1c5 CDC Vol 3

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| By Mikayla

Mikayla

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 102

Questions: 94 | Attempts: 102 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

What is a data trail?
- A.
  
  Tracks with a ground speed or computed true air speed of 180 knots or less.
- B.
  
  Returns that are generated by weather clutter, obstructions, and interference
- C.
  
  A series of consecutive radar returns, following a pattern in regard to direction and speed
- D.
  
  A series of consecutive radar and identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature(IFF/SIF) returns.
Correct Answer
C. A series of consecutive radar returns, following a pattern in regard to direction and speed

Explanation
A data trail refers to a series of consecutive radar returns that follow a specific pattern in terms of direction and speed. This means that the radar is consistently detecting and tracking an object or target that is moving in a predictable manner. The consecutive returns indicate that the object is continuously being tracked by the radar system, allowing for the collection of data on its movement and trajectory.

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2.

Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identificationand reporting purposes?
- A.
  
  Identification.
- B.
  
  Correlation.
- C.
  
  Reporting
- D.
  
  Initiation.
Correct Answer
D. Initiation.

Explanation
The procedure that assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identification and reporting purposes is called initiation. This step marks the start of the process and sets the target on its path towards identification and reporting. Identification, correlation, and reporting are all important steps in the overall process, but initiation is the specific step that kickstarts the process by assigning a track number to the target.

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3.

Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?
- A.
  
  Electronic protection technician.
- B.
  
  Air surveillance technician
- C.
  
  Mission crew commander
- D.
  
  Data system technician.
Correct Answer
B. Air surveillance technician

Explanation
A surveillance technician would coordinate with an air surveillance technician if a track did not reappear. This is because an air surveillance technician specializes in monitoring and tracking aircraft movements, so they would be the appropriate person to work with in order to locate a missing track. The other options, such as an electronic protection technician, mission crew commander, or data system technician, would not have the specific expertise or responsibility for tracking aircraft.

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4.

Which parameter must be used when voice telling tracks?
- A.
  
  Tell the heading in degrees relative to true north.
- B.
  
  Tell the altitude in 10-foot increments
- C.
  
  Tell the speed in 100-knot increments.
- D.
  
  Preface the altitude with its source
Correct Answer
D. Preface the altitude with its source

Explanation
When voice telling tracks, it is necessary to preface the altitude with its source. This means that before stating the altitude, the source of the altitude information should be mentioned. This is important because different sources may provide different altitude measurements, and it is crucial for accurate communication to specify the source of the altitude being mentioned.

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5.

Which type of information would you not transmit over unsecure radios?
- A.
  
  Track altitude
- B.
  
  Track number
- C.
  
  Mode 1 and 2 codes
- D.
  
  Track heading and speed.
Correct Answer
C. Mode 1 and 2 codes

Explanation
Mode 1 and 2 codes are not transmitted over unsecure radios because they are used for military identification purposes. Revealing these codes could compromise the security and effectiveness of military operations. Transmitting track altitude, track number, and track heading and speed may not pose the same level of risk and can be shared over unsecure radios.

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6.

Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?
- A.
  
  Forward
- B.
  
  Overlap
- C.
  
  Lateral
- D.
  
  Back
Correct Answer
A. Forward

Explanation
A forward tell is a type of communication that provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units. This means that information is being relayed in a direction that moves from lower level units to higher level units. It allows for the flow of information and updates to be shared with those in higher positions of authority or decision-making.

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7.

Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?
- A.
  
  Forward
- B.
  
  Overlap
- C.
  
  Lateral
- D.
  
  Back
Correct Answer
C. Lateral

Explanation
A lateral tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks. This means that it allows the stations to be aware of the tracks that are coming up next, enabling them to prepare and coordinate their operations accordingly.

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8.

Which tell priority is an emergency track?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
C. 3
9.

Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?
- A.
  
  Operations tasking link
- B.
  
  Airspace control order
- C.
  
  Air tasking order
- D.
  
