1.
If you are setting up cargo and mail for loading, which function are you performing?
Correct Answer
B. Ramp Operations
Explanation
Ramp Operations involves various tasks related to the handling of cargo and mail during the loading and unloading process. This includes organizing and coordinating the movement of cargo and mail between the aircraft and the cargo facility, ensuring proper loading procedures are followed, and maintaining safety and security standards. Therefore, when setting up cargo and mail for loading, the function being performed is Ramp Operations.
2.
If you are part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?
Correct Answer
D. Packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage
Explanation
As part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, the duties would involve packaging, classifying, and arranging personal property for shipment or storage. This includes ensuring that items are properly packaged and labeled, categorizing them based on their destination or storage requirements, and arranging for their transportation or storage. This role focuses on the logistics and organization of personal property, rather than managing work centers, overseeing vehicle fleets, or supporting operational missions.
3.
If you are a part of the vehicle management specialty within the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?
Correct Answer
D. Managing inspection, diagnostics, repair, modification, and refinishing requirements
Explanation
If you are a part of the vehicle management specialty within the transportation career field, your duties would involve managing inspection, diagnostics, repair, modification, and refinishing requirements. This means that you would be responsible for overseeing the inspection of vehicles, diagnosing any issues or problems, carrying out necessary repairs, making modifications as needed, and ensuring that vehicles are refinished properly. This role would require expertise in vehicle maintenance and repair, as well as the ability to manage and coordinate these tasks efficiently.
4.
Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?
Correct Answer
B. Sustainment
Explanation
Sustainment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces. It involves the ongoing support and maintenance of forces in order to sustain their operational capabilities. This can include activities such as logistics, transportation, maintenance, and medical support. Sustainment ensures that deployed forces have the necessary resources and support to continue their operations effectively.
5.
Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment from deployed positions within or between areas of responsibility?
Correct Answer
D. Redeployment
Explanation
Redeployment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment from deployed positions within or between areas of responsibility. It involves the relocation of resources to different locations in order to meet changing operational needs. This can include the movement of troops and equipment back to their home bases after completing a mission or the transfer of resources to a different area of operations. Redeployment is an important aspect of military operations as it allows for the efficient use of resources and the ability to quickly adapt to changing circumstances.
6.
Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?
Correct Answer
C. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
Explanation
US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. USTRANSCOM coordinates and executes transportation operations for the Department of Defense, ensuring the efficient movement of personnel and cargo worldwide. It works with various transportation agencies and commands to fulfill the transportation needs of the military and support national security objectives.
7.
Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command
Correct Answer
C. Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).
Explanation
The correct answer is Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC). This is because the question asks for a command that is not a component of the US Transportation Command, and MTAC is not a component of the US Transportation Command.
8.
Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?
Correct Answer
C. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).
Explanation
The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and is responsible for planning, directing, scheduling, and tracking aircraft operations worldwide. It specifically focuses on coordinating and controlling the movements of tanker and airlift aircraft, ensuring efficient and effective air mobility support for military operations.
9.
Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the Defense Transportation System (DTS)?
Correct Answer
B. National Air Mobility System (NAMS).
Explanation
The correct answer is National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is used by the Air Force to provide rapid global mobility to the Defense Transportation System (DTS). It is responsible for coordinating and managing the transportation of personnel and equipment across the globe. NAMS ensures that the necessary resources and support are available to meet the mobility needs of the Air Force and other branches of the military.
10.
Which method of airlift permits delivery of larger loads with less risk?
Correct Answer
D. Airland.
Explanation
Airland is the correct answer because it refers to the method of airlift that allows for the delivery of larger loads with less risk. This method involves landing the aircraft on a suitable runway or landing zone, allowing for the safe unloading of cargo directly onto the ground. This eliminates the need for parachuting or dropping the cargo from the air, reducing the risk of damage or loss. Airland operations are typically used when large and heavy equipment or supplies need to be transported efficiently and safely.
11.
The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments’ logistics forces is called joint
Correct Answer
C. Logistics
Explanation
The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments' logistics forces is called logistics. This term refers to the planning, implementation, and coordination of the movement and maintenance of military resources, including personnel, equipment, and supplies. It involves activities such as transportation, storage, distribution, and maintenance. By effectively managing logistics, military forces can ensure that the right resources are in the right place at the right time, enabling successful operations and missions.
