3rd National Online Quiz Competition @ Law Corner
Format of Quiz
The quiz shall take place online & Multiple Choice Questions.
The quiz shall consist of 40 questions (MCQ) and the time is 10 minutes.
Syllabus
The quiz will cover a different aspect of the Indian Constitution, Constitutional History, Constitutional Amendments, Evolution of Constitution & important articles.
Competition:
April 25 , 2020 (from 7:00pm to 8:00 pm)
Results:
April 27, 2020
- 1.
Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
- A.
Legislation
- B.
Customs
- C.
Usage having no force of law
- D.
Ordinance
Correct Answer
A. LegislationExplanation
The definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India includes customs, usage having no force of law, and ordinances. However, legislation is not included in this definition. Legislation refers to the process of making or enacting laws by a legislative body, such as the Parliament or state legislatures. Therefore, it is not considered as part of the definition of law under Article 13.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law’?
- A.
Article 33
- B.
Article 34
- C.
Article 352
- D.
Article 353
Correct Answer
B. Article 34 -
- 3.
Which of the following case is not related to ‘Theory of basic structure’ under Article 368 of the Constitution?
- A.
Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
- B.
Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
- C.
L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
- D.
T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer
D. T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil NaduExplanation
The case of T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu is not related to the 'Theory of basic structure' under Article 368 of the Constitution. The Theory of basic structure refers to the principle that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed by the Parliament through its amending power. The other cases mentioned, Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India, Waman Rao Vs. Union of India, and L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India, are all related to the Theory of basic structure and have dealt with various aspects of constitutional amendments and their validity.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The provisions of 73rd Amendment are contained in
- A.
Tenth Schedule.
- B.
Eleventh Schedule.
- C.
Twelfth Schedule.
- D.
Thirteenth Schedule.
Correct Answer
B. Eleventh Schedule.Explanation
The provisions of the 73rd Amendment are contained in the Eleventh Schedule. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats, which were established as part of the amendment. It outlines the areas in which Panchayats have the authority to make decisions and implement policies, such as agriculture, health, education, and social justice. This schedule plays a crucial role in decentralizing power and ensuring local self-governance in rural areas of India.Rate this question:
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- 5.
‘Right to life’ under Article 21 does not include
- A.
Right to food.
- B.
Right to legal aid.
- C.
Right to vote
- D.
Right to livelihood.
Correct Answer
C. Right to voteExplanation
The right to life under Article 21 does not include the right to vote. While the right to life encompasses various aspects such as the right to live with dignity, personal liberty, and protection from arbitrary deprivation of life, it does not explicitly mention the right to vote. The right to vote is typically considered a political right and is governed by separate laws and regulations. Therefore, although the right to vote is an important democratic right, it is not inherently included in the right to life under Article 21.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution of India?
- A.
Art 352.... Effect of proclamation of Emergency
- B.
Art 353....Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues while a proclamation is in operation
- C.
Art 354.... Determination of executive powers of the Union, during emergency
- D.
Art 355.... Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance
Correct Answer
D. Art 355.... Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance -
- 7.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to constitutional amendment?
- A.
The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act ......1956.
- B.
The Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act....1962.
- C.
The Constitution (Thirty First Amendment) Act....1973.
- D.
The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act....1975.
Correct Answer
D. The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act....1975. -
- 8.
The member of the Constituent Assembly were
- A.
Directly elected by the people.
- B.
Nominated by the Indian National Congress.
- C.
Nominated by the rulers of the Indian States.
- D.
Elected by the Provincial Assemblies.
Correct Answer
D. Elected by the Provincial Assemblies.Explanation
The correct answer is "Elected by the Provincial Assemblies." The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Assemblies of British India. The Provincial Assemblies were elected by the people through indirect elections. The members of the Provincial Assemblies then chose the representatives to be a part of the Constituent Assembly. This process ensured a democratic representation of the people's interests at the national level.Rate this question:
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- 9.
At the time of Emergency, the Indian State becomes ……… from ………..
- A.
Federal, Unitary.
- B.
Unitary, Federal.
- C.
Unitary, Unitary.
- D.
Unitary, Quasi-federal.