  Operations order
Correct Answer
D. Operations order

Explanation
The operations order is the document that provides detailed circumstances and criteria for track identification. It outlines the specific tasks and objectives of an operation, including the identification of tracks or targets. It provides information on how to identify and track specific entities, such as aircraft or vehicles, based on predetermined circumstances and criteria. This document is essential for ensuring effective and coordinated operations.

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10.

Which flowchart would you use to systematically go through a sequence of identification (ID) methods to classify airborne tracks?
- A.
  
  Operations tasking link
- B.
  
  Airspace control order
- C.
  
  Checklist.
- D.
  
  ID matrix
Correct Answer
D. ID matrix

Explanation
The ID matrix is the correct flowchart to use in order to systematically go through a sequence of identification (ID) methods to classify airborne tracks. An ID matrix is a tool that provides a structured approach to identify and classify objects based on specific criteria. It allows for a step-by-step process of elimination and comparison to determine the correct classification of airborne tracks. The other options mentioned, such as operations tasking link, airspace control order, and checklist, do not provide a systematic approach for identification and classification.

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11.

During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?
- A.
  
  Previous identification
- B.
  
  Visual identification
- C.
  
  Track behavior
- D.
  
  Origin
Correct Answer
C. Track behavior

Explanation
During peacetime, tracks can be classified as friendly based on their track behavior. This means that their movement patterns, such as ground speed or computed true air speed, can be used to identify them as friendly. This method of identification is likely used when visual identification or previous identification methods are not feasible or reliable.

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12.

Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?
- A.
  
  1,2 and 3
- B.
  
  2,3 and 5
- C.
  
  1,2 and 4
- D.
  
  2,3 and 4
Correct Answer
C. 1,2 and 4

Explanation
Modes 1, 2, and 4 are normally only associated with military aircraft. Mode 1 is used for identification purposes, Mode 2 is used for military aircraft identification and altitude reporting, and Mode 4 is used for secure identification and encryption. Therefore, these modes are typically used exclusively by military aircraft.

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13.

Which type of identification is given to a track that meets some, but not all hostile criteria?
- A.
  
  Unknown
- B.
  
  Suspect
- C.
  
  Friendly
- D.
  
  Hostile
Correct Answer
B. Suspect

Explanation
A track that meets some, but not all hostile criteria is given the identification of "suspect". This means that there are certain factors or behaviors that raise suspicions or doubts about the track's intentions or potential threats, but it does not fully meet the criteria to be classified as "hostile". The term "suspect" is used to indicate that further monitoring or investigation is required to determine the track's true nature or intentions.

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14.

Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?
- A.
  
  Air tasking order
- B.
  
  Operations order
- C.
  
  Airspace control order
- D.
  
  NORAD instruction 10-15
Correct Answer
D. NORAD instruction 10-15

Explanation
NORAD instruction 10-15 specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic within the North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) system. This instruction provides guidance for how air traffic is identified, categorized, and classified within the NORAD system, ensuring efficient and effective management of airspace.

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15.

How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  2
- D.
  
  1
Correct Answer
C. 2

Explanation
Once a track is established, there are two steps in the identification process. This suggests that the process is relatively simple and straightforward, involving only two distinct stages.

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16.

Normally how many minutes does the identification process occur within?
- A.
  
  2 or 5
- B.
  
  2 or 3
- C.
  
  2 or 4
- D.
  
  1 or 3
Correct Answer
A. 2 or 5

Explanation
The identification process normally occurs within either 2 or 5 minutes.

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17.

What is the final step in the identification process?
- A.
  
  Classification
- B.
  
  Flight plan correlation
- C.
  
  Identification investigation
- D.
  
  Initial detection and track initiation
Correct Answer
A. Classification

Explanation
The final step in the identification process is classification. This step involves analyzing the available data and information to determine the identity of the object or entity being investigated. It may involve comparing the characteristics of the object with known patterns or profiles to make a definitive classification. This step is crucial in order to accurately identify and understand the nature of the object or entity in question.

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18.

At which time do aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures?
- A.
  
  During prebrief
- B.
  
  After becoming airborne
- C.
  