12.
Joint forces can be organized on which basis?
Correct Answer
A. GeograpHical or functional.
Explanation
Joint forces can be organized on the basis of geographical or functional factors. Geographical organization involves grouping forces based on their physical location or proximity, allowing for efficient coordination and response in specific regions. Functional organization, on the other hand, involves grouping forces based on their specialized roles or capabilities, such as air, land, or sea forces, to ensure effective utilization of resources and expertise. By organizing joint forces on either geographical or functional basis, military operations can be strategically planned and executed to achieve desired objectives.
13.
Which type of command requires the capabilities of two or more military departments?
Correct Answer
A. Unified
Explanation
A unified command is a type of command that requires the capabilities of two or more military departments. This type of command brings together different branches of the military, such as the Army, Navy, and Air Force, to work together towards a common objective. It allows for better coordination and integration of resources, expertise, and capabilities from multiple departments, leading to more effective and efficient military operations.
14.
Which type of organization is created to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and is dissolved when no longer needed?
Correct Answer
B. Joint task force
Explanation
A joint task force is a type of organization that is created to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives. It is formed by combining forces from different military services or agencies to work together towards a common goal. Once the mission is completed or the objectives are achieved, the joint task force is dissolved as it is no longer needed. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in military operations, as joint task forces can be formed and disbanded as required for specific missions or objectives.
15.
What is the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) designed to do?
Correct Answer
B. Augment DOD’s airlift capability in times of war or during a president-declared emergency.
Explanation
The Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) is designed to augment the Department of Defense's (DOD) airlift capability in times of war or during a president-declared emergency. This means that the CRAF provides additional aircraft and resources from commercial air carriers to support the DOD's transportation needs during these critical situations. By utilizing the CRAF, the DOD is able to enhance its airlift capacity and ensure the efficient movement of personnel and supplies when it is most needed.
16.
If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts and machinery?
Correct Answer
A. Secure them to minimize the hazard
17.
If you are controlling the rollers on the loading docks, what should you do before operating them?
Correct Answer
A. Check to make sure no one is on the docks.
Explanation
Before operating the rollers on the loading docks, it is important to check to make sure no one is on the docks. This is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals who may be in the vicinity of the rollers. Operating the rollers without checking for people on the docks could pose a risk of injury or accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a thorough check to ensure that the area is clear before proceeding with the operation of the rollers.
18.
If you accidentally damaged the Halvorsen loader by running into the concrete barriers on your way to load an aircraft, to whom should you report the damage and when?
Correct Answer
A. Your supervisor immediately.
Explanation
If you accidentally damaged the Halvorsen loader by running into the concrete barriers on your way to load an aircraft, you should report the damage to your supervisor immediately. This is because your supervisor needs to be informed as soon as possible so that appropriate actions can be taken to address the damage and ensure the loader is repaired or replaced. Delaying the report until the end of your shift or after finishing loading the aircraft may result in further complications and potential safety hazards. Reporting the damage to the aircraft loadmaster immediately upon arrival at the aircraft is also not the correct answer, as your supervisor is the appropriate person to handle such incidents.
19.
If you are entering the flight-line area in a vehicle, what must you do before entering?
Correct Answer
B. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.
Explanation
Before entering the flight-line area in a vehicle, it is necessary to stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check. This is important to ensure that no foreign objects or debris are present on the ground that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or other equipment. This precaution helps to maintain the safety and integrity of the flight-line area.
20.
If you are driving a special purpose vehicle within 25 feet of an aircraft, what is the maximum miles per hour you can drive?
Correct Answer
A. 5
Explanation
When driving a special purpose vehicle within 25 feet of an aircraft, the maximum speed allowed is 5 miles per hour. This is to ensure the safety of both the vehicle occupants and the aircraft. Driving at a slower speed reduces the risk of accidents or collisions and allows for better control and maneuverability in close proximity to the aircraft.
21.
If you need to leave your vehicle unattended on the flight line, other than leaving the keys in the ignition with the vehicle unlocked, which actions are required?