Correct Answer
D. Unitary, Quasi-federal.Explanation
During the time of Emergency, the Indian State becomes "Unitary" in terms of the concentration of power in the hands of the central government. However, it is also considered "Quasi-federal" because although the central government gains more authority, the federal structure is not completely abolished. The states still exist and have some powers, but their autonomy is significantly reduced. This combination of characteristics makes the Indian State "Unitary, Quasi-federal" during the Emergency.Rate this question:
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- 10.
“A system of Government which is almost quasi-federal…a unitary State with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features”. Who said this?
- A.
Sir Jennings.
- B.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
- C.
Prof. K.C. Wheare.
- D.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Correct Answer
C. Prof. K.C. Wheare.Explanation
Prof. K.C. Wheare said that a system of Government which is almost quasi-federal is a unitary State with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In which year, Sikkim was associated in the Indian Union?
- A.
1947
- B.
1965
- C.
1975
- D.
1985
Correct Answer
C. 1975Explanation
In 1975, Sikkim was associated with the Indian Union. This means that Sikkim became a part of India and ceased to be an independent kingdom. Prior to 1975, Sikkim had a special status as a protectorate of India. However, in 1975, a referendum was held in Sikkim, in which the majority of the population voted in favor of merging with India. As a result, Sikkim became the 22nd state of India.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the two States, which are-
- A.
Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.
- B.
Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- C.
Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
- D.
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Correct Answer
A. Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.Explanation
The correct answer is Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh. The Panchayati Raj System, which is a decentralized form of government, was introduced in these two states. This system aims to involve local communities in decision-making processes and empower them to manage their own affairs. Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh were among the first states to implement this system, which has since been adopted by several other states in India.Rate this question:
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- 13.
‘Union with strong Centre’ is taken from:
- A.
Canada.
- B.
Australia.
- C.
Italy.
- D.
USA
Correct Answer
A. Canada.Explanation
The term "Union with strong Centre" refers to a political system where power is centralized in the federal government, giving it significant authority over the regional or provincial governments. This concept is commonly associated with Canada, as the country has a federal system with a strong central government. In Canada, the federal government holds authority over key areas such as defense, foreign affairs, and trade, while the provinces have jurisdiction over areas like education and healthcare. This system ensures a balance between centralization and regional autonomy, making Canada the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
- A.
Republic: Head of the State is hereditary monarch.
- B.
Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.
- C.
Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another country.
- D.
Secular: State is without any religion of its own.
Correct Answer
B. Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.Explanation
The correct answer is "Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people's will." This is because the term "sovereign" refers to a state or country that has supreme power or authority. In a sovereign state, the constitution is based on the will of the people, meaning that the people have the ultimate say in how the country is governed. The constitution is created and upheld by the people, and it serves as the foundation for the state's political and legal systems.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How many times has the Preamble of the Constitution of India been amended so far?
- A.
Once.
- B.
Twice.
- C.
Thrice.
- D.
Never.
Correct Answer
A. Once.Explanation
The Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended once. This means that there has been one amendment made to the introductory statement of the Indian Constitution since its inception.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes is governed by:
- A.
Article 15(1) of the Constitution.
- B.
Article 15(4) of the Constitution.
- C.
Article 16(4) of the Constitution.
- D.
Article 29(2) of the Constitution.
Correct Answer
B. Article 15(4) of the Constitution.Explanation
Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favor of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes is governed by Article 15(4) of the Constitution. This article allows for the reservation of seats for socially and educationally backward classes of citizens, including SCs and STs, in educational institutions. It aims to provide equal opportunities for these marginalized groups and promote their social and educational advancement. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Article 16(4) deals with reservation in public employment, while Article 29(2) safeguards the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
“Rule of carry forward is ultra vires” held in:
- A.
M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore.
- B.
State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas.
- C.
Akhil Bharitiya Socialist Karmchari v. UOI.
- D.
Devadasan v. UOI.
Correct Answer
D. Devadasan v. UOI.Explanation
The correct answer is Devadasan v. UOI. In this case, the Supreme Court held that the rule of carry forward, which allowed reservation benefits to be carried forward indefinitely, was ultra vires or beyond the powers of the government. The court ruled that reservation benefits should be limited to a certain period of time and should not be carried forward indefinitely. This decision had significant implications for the implementation and duration of reservation policies in India.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which Amendment of the Constitution envisages the provision for relaxation in qualifying marks for SCs and STs for reservation in promotions?