  While taxiing to the runway
- D.
  
  On final approach to the runway
Correct Answer
B. After becoming airborne

Explanation
Aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures after becoming airborne because it is during the flight that they have a clear understanding of the current weather conditions, air traffic control instructions, and any other relevant information that may affect the safe passage of the aircraft. Additionally, once the aircraft is in the air, the crew can assess the overall situation and make necessary adjustments to ensure safe passage for themselves and other aircraft in the airspace.

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19.

During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are established in order to provide safe entry when
- A.
  
  One or more unit(s) is/are not under site control
- B.
  
  There are large numbers of aircraft
- C.
  
  Allied aircraft are involved
- D.
  
  Using close control
Correct Answer
A. One or more unit(s) is/are not under site control

Explanation
During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are established in order to provide safe entry when one or more unit(s) is/are not under site control. This means that there may be situations where certain units or aircraft are not under the direct control or supervision of the site or base personnel. In order to ensure the safe passage of these aircraft, specific corridors are designated to guide them back to the site without any potential risks or conflicts with other units or aircraft. This helps to maintain safety and prevent any accidents or incidents during the return of these aircraft.

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20.

Which brevity word would you use to positively denote known enemy aircraft?
- A.
  
  Bandit
- B.
  
  Bogey
- C.
  
  Stranger
- D.
  
  Furball
Correct Answer
A. Bandit

Explanation
The brevity word "bandit" is used to positively denote known enemy aircraft. This term is commonly used in military aviation to quickly communicate the presence of hostile aircraft. It allows pilots to alert each other and air traffic control about potential threats in a concise and efficient manner. The term "bandit" helps to distinguish between friendly and enemy aircraft, enabling effective coordination and response during combat operations.

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21.

The brevity code that represents "have quick time of day signal" is called
- A.
  
  Zap
- B.
  
  Gadget
- C.
  
  Mickey
- D.
  
  Chattermark
Correct Answer
C. Mickey

Explanation
The brevity code "mickey" represents "have quick time of day signal." Brevity codes are used to convey information quickly and efficiently in various fields, such as military and aviation. Each code is a short and easily recognizable term or phrase that stands for a specific message. In this case, "mickey" is the code used to indicate the presence of a quick time of day signal.

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22.

Which brevity system is used by pilot and controller to convey messages in a few words?
- A.
  
  Chattermark
- B.
  
  Brevity codes
- C.
  
  Weapons language
- D.
  
  Tactics terminology
Correct Answer
B. Brevity codes

Explanation
Brevity codes are used by pilots and controllers to convey messages in a few words. These codes are a set of standardized phrases or abbreviations that are used to communicate quickly and efficiently in situations where time is crucial, such as during air traffic control or military operations. By using brevity codes, pilots and controllers can convey important information concisely, reducing the risk of miscommunication and ensuring clear and effective communication.

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23.

Which tactics terminology indicates the missile has been defeated?
- A.
  
  Husky
- B.
  
  Banzai
- C.
  
  Trashed
- D.
  
  Terminate
Correct Answer
C. Trashed

Explanation
The term "trashed" in tactics terminology indicates that the missile has been defeated. This implies that the missile has been destroyed or rendered ineffective, possibly through defensive measures or countermeasures.

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24.

Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?
- A.
  
  Stern
- B.
  
  Cutoff
- C.
  
  Pursuit
- D.
  
  Head-on
Correct Answer
A. Stern

Explanation
Infrared weapons systems are typically used in a stern tactic. This means that the weapons are deployed from the rear of the target, allowing for surprise attacks and minimizing the chances of retaliation. By using infrared technology, which detects heat signatures, the attacker can effectively target the enemy from behind without being easily detected. This tactic is often employed in military operations to gain a strategic advantage over the opponent.

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25.

The five levels of continuum of control are close, autonomous,
- A.
  
  Data link, tactical, and advisory.
- B.
  
  Broadcast, theater, and advisory
- C.
  
  Broadcast, tactical, and advisory
- D.
  
