF).

    • D.

      D. joint task forces (JTF).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. combatant commanders (CCDR).
    Explanation
    The planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE) system is a process used by the Department of Defense to allocate resources to meet the war fighting needs of combatant commanders (CCDR). This system ensures that the resources are distributed effectively and efficiently to support the operational requirements of the CCDRs. The CCDRs are responsible for the command and control of military forces in their respective geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They are the primary warfighters and decision-makers in the military hierarchy, making them the most appropriate recipients of the allocated resources.

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  • 31. 

    (008) The Department of Defense (DOD) turns budgets and the money that comes from them into operational military plans using

    • A.

      A. the Programming, Planning, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) System.

    • B.

      B. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segments (DCAPES).

    • C.

      C. the Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • D.

      D. the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).
  • 32. 

    (008) The basic volume of the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) details planning guidance, force apportionment guidance,

    • A.

      A. assumptions, tasks, and requirements.

    • B.

      B. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.

    • C.

      C. constraints and assumptions.

    • D.

      D. tasks and duties.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.
    Explanation
    The basic volume of the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) provides planning guidance, force apportionment guidance, assumptions, constraints, and tasks. This means that it includes assumptions, which are the underlying beliefs or premises that guide the planning process. It also includes constraints, which are the limitations or restrictions that need to be considered during planning. Additionally, it includes tasks, which are the specific actions or activities that need to be performed in order to achieve the objectives outlined in the plan. Therefore, the correct answer is b. assumptions, constraints, and tasks.

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  • 33. 

    (008) Which system is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single, integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution?

    • A.

      A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segments (DCAPES).

    • B.

      B. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      C. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • D.

      D. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is the Department of Defense's directed single, integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution. It provides a standardized approach for planning and executing military operations, allowing for coordination and synchronization among different military branches and organizations. JOPES helps in the development of operational plans, deployment of forces, and tracking of resources and logistics during military operations. It is an essential tool for effective planning and execution of joint military operations.

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  • 34. 

    (009) What type of plan is a written description of the combatant commander’s concept of operations to counter a perceived threat?

    • A.

      A. Concept.

    • B.

      B. Functional.

    • C.

      C. Supporting.

    • D.

      D. Operational.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Operational.
    Explanation
    An operational plan is a written description of the combatant commander's concept of operations to counter a perceived threat. It outlines the specific actions and tasks that need to be undertaken to achieve the desired objectives. This plan provides detailed guidance on how the military forces will be employed and the resources that will be required. It is focused on the execution of military operations and is essential for coordinating and synchronizing the efforts of different units and components.

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  • 35. 

    (009) What type of plan is an abbreviated form of an operation plan (OPLAN)?

    • A.

      A. Programming.

    • B.

      B. Joint support.

    • C.

      C. Exercise.

    • D.

      D. Concept.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Concept.
    Explanation
    An abbreviated form of an operation plan (OPLAN) is known as a concept. A concept plan provides a general outline and framework for an operation, highlighting the key objectives and strategies. It is a condensed version of the OPLAN, focusing on the overall concept and approach rather than the specific details and logistics. This allows for easier communication and understanding among personnel involved in the operation.

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  • 36. 

    (009) What plan may or may not have an associated time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?

    • A.

      A. Programming.

    • B.

      B. Joint support.

    • C.

      C. Exercise.

    • D.

      D. Concept.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Concept.
    Explanation
    A concept plan may or may not have an associated time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). TPFDD is a planning tool used to determine the resources and timing required for the deployment of forces in support of a military operation. While concept plans may include high-level ideas and objectives, they may not yet have detailed information on specific forces and their deployment timelines. Therefore, it is possible for a concept plan to not have an associated TPFDD.

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  • 37. 

    (009) During crisis action planning, which of the following are prepared in prescribed formats under joint procedures?

    • A.

      A. Prepare to deploy order.

    • B.

      B. Operation order.

    • C.

      C. Warning order.

    • D.