- A.
79th Amendment.
- B.
80th Amendment.
- C.
81st Amendment.
- D.
82nd Amendment.
Correct Answer
D. 82nd Amendment.Explanation
The 82nd Amendment of the Constitution is the correct answer because it introduced the provision for relaxation in qualifying marks for SCs and STs for reservation in promotions. This amendment aimed to provide equal opportunities to these marginalized communities and promote their representation in higher positions.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fundamental Rights are:
- A.
Negative rights.
- B.
Restrictive rights.
- C.
Limited rights.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
Fundamental rights refer to the basic rights and freedoms that every individual is entitled to. These rights are often seen as negative rights because they restrict the government from interfering in certain areas of a person's life. They are also considered restrictive rights because they limit the power of the government to infringe upon certain liberties. Additionally, fundamental rights are limited in the sense that they are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, morality, and the like. Therefore, the answer "All of the above" is correct as it encompasses the different aspects of fundamental rights.Rate this question:
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- 20.
“Hicklin test” under Article 19 related to
- A.
Decency and morality.
- B.
Defamation.
- C.
Integrity of India.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. Decency and morality.Explanation
The "Hicklin test" under Article 19 is related to the concept of decency and morality. This test, named after the case of Regina v. Hicklin, is used to determine whether a particular form of expression is obscene or not. It sets a standard where any material that tends to deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences is considered obscene and can be restricted. Therefore, the correct answer is decency and morality.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Law giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c) can override Article 14 and Article 19 vide Article 31(c) is brought through:
- A.
24th Amendment.
- B.
39th Amendment.
- C.
42nd Amendment.
- D.
44th Amendment.
Correct Answer
D. 44th Amendment.Explanation
The correct answer is the 44th Amendment. This amendment was brought to override Article 14 and Article 19 by incorporating Article 31(c) into the Constitution. Article 31(c) allows laws giving effect to the principles laid down in Article 39(b) and (c) to override the fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 14 and Article 19. Therefore, the 44th Amendment is the correct choice as it introduced this provision into the Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 22.
“No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of Law”. This is stated in:
- A.
Article 265.
- B.
Article 309.
- C.
Article 300-A.
- D.
Article 301.
Correct Answer
C. Article 300-A.Explanation
Article 300-A states that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. This means that a person's property cannot be taken away from them without a legal basis or justification. It ensures that individuals have the right to own and possess property, and any deprivation of property must be done in accordance with the law. This article protects individuals' property rights and prevents arbitrary confiscation or seizure of property.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The word ‘armed rebellion’ has been substituted in place of ‘internal disturbance’ under Article 352 by which Amendment?
- A.
39th Amendment.
- B.
42nd Amendment.
- C.
44th Amendment.
- D.
52nd Amendment.
Correct Answer
C. 44th Amendment.Explanation
The correct answer is 44th Amendment. This amendment substituted the term "armed rebellion" in place of "internal disturbance" under Article 352. This change was made to provide a more specific and clear definition of the circumstances under which the President can declare a state of emergency. The amendment aimed to prevent the misuse of emergency powers and protect the rights and freedoms of citizens.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The doctrine of ‘Prospective overruling’ was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in:
- A.
Golaknath v. State of Punjab.
- B.
Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan.
- C.
Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.
- D.
Shankari Prasad v. Union of India.
Correct Answer
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab.Explanation
The doctrine of 'Prospective overruling' was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in Golaknath v. State of Punjab.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which Amendment of the Constitution empowers the State Governments regarding unfilled reserved vacancies to be filled up in any succeeding year:
- A.
78th Amendment.
- B.
80th Amendment.
- C.
81st Amendment.
- D.
82nd Amendment.
Correct Answer
C. 81st Amendment.Explanation
The correct answer is the 81st Amendment. This amendment empowers state governments to fill up unfilled reserved vacancies in any succeeding year. This means that if reserved positions are not filled in a particular year, the state government has the authority to fill them in the following year. This amendment aims to ensure that reserved positions are not left vacant and that opportunities are provided to candidates from reserved categories.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the maximum period of State Emergency under Art. 356 of Indian Constitution -
- A.