  Broadcast, tactical, and directive
Correct Answer
C. Broadcast, tactical, and advisory

Explanation
The correct answer is "broadcast, tactical, and advisory." The explanation for this answer is that the five levels of continuum of control are categorized as broadcast, tactical, and advisory. These levels represent different degrees of control and decision-making authority. The broadcast level involves the dissemination of information to all units involved. The tactical level involves the coordination and execution of specific actions based on the information received. The advisory level provides guidance and recommendations to assist in decision-making.

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26.

What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?
- A.
  
  Close
- B.
  
  Tactical
- C.
  
  Advisory
- D.
  
  Broadcast
Correct Answer
B. Tactical

Explanation
The standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions is tactical. Tactical control refers to the authority and responsibility for planning, directing, and coordinating the employment of military forces and assets in the execution of assigned missions or tasks. It involves making decisions and taking actions on the battlefield or during training exercises to achieve specific objectives. Tactical control is typically exercised by commanders at the operational level, who are responsible for the immediate execution of missions and the coordination of forces in the field.

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27.

Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?
- A.
  
  Close
- B.
  
  Tactical
- C.
  
  Advisory
- D.
  
  Broadcast
Correct Answer
D. Broadcast

Explanation
Broadcast control is informative and not directive in nature because it involves the dissemination of information to a wide audience without providing specific instructions or guidance. It is typically used to share important updates, announcements, or news to a large group of people. Unlike tactical control, which involves giving specific instructions and directions, or advisory control, which provides guidance and recommendations, broadcast control simply provides information without any specific direction or guidance.

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28.

Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar capability?
- A.
  
  Tactical
- B.
  
  Advisory
- C.
  
  Broadcast
- D.
  
  Autonomous operations
Correct Answer
B. Advisory

Explanation
When the controlling agency loses radar capability, the type of control that uses a radio monitor mode is advisory. In this mode, the controlling agency provides guidance and recommendations to the pilot, but the final decision-making authority rests with the pilot. This allows the pilot to make informed decisions based on the information provided by the controlling agency, even without radar capability.

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29.

Who approves the joint force air component commander’s (JFACC) course of action (COA)?
- A.
  
  Joint chiefs of staff
- B.
  
  Combatant commander.
- C.
  
  Joint forces commander.
- D.
  
  Major command commander
Correct Answer
C. Joint forces commander.

Explanation
The Joint forces commander approves the joint force air component commander's (JFACC) course of action (COA). The JFACC is responsible for planning and executing air operations in a joint force, and their COA outlines the specific actions and strategies to be implemented. The Joint forces commander, who is in charge of the overall joint force, has the authority to review and approve the JFACC's COA to ensure it aligns with the overall mission and objectives of the joint force.

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30.

Whose guidance ensures that air operations effectively support the force objectives, while still retaining flexibility in execution, to adjust to the dynamics of military operations?
- A.
  
  Combatant commander
- B.
  
  Joint forces commander
- C.
  
  Major command commander
- D.
  
  Joint forces air component commander
Correct Answer
D. Joint forces air component commander

Explanation
The joint forces air component commander is responsible for ensuring that air operations effectively support the force objectives while maintaining flexibility. They coordinate and integrate air operations across multiple branches of the military to achieve the desired outcomes. This role requires a deep understanding of military operations and the ability to adapt to changing dynamics on the battlefield.

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31.

How many series of air tasking orders (ATO) are in various stages of progress at any time?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  5
- D.
  
  7
Correct Answer
C. 5

Explanation
There are five series of air tasking orders (ATO) in various stages of progress at any given time. This implies that there are multiple ongoing ATOs being worked on simultaneously, with each series representing a different set of tasks and objectives.

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32.

During what air tasking planning cycle stage is the joint force component commander responsible for redirecting air assets to respond to moving targets or changing priorities?
- A.
  
  Target development
- B.
  
  Weaponeering and allocation
- C.
  
  Execution planning and force execution
- D.
  