Correct Answer
A. Turn off the ignition; place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake, and chock the front and back of one rear wheel.
Explanation
When leaving a vehicle unattended on the flight line, it is important to take certain precautions to ensure its safety. Turning off the ignition prevents any accidental movement of the vehicle. Placing it in reverse or park, along with setting the parking brake, further ensures that it remains stationary. Chocking the front and back of one rear wheel adds an additional layer of security, preventing any potential rolling or movement of the vehicle. This combination of actions helps to minimize the risk of accidents or unauthorized use of the vehicle while it is unattended.
22.
If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should you do if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area?
Correct Answer
C. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead
Explanation
When stopped on the flight line at night with headlights on, it is important to turn the headlights off and turn on the emergency flashers instead when an aircraft is taxiing towards your area. This is because the headlights can blind the pilots and interfere with their vision, potentially causing accidents or confusion. By turning off the headlights and using the emergency flashers, you are making yourself more visible to the pilots while also avoiding any potential hazards.
23.
If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take?
Correct Answer
C. Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.
Explanation
If a pilot or driver is crossing an active runway and sees a steady red light signal, they should stop their vehicle immediately. This signal indicates that it is not safe to proceed and the vehicle should remain stationary until the signal changes. It is crucial to follow this instruction to ensure the safety of all aircraft and vehicles operating on the runway.
24.
If you are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light signal, what action should you take?
Correct Answer
D. General warning. Exercise extreme caution.
Explanation
When crossing an active runway and seeing a red and green light signal, the appropriate action to take is to exercise extreme caution. This signal indicates a general warning, alerting the driver to be careful and vigilant while crossing the runway. It is important to proceed with caution and be aware of any potential hazards or incoming aircraft.
25.
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
Correct Answer
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
Explanation
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, it is important to address any issues that may affect the ability to perform the mission. In this case, discovering that a piece of equipment is out of commission requires taking immediate action. The correct answer suggests finding out the cause of the problem, determining when it will be fixed, and notifying the chain of command. This ensures that the necessary steps can be taken to address the issue and make appropriate adjustments to the work assignments and priorities.
26.
Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift
Correct Answer
B. Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties.
Explanation
To prioritize work assignments, it is necessary to review the schedule to determine who is available to perform duties. This is because the schedule provides information about the availability of individuals for specific tasks or shifts. By checking the schedule, one can identify the personnel who are free and assign them tasks accordingly. Reviewing the shift logs or determining when the aircraft and trucks will arrive may provide useful information for other purposes, but they are not directly related to determining the availability of personnel for work assignments.
27.
When assigning personnel to work crews, which is not a consideration?
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day
Explanation
Assigning personnel to the same duties every day is not a consideration when assigning them to work crews. This implies that it is not necessary to assign individuals to the same tasks repeatedly and that flexibility in task allocation is preferred. The other options, such as knowing personnel and work center needs, communicating expectations, and considering safety and security, are all important considerations when assigning personnel to work crews.
28.
Once you have assigned people to various work crews, ensure they
Correct Answer
C. Know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member.
Explanation
This answer is correct because it emphasizes the importance of clear communication and expectations within the work crews. By knowing exactly who is filling which role and what is expected from each member, the person in charge can ensure that the work is distributed effectively and efficiently. This helps to prevent any confusion or overlap of tasks, allowing the crews to work smoothly and avoid wasting time. Additionally, clear expectations help to ensure that everyone understands their responsibilities and can work towards achieving the desired outcomes.
29.
Your supervisor referred you to the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) to look up information about joint inspection procedures. After locating the DTR through the AF Portal, in which part of the DTR do you look?
Correct Answer
C. Part III
Explanation
In the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR), Part III is the section that contains information about joint inspection procedures. This part of the DTR is likely to provide detailed guidelines and instructions on how joint inspections are conducted and what procedures should be followed. By referring to Part III, you can find the specific information you need regarding joint inspection procedures.
30.
A coworker wants help determining if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24−204(I).
Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24−204(I). This publication is likely to contain information and guidelines on hazardous cargo compatibility, making it the most appropriate source to consult when determining if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.
31.
A cargo user has received verified approval to ship equipment via contingency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift. In which chapter of Air Force Manual 24−204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you first look to find this information?