3 Years.
- B.
4 Years.
- C.
5 Years.
- D.
6 Years.
Correct Answer
A. 3 Years.Explanation
The maximum period of State Emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is 3 years. This provision allows the President of India to impose emergency rule in a state if there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery. During a state emergency, the President can assume all the powers of the state government and the state legislative assembly can be dissolved or suspended. However, this emergency rule cannot continue for more than 3 years as per the Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 27.
President’s rule can be declared in a State under Article 356, and in the Centre under:
- A.
Article 352.
- B.
Article 354.
- C.
Article 355.
- D.
No Article.
Correct Answer
D. No Article.Explanation
The question asks for the provision under which President's rule can be declared in the Centre. However, none of the options provided (Article 352, Article 354, Article 355) are applicable for declaring President's rule in the Centre. Therefore, the correct answer is "No Article."Rate this question:
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- 28.
The famous Commission on Centre-State relation is:
- A.
Sarkaria Commission.
- B.
Fazil Ali Commission.
- C.
Gadgil Commission.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. Sarkaria Commission.Explanation
The correct answer is Sarkaria Commission. The Sarkaria Commission was a famous Commission on Centre-State relations in India. It was set up in 1983 to examine and suggest measures for improving the relationship between the Centre and the States. The Commission's recommendations were aimed at strengthening federalism, promoting cooperative federalism, and resolving disputes between the Centre and the States. The Commission's report, submitted in 1988, had a significant impact on the functioning of the federal system in India.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
- A.
Writ of Habeas Corpus: Available against private individual as well.
- B.
Writ of Quo-Warranto: Available against subordinate courts only.
- C.
Writ of Certiorari: Available against autonomous bodies only.
- D.
Writ of Prohibition: Available against public servants only.
Correct Answer
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus: Available against private individual as well.Explanation
The correct answer is Writ of Habeas Corpus: Available against private individual as well. The writ of habeas corpus is a legal action that allows individuals to seek relief from unlawful detention or imprisonment. It can be used against both private individuals and government authorities who are unlawfully holding someone in custody. This writ ensures that individuals have the right to challenge the legality of their detention and seek their release if it is found to be unlawful.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Any section of the citizen residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of his own shall have the right to conserve the same. This is provided in:
- A.
Article 29(1).
- B.
Article 29(2).
- C.
Article 30(1).
- D.
Article 30(2).
Correct Answer
A. Article 29(1).Explanation
Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution grants the right to conserve distinct languages, scripts, and cultures to any section of the citizen residing in the territory of India. This provision ensures that minority communities have the freedom to preserve and promote their unique identity and heritage. It recognizes the importance of cultural diversity and protects the rights of individuals to maintain their linguistic and cultural traditions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Indian Constitution reserved the residuary powers to
- A.
Union
- B.
States
- C.
Parliament
- D.
President
Correct Answer
A. UnionExplanation
The Indian Constitution reserves the residuary powers to the Union. This means that any powers or subjects that are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution as the responsibility of the States or Parliament are automatically vested with the Union government. These powers include matters of national importance and those that cannot be effectively dealt with by individual states. By reserving the residuary powers to the Union, the Constitution ensures a centralized authority and the ability to address issues that affect the entire country.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Dealing with the Chapter of Citizenship under the Constitution, the Supreme Court has held that Sonia Gandhi, the President of Congress (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen because she is governed by
- A.
Article 10.
- B.
Article 11.
- C.
The Citizenship Act, 1955.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
C. The Citizenship Act, 1955.Explanation
The correct answer is The Citizenship Act, 1955. This act governs the acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship. The Supreme Court held that Sonia Gandhi, despite being of Italian origin, is an Indian citizen because she acquired citizenship through the provisions of the Citizenship Act. This act outlines the conditions under which a person can become an Indian citizen, including by birth, descent, registration, or naturalization. Therefore, the Supreme Court's decision is based on the interpretation and application of the Citizenship Act, 1955.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The 42nd Amendment raised the term of the Lok Sabha to
- A.
Five years.
- B.
Six years.
- C.
Seven Years.
- D.