  Air tasking order production and dissemination
Correct Answer
C. Execution planning and force execution

Explanation
During the execution planning and force execution stage of the air tasking planning cycle, the joint force component commander is responsible for redirecting air assets to respond to moving targets or changing priorities. This stage involves the actual implementation of the air tasking order and the coordination of resources to carry out the planned missions. It requires flexibility and adaptability to adjust the allocation of air assets based on the evolving situation on the ground.

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33.

Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force environment to the combat plans division?
- A.
  
  Army
- B.
  
  Navy
- C.
  
  Air force
- D.
  
  Marine corps
Correct Answer
A. Army

Explanation
In a multi-service force environment, the combat plans division is responsible for coordinating and planning military operations. The preplanned request is typically submitted by the army, as they are the branch of the military that focuses on ground operations and has the most direct involvement in combat situations. The navy, air force, and marine corps may also submit requests, but the army is the primary branch responsible for submitting preplanned requests in this context.

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34.

Which mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load?
- A.
  
  Tasked unit
- B.
  
  Air mission
- C.
  
  Mission aircraft
- D.
  
  Ground target location
Correct Answer
C. Mission aircraft

Explanation
The mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) that contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load is the "mission aircraft" set. This set includes all the necessary information about the specific aircraft, such as its call sign and the standard conventional load it carries. It is important for effective mission planning and coordination.

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35.

Who designates the airspace control authority?
- A.
  
  Combatant commander
- B.
  
  Joint forces commander (JFC)
- C.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM) commander
- D.
  
  Joint forces air component commander (JFACC)
Correct Answer
B. Joint forces commander (JFC)

Explanation
The joint forces commander (JFC) designates the airspace control authority. This means that the person in charge of the joint forces, who is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all military operations, has the authority to designate who will be in control of the airspace. This decision is important as it determines who will have the responsibility for managing and regulating the use of airspace during military operations.

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36.

Which document provides the details of the approved requests for fire support coordination measures?
- A.
  
  ATO
- B.
  
  SPINS
- C.
  
  ACO
- D.
  
  OPTASKLINK
Correct Answer
C. ACO

Explanation
The ACO (Airspace Control Order) document provides the details of the approved requests for fire support coordination measures. The ACO outlines the specific procedures and guidelines for coordinating and controlling airspace during military operations. It includes information on the approved requests for fire support coordination measures, such as the location, timing, and type of support requested. The ACO ensures effective communication and coordination between different units involved in fire support and helps to prevent any potential conflicts or accidents in the airspace.

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37.

Who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan (AADP)?
- A.
  
  Component commander
- B.
  
  Joint forces commander (JFC)
- C.
  
  Area air defense commander (AADC)
- D.
  
  Joint force air component commander (JFACC)
Correct Answer
A. Component commander

Explanation
The component commander is responsible for providing the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan (AADP). This means that they are in charge of coordinating and deploying the necessary resources and forces to defend a specific area against air threats. The component commander works closely with other commanders and forces to ensure that the AADP is effectively executed.

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38.

What combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control (C2) systems to defend against threats?
- A.
  
  ATO
- B.
  
  AADP
- C.
  
  ACO
- D.
  
  OPTASKLINK
Correct Answer
B. AADP

Explanation
AADP combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control (C2) systems to defend against threats.

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39.

Which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical link operations?
- A.
  
  ATO
- B.
  
  ACO
- C.
  
  Special tactical instructions
- D.
  
  OPTASKLINK
Correct Answer
D. OPTASKLINK

Explanation
The document that outlines duties, functions, and parameters for tactical link operations is OPTASKLINK. This document provides guidance and instructions for the use of tactical links, ensuring that all parties involved understand their roles and responsibilities in operating and maintaining these links. It helps to establish clear communication protocols and procedures to ensure effective and efficient tactical link operations. ATO, ACO, and Special tactical instructions may also contain related information, but OPTASKLINK specifically focuses on tactical link operations.

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40.

Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?
- A.
  
  Combatant commands
- B.
  
  Wings
- C.
  
  Groups
- D.
  