Correct Answer
C. 3
Explanation
Chapter 3 of Air Force Manual 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would be the first place to look for information on hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for contingency airlift.
32.
What important activity must you do before you operate a K-loader?
Correct Answer
B. Review the technical order (TO).
Explanation
Before operating a K-loader, it is important to review the technical order (TO). The technical order provides detailed instructions and information on how to properly operate and maintain the equipment. By reviewing the TO, the operator can ensure they have a clear understanding of the correct procedures and safety precautions to follow while operating the K-loader. This helps to prevent any potential accidents or damage to the equipment.
33.
You want to find out if the 36M2−3−45 technical order (TO) is still current. In which TO would you look?
Correct Answer
B. Air Force TO catalog
Explanation
To find out if the 36M2-3-45 technical order (TO) is still current, you would look in the Air Force TO catalog. This catalog specifically lists all the technical orders related to the Air Force, including the 36M2-3-45 TO. By referencing the catalog, you can determine if the TO is still valid and up to date.
34.
You are loading helicopters on a C−5B aircraft and want to look up specific loading procedures for those items. In which technical order (TO) would you look?
Correct Answer
A. 1C−5B−9.
Explanation
The correct answer is 1C-5B-9. This technical order is most likely to contain the specific loading procedures for helicopters on a C-5B aircraft. The other options, 1C-5B-5, 1C-17B-5, and 1C-17B-9, do not directly mention C-5B aircraft or loading procedures, making them less likely to have the required information.
35.
You are loading tanks on a C−17 aircraft and want to find specific loading procedures for these items. Which section of the 1C−17A−9 technical order (TO) would you refer to first?
Correct Answer
D. Section VI
Explanation
Section VI of the 1C-17A-9 technical order (TO) would be the first section to refer to for specific loading procedures for tanks on a C-17 aircraft.
36.
In the aircraft –9 series technical orders, the loading procedures in which section have precedence over instructions in section IV?
Correct Answer
D. Section VI
Explanation
In the aircraft -9 series technical orders, the loading procedures in Section VI have precedence over instructions in Section IV. This means that if there are any conflicting instructions or procedures between these two sections, the ones in Section VI should be followed.
37.
Which important part of the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is identified by a five-digit alphanumeric code and is simply a capability?
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code (UTC).
Explanation
The correct answer is Unit type code (UTC). The Unit type code is a five-digit alphanumeric code that is used to identify a specific type of military unit or capability. It is an important part of the time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) because it helps in determining the types and quantities of units needed for a deployment. The UTC provides information about the capabilities and resources of a unit, such as its size, equipment, and mission. By using the UTC, military planners can accurately assess the readiness and availability of units for deployment.
38.
War reserve material (WRM) is equipment and other resources, authorized for wartime to maximize war-fighting capability, that are positioned as
Correct Answer
C. Swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both
Explanation
War reserve material (WRM) is a combination of swing stock and starter stock. Swing stock refers to equipment and resources that are positioned to support the initial stages of a conflict or war, while starter stock refers to items that are positioned to sustain and support ongoing operations. By having a combination of both swing stock and starter stock, the military can ensure that they have the necessary resources to both initiate and sustain war-fighting capabilities during wartime.
39.
The benefit of pre-positioning war reserve material (WRM) is to
Correct Answer
A. Reduce the amount of time, resources, and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necessary locations during combat operations.
Explanation
Pre-positioning war reserve material (WRM) is beneficial because it helps to decrease the time, resources, and effort required to transport equipment to the required locations during combat operations. By having the necessary equipment already in place, military forces can quickly access and utilize the WRM stocks, enabling them to respond rapidly to any combat situation. This reduces the logistical burden and allows for more efficient and effective operations on the battlefield.
40.
War reserve material (WRM) is tasked through
Correct Answer
A. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and the time-pHased force and deployment data (TPFFD) procedures.
41.
Which 463L pallets and nets are designated as war reserve material (WRM)?
Correct Answer
B. Only 463L pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets.
Explanation
The correct answer states that only 463L pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets are designated as war reserve material (WRM). This means that not all 463L pallets and nets in the Air Force's inventory are designated as WRM. The answer implies that there are specific requirements and criteria for designating 463L pallets and nets as WRM, and only those that meet these requirements are considered as such.