Nine years.
Correct Answer
B. Six years.Explanation
The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution increased the term of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, to six years. This amendment was passed in 1976 and aimed at ensuring stability and continuity in the functioning of the government. Prior to this amendment, the term of the Lok Sabha was five years. The increase in the term was seen as a way to provide more time for the government to implement its policies and programs without the frequent disruptions caused by early elections.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A person who is born to Indian parents on 01-01-1990 will be eligible for contesting for the membership of Legislative Assembly of his State in
- A.
2008.
- B.
2009.
- C.
2010.
- D.
2015.
Correct Answer
D. 2015.Explanation
The person born on 01-01-1990 will be eligible for contesting for the membership of Legislative Assembly of his State in 2015 because the minimum age requirement for contesting in the Legislative Assembly elections in India is 25 years. Since the person was born in 1990, they would turn 25 years old in 2015.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which one of the following is India’s innovation in the field of Parliamentary practices?
- A.
Guillotining the demands of Ministries.
- B.
Zero Hour.
- C.
Cut Motion.
- D.
Adjournment Motion.
Correct Answer
B. Zero Hour.Explanation
Zero Hour is India's innovation in the field of Parliamentary practices. It is an hour in the Parliament where Members of Parliament can raise important issues without any prior notice. This allows for immediate discussion and response from the government. It is called Zero Hour because it takes place at 12 noon when the Parliament is in session. This practice gives MPs the opportunity to bring urgent matters to the attention of the government and initiate discussions on them.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Under which of the following article review of judgements and orders is made by the Supreme Courts?
- A.
Article 32.
- B.
Article 129.
- C.
Article 136.
- D.
Article 137.
Correct Answer
D. Article 137.Explanation
Article 137 of the Indian Constitution states that the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment or order made by it. This means that if the Supreme Court feels that a judgment or order needs to be reconsidered, it has the authority to review and potentially change it. Therefore, Article 137 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the review of judgments and orders by the Supreme Court.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which is not a constitutional office?
- A.
Chief Election Commissioner.
- B.
State’s Advocate General.
- C.
State’s Chief Secretary.
- D.
State’s Chief Justice.
Correct Answer
C. State’s Chief Secretary.Explanation
The Chief Secretary is not a constitutional office because it is a bureaucratic position rather than a constitutional position. The Chief Secretary is the highest-ranking civil servant in a state government and is responsible for coordinating and implementing government policies and programs. While the Chief Secretary plays a crucial role in the functioning of the state government, their position is not established or defined by the constitution. In contrast, the Chief Election Commissioner, State's Advocate General, and State's Chief Justice are all constitutional offices with specific roles and responsibilities outlined in the constitution.Rate this question:
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- 38.
“Full faith and Credit” clause of the Constitution does not apply to
- A.
Public records.
- B.
Judicial proceedings.
- C.
Acts of corporations.
- D.
Public acts.
Correct Answer
C. Acts of corporations.Explanation
The "Full faith and Credit" clause of the Constitution requires states to recognize and respect the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states. However, this clause does not apply to acts of corporations. While public records, judicial proceedings, and public acts are covered by the clause, acts of corporations are not included in its scope. Therefore, the correct answer is acts of corporations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
National Development Council was established in the year of
- A.
1950.
- B.
1952.
- C.
1954.
- D.
1956.
Correct Answer
B. 1952.Explanation
The correct answer is 1952. The National Development Council was established in 1952 to serve as a platform for cooperative planning between the central and state governments in India. It was created to ensure effective and balanced development across various sectors and regions of the country. The council plays a crucial role in formulating and implementing national development policies and programs, thereby promoting economic growth and social progress in India.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Doctrine of ‘basic structure’ is a creation of
- A.
24th Amendment Act.
- B.
Parliament.
- C.
P.N. Bhagwati.
- D.
Judiciary.
Correct Answer
D. Judiciary.Explanation
The doctrine of 'basic structure' is a creation of the Judiciary. This doctrine was established by the Indian Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. According to this doctrine, certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament, as they form the basic structure and essence of the Constitution. The Judiciary, through its interpretation and application of the Constitution, has played a crucial role in upholding and protecting these fundamental principles.Rate this question:
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