  Units
Correct Answer
A. Combatant commands

Explanation
Combatant commands submit daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level. These commands are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations in a specific geographic or functional area. They receive intelligence from various sources and compile it into DISUMs, which provide a comprehensive overview of the intelligence situation in their respective areas of responsibility. These DISUMs are then shared with higher-level commands and national intelligence agencies to inform decision-making and support military operations.

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41.

Which document tends to become historical and statistical over the passage of time?
- A.
  
  ATO
- B.
  
  ACO
- C.
  
  DISUM
- D.
  
  OPTASKLINK
Correct Answer
C. DISUM

Explanation
DISUM stands for Document Summary, which is a document that provides a summary of information related to a particular topic or event. Over time, as new information becomes available and the topic or event evolves, the DISUM document may become historical and statistical in nature. This is because it captures and records data and information that can be used for analysis and research purposes. As time passes, the DISUM document becomes a valuable resource for historians and statisticians to study and understand the past.

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42.

Who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?
- A.
  
  President
- B.
  
  Secretary of Defense
- C.
  
  Joint forces commander
- D.
  
  Unified command commander
Correct Answer
C. Joint forces commander

Explanation
The Joint forces commander is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE) because they are responsible for overseeing military operations in a specific theater of operations. They have the authority to establish and enforce ROE to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the forces under their command. The President, Secretary of Defense, and Unified command commander may have influence and decision-making power, but the Joint forces commander ultimately holds the final authority in theater ROE.

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43.

Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement (ROE) when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?
- A.
  
  Pure pursuit
- B.
  
  Lead pursuit
- C.
  
  Stern attack
- D.
  
  Cutoff attack
Correct Answer
C. Stern attack

Explanation
During peacetime rules of engagement (ROE), a stern attack tactic is performed when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace. In a stern attack, the interceptor aircraft positions itself behind the target aircraft and maintains a steady pursuit. This tactic is used to monitor and control the target aircraft, ensuring it complies with regulations and does not pose a threat to national security.

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44.

What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of the air tasking order (ATO)?
- A.
  
  SPINS
- B.
  
  ROE
- C.
  
  ACO
- D.
  
  DISUM
Correct Answer
A. SPINS

Explanation
SPINS stands for Special Instructions. It is a supplement that provides additional guidance and procedures to be followed by aircrews during specific operations. It complements the information provided in other portions of the air tasking order (ATO) by specifying special instructions and considerations that need to be taken into account. SPINS helps to ensure that all aircrews operate in a coordinated and efficient manner, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the mission.

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45.

Special instructions (SPINS) are published
- A.
  
  Daily, weekly, and monthly.
- B.
  
  Daily, bi-weekly, and monthly
- C.
  
  Baseline, weekly, and daily
- D.
  
  Baseline, bi-weekly, and daily.
Correct Answer
C. Baseline, weekly, and daily

Explanation
The correct answer is "baseline, weekly, and daily". This means that special instructions are published on a baseline, weekly, and daily basis. A baseline refers to a starting point or reference point, so special instructions are published periodically based on this reference point. Additionally, they are published on a weekly and daily basis, indicating that there are regular updates and communication of these instructions throughout the week and on a daily basis.

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46.

Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?
- A.
  
  Directed energy (DE).
- B.
  
  Electronic support (ES).
- C.
  
  Laser technologies
- D.
  
  Electronic protection (EP).
Correct Answer
A. Directed energy (DE).

Explanation
Directed energy (DE) is the correct answer because it is the umbrella term that encompasses technologies capable of producing concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles. This includes technologies such as lasers, particle beams, and high-power microwaves. Directed energy weapons and systems fall under this category, which can be used for various purposes such as communication, defense, and destruction.

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47.

The usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic
- A.
  
  Attack (EA).
- B.
  
  Support (ES).
- C.
  
  Warfare (EW).
- D.
  
  Protection (EP).
Correct Answer
A. Attack (EA).

Explanation
Electronic attack (EA) refers to the use of electronic or mechanical devices to interfere with or disrupt enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems. This can include jamming enemy communications, radar, or other electronic systems, as well as deceiving or confusing enemy sensors. By disrupting the enemy's electronic capabilities, EA aims to degrade their ability to effectively conduct warfare.