42.
Which war reserve material (WRM) support falls under indirect support and should be limited?
Correct Answer
B. Joint and Air Force exercises
Explanation
Joint and Air Force exercises fall under indirect support and should be limited as war reserve material (WRM) support. These exercises are typically training and readiness activities rather than actual combat operations. Therefore, the allocation of WRM for these exercises should be restricted to ensure that sufficient resources are available for actual military combat operations and small-scale contingencies, which involve direct support and are more critical in nature.
43.
If you, as a cargo deployment function (CDF) representative, have directed the deploying unit to move from the alert holding area, to which area will they move?
Correct Answer
B. Call forward area.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Call forward area." As a cargo deployment function representative, if you have directed the deploying unit to move from the alert holding area, they will move to the call forward area. The call forward area is where units are organized and prepared for further movement and processing. It serves as a transition point between the alert holding area and the next stage of deployment.
44.
If you are performing a joint inspection (JI) in the cargo deployment function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working?
Correct Answer
B. Call forward area.
Explanation
When performing a joint inspection (JI) in the cargo deployment function (CDF), you would be working in the call forward area. This is the area where cargo is called forward for inspection and loading onto the aircraft.
45.
If you are directing aircraft loading and supervising load team members in the cargo deployment function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working? a. Marshalling area. b. Call forward area. c. Alert holding area. d. Ready line/loading ramp area.
Correct Answer
D. Ready line/loading ramp area.
Explanation
If you are directing aircraft loading and supervising load team members in the cargo deployment function (CDF), you would be working in the ready line/loading ramp area. This is the area where the aircraft is prepared for loading and where the loading ramp is located. It is the area where the cargo is loaded onto the aircraft before departure.
46.
If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which cargo deployment function (CDF) area of activity is it located?
Correct Answer
D. Ready line/loading ramp area.
Explanation
The ready line/loading ramp area is where the cargo is prepared for deployment and loaded onto the aircraft. Once the cargo is in this area, the deploying unit can no longer make changes to it. The marshalling area is where the cargo is organized and prepared for movement, but changes can still be made. The call forward area is where the cargo is called forward to be loaded onto the aircraft, but changes can still be made. The alert holding area is where the cargo is held in a state of readiness, but changes can still be made. Therefore, the correct answer is the ready line/loading ramp area.
47.
After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, copies of the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, are distributed to all of the following except the
Correct Answer
C. Installation deployment officer for review and approval.
Explanation
After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, copies of the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, are distributed to the mobility force inspector for inclusion in the station file and to the aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation. However, the deploying unit representative does not receive a copy. The installation deployment officer is responsible for reviewing and approving the DD Form 2133, but they do not receive a copy of it.
48.
Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sight-sensitivity, they must first receive approval from
Correct Answer
C. The service or major command having operational control of the aircraft.
Explanation
The correct answer is the service or major command having operational control of the aircraft. This means that before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection, they must first receive approval from the command that has control over the aircraft. This ensures that the proper authority is given for the exemption and helps maintain the security and safety of the cargo being transported.
49.
When completing the heading information on the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, what information will you enter in Block 6, START TIME?
Correct Answer
A. Local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started.
Explanation
Block 6, START TIME on the DD Form 2133 should be filled with the local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started. This information is important for record-keeping and ensuring accuracy in documenting the start time of the inspection. It helps in tracking the progress of the inspection and maintaining a chronological order of events. The scheduled start time or Greenwich Meantime (GMT) is not relevant in this context as it does not reflect the actual start time of the inspection.
50.
Before a vehicle is considered satisfactory during a joint inspection (JI), it cannot have any leaks coming from the
Correct Answer
B. Brake system.
Explanation
Before a vehicle is considered satisfactory during a joint inspection (JI), it cannot have any leaks coming from the brake system. This is because the brake system is a critical component for the safe operation of a vehicle. Any leaks in the brake system can lead to a loss of braking power, which can be extremely dangerous. Therefore, it is essential for the brake system to be leak-free in order to pass the inspection and ensure the vehicle's safety on the road.