      D. Alert order.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Operation order.
    Explanation
    During crisis action planning, the operation order is prepared in prescribed formats under joint procedures. This order provides detailed instructions and guidance to military personnel on how to execute a specific operation or mission. It includes information on the mission, enemy situation, friendly forces, command and control, and other relevant details. The operation order ensures that all personnel involved have a clear understanding of their roles, responsibilities, and the overall plan of action. The other options, such as the prepare to deploy order, warning order, and alert order, may also be used during crisis action planning but they are not specifically prepared in prescribed formats under joint procedures.

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  • 38. 

    (010) What formal process is used to source the emerging unified combatant commander (UCC) requirements?

    • A.

      A. Adaptive planning.

    • B.

      B. Joint sourcing process.

    • C.

      C. Request for force process.

    • D.

      D. Global force management process.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Joint sourcing process.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Joint sourcing process. The joint sourcing process is used to source the emerging unified combatant commander (UCC) requirements. This process involves the identification, validation, prioritization, and allocation of resources to meet the UCC's needs. It ensures that the right capabilities are provided to the UCC in a timely manner, taking into account the strategic objectives and operational requirements. This process involves coordination and collaboration among various stakeholders, including the UCC, the Joint Staff, the combatant commands, and the military services.

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  • 39. 

    (011) What type of planning is the cornerstone of the peacetime planning process?

    • A.

      A. Contingency.

    • B.

      B. Crisis action.

    • C.

      C. Joint execution.

    • D.

      D. Joint engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Contingency.
    Explanation
    Contingency planning is the cornerstone of the peacetime planning process because it involves preparing for potential future events or situations that may arise. This type of planning allows organizations to anticipate and develop strategies to address various contingencies, ensuring they are prepared to respond effectively and efficiently if and when these events occur. It helps to minimize risks, maintain continuity of operations, and ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

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  • 40. 

    (011) Contingency planning prepares for a possible contingency based upon the best available information and using forces identified for use in the

    • A.

      A. National Security Strategy (NSS).

    • B.

      B. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    • C.

      C. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

    • D.

      D. In-garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).
    Explanation
    Contingency planning involves preparing for potential contingencies based on the best available information. The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) is a comprehensive plan that outlines the joint military capabilities and resources required to execute military operations. It identifies the forces that will be used in various contingencies and provides a framework for coordinating and integrating these forces. Therefore, the JSCP is the most appropriate choice for preparing for contingencies.

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  • 41. 

    (012) Which phase of crisis action planning (CAP) begins when command authorities decide to use a military response to a situation?

    • A.

      A. Course of action development.

    • B.

      B. Situation development.

    • C.

      C. Crisis assessment.

    • D.

      D. Execution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Course of action development.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Course of action development. This phase of crisis action planning begins when command authorities decide to use a military response to a situation. During this phase, different courses of action are developed and evaluated to determine the most effective approach to address the crisis. It involves analyzing the situation, considering available resources and capabilities, and developing a plan that outlines specific actions to be taken.

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  • 42. 

    (012) The final product of the course of action (COA) development phase of crisis action planning (CAP) is the commander’s estimate prepared by the

    • A.

      A. supporting commander.

    • B.

      B. Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

    • C.

      C. combatant commander (CCDR).

    • D.

      D. major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. combatant commander (CCDR).
    Explanation
    The final product of the course of action (COA) development phase of crisis action planning (CAP) is the commander's estimate prepared by the combatant commander (CCDR). This means that the CCDR, who is responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations, will provide their assessment and recommendations for the best course of action to address the crisis at hand. The CCDR's estimate will consider various factors such as the mission objectives, available resources, and potential risks, and it will serve as a guide for the subsequent phases of CAP.

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  • 43. 

    (013) What kind of order does the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) approve and transmit to the supported commander and Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action (COA)?

    • A.

      A. Operation.

    • B.

      B. Planning.

    • C.

      C. Warning.

    • D.

      D. Alert.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Alert.
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) approves and transmits an "Alert" order to the supported commander and Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action (COA). This order is used to notify and prepare the relevant parties for immediate action or response.

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  • 44. 

