The Clinical Chemistry Quiz: Trivia!

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| By Don Felipe
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Don Felipe
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 3,758
Questions: 10 | Attempts: 1,341

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The Clinical Chemistry Quiz: Trivia! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is:

    • A.

      Chloride

    • B.

      Sodium

    • C.

      Potassium

    • D.

      Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    B. Sodium
    Explanation
    The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is sodium. This system plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. When blood pressure drops, renin is released, which leads to the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II, which stimulates the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys, promoting the reabsorption of sodium and water, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, sodium is the primary chemical affected by this system.

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  • 2. 

    In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.

    • A.

      Mean

    • B.

      Median

    • C.

      F-Test

    • D.

      T-Test

    Correct Answer
    C. F-Test
    Explanation
    The F-Test is used in statistics to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data. It compares the variances of the two groups and calculates the F-statistic, which is the ratio of the larger variance to the smaller variance. If the calculated F-statistic is greater than the critical value, it indicates that there is a significant difference between the standard deviations of the two groups. Therefore, the F-Test is the appropriate choice for determining the significant difference between standard deviations in this scenario.

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  • 3. 

    It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present.

    • A.

      Calibrator

    • B.

      Reagent

    • C.

      Standard

    • D.

      Control

    Correct Answer
    D. Control
    Explanation
    A control is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present. Controls are used in laboratory testing to ensure the accuracy and precision of the analytical method. They are run alongside patient samples and are used to monitor the performance of the assay. Controls contain known concentrations of analytes and are used to validate the accuracy of the test results.

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  • 4. 

    This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory.

    • A.

      Gaussian Curve

    • B.

      Cumulative Sum Graph

    • C.

      Youden/Twin Plot

    • D.

      Levey-Jennings Chart

    Correct Answer
    D. Levey-Jennings Chart
    Explanation
    The Levey-Jennings Chart is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory. This chart is used to monitor the performance of laboratory tests over time by plotting the test results against control limits. It allows for the detection of systematic errors, random errors, and shifts in test performance. The Levey-Jennings Chart is particularly useful in identifying trends or patterns that may indicate the need for corrective action or further investigation.

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  • 5. 

    This type of error observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days.

    • A.

      Trend

    • B.

      Shift

    • C.

      Outliers

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Shift
    Explanation
    A shift is observed on a Levey-Jennings chart when control values consistently distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days. This indicates a systematic change in the process or measurement system, causing the control values to consistently deviate from the expected mean. This can be caused by factors such as instrument malfunction, changes in reagents or calibration, or operator error.

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  • 6. 

    This instrument uses monochromatic light.

    • A.

      Spectrophotometer

    • B.

      AAS

    • C.

      FEP

    • D.

      ISE

    Correct Answer
    A. Spectrophotometer
    Explanation
    A spectrophotometer is an instrument that measures the intensity of light at different wavelengths. It uses monochromatic light, which means it emits light of a single wavelength. This is important because it allows for accurate and precise measurements, as different substances absorb and transmit light differently at different wavelengths. By analyzing the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a sample, a spectrophotometer can provide information about the concentration or properties of the substance being analyzed.

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  • 7. 

    Light that is not within the visible spectrum.

    • A.

      UV

    • B.

      Red

    • C.

      Yellow

    • D.

      Violet

    Correct Answer
    A. UV
    Explanation
    UV light refers to ultraviolet light, which is a type of light that is not within the visible spectrum. While we can see colors like red, yellow, and violet, UV light is invisible to the human eye. UV light has a shorter wavelength than visible light and can cause damage to the skin and eyes if exposed for extended periods. It is commonly used in sterilization, tanning beds, and fluorescent lighting.

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  • 8. 

    The correct order of draw for the syringe method.

    • A.

      Red-Black-Lavender-Grey

    • B.

      Black-Red-Lavender-Grey

    • C.

      Grey-Lavender-Black-Red

    • D.

      Red-Lavender-Grey-Black

    Correct Answer
    B. Black-Red-Lavender-Grey
    Explanation
    The correct order of draw for the syringe method is Black-Red-Lavender-Grey. This order is important to ensure accurate and reliable test results. The black tube is used to collect blood samples for coagulation tests, followed by the red tube for serum or chemistry tests. The lavender tube is used for hematology tests, and finally, the grey tube is used for glucose tests. Following this order helps prevent cross-contamination and ensures the integrity of each sample.

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  • 9. 

    Principle of POCT of pregnancy.

    • A.

      ELISA

    • B.

      Immunochromatography

    • C.

      RIA

    • D.

      EMIT

    Correct Answer
    B. Immunochromatography
    Explanation
    Immunochromatography is the correct answer because it is a commonly used method for performing Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) for pregnancy. This technique involves the use of specific antibodies that can detect the presence of pregnancy hormones in a woman's urine or blood sample. Immunochromatography tests are easy to use, provide quick results, and do not require complex laboratory equipment. Therefore, it is a suitable method for conducting pregnancy tests in a point-of-care setting.

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  • 10. 

    In the hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma?

    • A.

      Conjugated bilirubin

    • B.

      Unconjugated bilirubin

    • C.

      Delta bilirubin

    • D.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    B. Unconjugated bilirubin
    Explanation
    In the hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), the form of bilirubin that is elevated in plasma is unconjugated bilirubin. HDN occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and fetus, leading to the breakdown of the fetus's red blood cells and an increase in bilirubin production. The liver of the newborn may not be mature enough to process all of this bilirubin, leading to an accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 24, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Don Felipe
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