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48.

What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?
- A.
  
  Electronic attack (EA).
- B.
  
  Electronic support (ES).
- C.
  
  Electronic warfare (EW).
- D.
  
  Electronic protection (EP).
Correct Answer
B. Electronic support (ES).

Explanation
Electronic support (ES) is the correct answer because it refers to the capability of intercepting, identifying, and locating sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy. This is done for the purpose of threat recognition, which aligns with the given question. Electronic attack (EA) involves using electromagnetic energy to attack enemy systems, electronic warfare (EW) encompasses all aspects of using electromagnetic energy in warfare, and electronic protection (EP) focuses on protecting friendly systems from electronic threats.

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49.

In control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS), denial is accomplished using all of the following electronic attack techniques except
- A.
  
  Degradation.
- B.
  
  Disruption.
- C.
  
  Deception.
- D.
  
  Detection.
Correct Answer
D. Detection.

Explanation
Denial in the control of the electromagnetic spectrum refers to preventing the enemy from using or accessing certain frequencies or signals. Electronic attack techniques such as degradation, disruption, and deception are used to achieve this denial. Degradation involves reducing the quality or effectiveness of enemy communications, disruption refers to interrupting or jamming enemy signals, and deception involves misleading or confusing the enemy. However, detection does not directly contribute to denying the enemy access to the electromagnetic spectrum but rather helps in identifying and locating enemy signals.

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50.

Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) uses manipulation, distortion, or falsification to mislead the adversary?
- A.
  
  Denial
- B.
  
  Detection
- C.
  
  Deception
- D.
  
  Disruption
Correct Answer
C. Deception

Explanation
Deception is the activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) that uses manipulation, distortion, or falsification to mislead the adversary. This involves intentionally providing false information or misleading signals to confuse and deceive the enemy, making them believe in false scenarios or taking wrong actions. It is a strategic tactic used in warfare or military operations to gain an advantage over the opponent by creating confusion and uncertainty.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Jan 03, 2018

Quiz Created by
Mikayla

1c5 CDC Vol 3

What is a data trail?

Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identificationand reporting purposes?

Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?

Which parameter must be used when voice telling tracks?

Which type of information would you not transmit over unsecure radios?

Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?

Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?

Which tell priority is an emergency track?

Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?

Which flowchart would you use to systematically go through a sequence of identification (ID) methods to classify airborne tracks?

During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?

Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?

Which type of identification is given to a track that meets some, but not all hostile criteria?

Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?

How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?

Normally how many minutes does the identification process occur within?

What is the final step in the identification process?

At which time do aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures?

During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are established in order to provide safe entry when

Which brevity word would you use to positively denote known enemy aircraft?

The brevity code that represents "have quick time of day signal" is called

Which brevity system is used by pilot and controller to convey messages in a few words?

Which tactics terminology indicates the missile has been defeated?

Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?

The five levels of continuum of control are close, autonomous,

What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?

Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?

Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar capability?

Who approves the joint force air component commander’s (JFACC) course of action (COA)?

Whose guidance ensures that air operations effectively support the force objectives, while still retaining flexibility in execution, to adjust to the dynamics of military operations?

How many series of air tasking orders (ATO) are in various stages of progress at any time?

During what air tasking planning cycle stage is the joint force component commander responsible for redirecting air assets to respond to moving targets or changing priorities?

Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force environment to the combat plans division?

Which mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load?

Who designates the airspace control authority?

Which document provides the details of the approved requests for fire support coordination measures?

Who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan (AADP)?

What combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control (C2) systems to defend against threats?

Which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical link operations?

Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?

Which document tends to become historical and statistical over the passage of time?

Who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?

Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement (ROE) when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?

What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of the air tasking order (ATO)?

Special instructions (SPINS) are published

Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

The usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic

What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?

In control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS), denial is accomplished using all of the following electronic attack techniques except

Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) uses manipulation, distortion, or falsification to mislead the adversary?