    (013) What type of order is used to prepare forces to deploy or deploy forces without approving the execution of a plan or operations order (OPORD)?

    • A.

      A. Deployment.

    • B.

      B. Planning.

    • C.

      C. Warning.

    • D.

      D. Alert.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Deployment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Deployment. This type of order is used to prepare forces to deploy or actually deploy forces without needing to approve the execution of a plan or operations order. It focuses specifically on the movement and positioning of forces for deployment purposes.

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  • 45. 

    (014) Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel, the purpose of which is to

    • A.

      A. eliminate airlift requirements.

    • B.

      B. meet planned defense objectives.

    • C.

      C. reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders.

    • D.

      D. provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. meet planned defense objectives.
    Explanation
    Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel that is specifically intended to meet planned defense objectives. This means that the purpose of WRM is to ensure that the Air Force has the necessary equipment and resources in reserve to support its planned defense operations and objectives. This can include items such as spare parts, ammunition, and other critical supplies that may be needed during times of conflict or other military operations. By having these reserves in place, the Air Force can ensure that it is prepared to meet its strategic goals and objectives.

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  • 46. 

    (015) Which category of war reserve materiel (WRM) is durable and can be used over and over?

    • A.

      A. Rations.

    • B.

      B. Equipment.

    • C.

      C. Consumables.

    • D.

      D. Fuels mobility support equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Equipment.
    Explanation
    Equipment is the correct answer because it is durable and can be used repeatedly. Unlike rations, which are consumed and need to be replenished, or consumables, which are used up and discarded, equipment can be reused multiple times. Fuels mobility support equipment, although necessary for operations, is not necessarily durable and may need to be replaced or replenished regularly. Therefore, the most appropriate category of war reserve materiel that fits the description is equipment.

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  • 47. 

    (016) Equipment authorized to support the peacetime operations and deploy with the unit is identified by use code

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The use code A identifies equipment that is authorized to support peacetime operations and can be deployed with the unit. This means that the equipment is suitable and approved for use in non-combat situations and can be taken along with the unit when it is deployed for missions or exercises. Use code A ensures that the equipment is properly designated and available for use in these situations.

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  • 48. 

    (016) Vehicles that support a unit’s peacetime mission and do not deploy are identified by use code

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      J

    • D.

      K

    Correct Answer
    D. K
    Explanation
    Vehicles that support a unit's peacetime mission and do not deploy are identified by use code K. This suggests that use code K is specifically assigned to vehicles that are used for non-deployment purposes during peacetime. The other use codes (A, C, and J) are not mentioned in the question, so it can be inferred that they are not applicable in this context.

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  • 49. 

    (017) Once all war reserve materiel (WRM) authorizations have been loaded into the Materiel Management System (MMS), who is responsible to validate the information?

    • A.

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) materiel management personnel.

    • B.

      B. WRM noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO).

    • C.

      C. Base level materiel management personnel.

    • D.

      D. MAJCOM WRM personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. WRM noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. WRM noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO). The WRMNCO is responsible for validating the information once all war reserve materiel (WRM) authorizations have been loaded into the Materiel Management System (MMS). This role ensures that the information is accurate and up-to-date, and that the WRM is properly accounted for and managed. The WRMNCO plays a crucial role in the overall materiel management process and ensures that the WRM is ready and available when needed.

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  • 50. 

    (017) Who are the functional experts for their respective areas and are essential to the war reserve materiel (WRM) program?

    • A.

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) materiel management personnel.

    • B.

      B. War reserve materiel noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO).

    • C.

      C. MAJCOM WRM personnel.

    • D.

      D. Unit WRM managers.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Unit WRM managers.
    Explanation
    Unit WRM managers are the functional experts for their respective areas and are essential to the war reserve materiel (WRM) program. They are responsible for managing and maintaining the war reserve inventory at the unit level. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the WRM program is properly executed and that the required resources are available when needed. They work closely with other personnel such as MAJCOM WRM personnel and the War Reserve Materiel Noncommissioned Officer (WRMNCO) to coordinate and support the overall WRM program.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Marshall
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