Security Forces CDC Volume 2

1. What must be established at each incident site?

Cordon and entry control point (ECP)

Secondary ECP

Cordon and operational rally point

Evacuation point

At each incident site, it is important to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is necessary to secure the area and control access, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter. The cordon and ECP help maintain safety and prevent unauthorized individuals from interfering with the incident response or potentially causing harm.

Explanation

At each incident site, it is important to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is necessary to secure the area and control access, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter. The cordon and ECP help maintain safety and prevent unauthorized individuals from interfering with the incident response or potentially causing harm.

2. Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

Lob Nur Nuclear (LUN) site in China

Aldermaston Central Facility (ACF) in the United Kingdom

Semipalatinsk Nuclear (SN) site in the Soviet Union /Russia

Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA

The Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC) in the USA is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. It is located in New Mexico and is responsible for the maintenance and storage of a significant number of nuclear weapons. This facility plays a crucial role in the US nuclear weapons program and is known for its advanced security measures and strict protocols to ensure the safety and security of the stored weapons.

Explanation

The Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC) in the USA is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. It is located in New Mexico and is responsible for the maintenance and storage of a significant number of nuclear weapons. This facility plays a crucial role in the US nuclear weapons program and is known for its advanced security measures and strict protocols to ensure the safety and security of the stored weapons.

3. In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

Protect inherently dangerous property

Protect assets vital to national security

Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

In this situation, you would not be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is generally only authorized when there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. While protecting assets vital to national security and protecting others from imminent danger are valid reasons to use deadly force, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not necessarily pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm.

Explanation

In this situation, you would not be authorized to use deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is generally only authorized when there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. While protecting assets vital to national security and protecting others from imminent danger are valid reasons to use deadly force, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not necessarily pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm.

4. The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to

Educate personnel in those restricted areas

Escort personnel into those restricted areas

Exclude personnel into those restricted areas

Employee personnel for those restricted areas

The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

Explanation

The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

5. Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

Back of the neck

Wrist of the farthest hand

Ring or middle finger

Wrist of the nearest hand

In order to gain positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for better control and restraint of the subject's hand, making it more difficult for them to resist or escape. By firmly holding onto the ring or middle finger, the subject's hand can be effectively immobilized, enabling the safe and secure application of handcuffs.

Explanation

In order to gain positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for better control and restraint of the subject's hand, making it more difficult for them to resist or escape. By firmly holding onto the ring or middle finger, the subject's hand can be effectively immobilized, enabling the safe and secure application of handcuffs.

6. Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

Neglect

Sexual

Mental

Physical

Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of a child for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm. It is important to recognize and address sexual child abuse to protect the well-being and safety of children.

Explanation

Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of a child for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm. It is important to recognize and address sexual child abuse to protect the well-being and safety of children.

7. What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment , deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing?

Neglect

Sexual

Mental

Physical

Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as nourishment, necessities, shelter, and clothing. This type of child abuse involves a lack of attention and care, leading to the child's physical, emotional, and developmental harm. Neglect can have long-lasting effects on a child's well-being and is considered a form of child abuse.

Explanation

Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide for a child's basic needs, such as nourishment, necessities, shelter, and clothing. This type of child abuse involves a lack of attention and care, leading to the child's physical, emotional, and developmental harm. Neglect can have long-lasting effects on a child's well-being and is considered a form of child abuse.

8. What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

Simple

Partial

Complete

Plainview

A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle, which may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is conducted to ensure a comprehensive inspection and to gather detailed evidence or information. It is likely to be more time-consuming and extensive compared to simple or partial searches, as it involves a meticulous examination of all components and areas of the vehicle.

Explanation

A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle, which may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is conducted to ensure a comprehensive inspection and to gather detailed evidence or information. It is likely to be more time-consuming and extensive compared to simple or partial searches, as it involves a meticulous examination of all components and areas of the vehicle.

9. It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

In a military court only

In a civilian court only

In both a civilian and military court

To the defense force commander

Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained using these devices is admissible in court. This is applicable in both civilian and military courts, indicating that the certification holds value and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings in both contexts.

Explanation

Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained using these devices is admissible in court. This is applicable in both civilian and military courts, indicating that the certification holds value and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings in both contexts.

10. What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?

Continue the search since the suspect has already agreed to it

Keep searching because the 5th amendment does not allow suspect to withdraw consent

Get authorization from the flight chief to continue

Terminate the search immediately

If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct action to take is to terminate the search immediately. This is because once consent is withdrawn, the search is no longer authorized and continuing the search would be a violation of the individual's rights.

Explanation

If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct action to take is to terminate the search immediately. This is because once consent is withdrawn, the search is no longer authorized and continuing the search would be a violation of the individual's rights.

11. A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime

A government vehicle is involved

More than two vehicles are involved

An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander

A security forces member who has completed the traffic management and collision investigation course conducts a minor traffic investigation

A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident when it involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander. This means that if any of these conditions are met, the accident is considered major regardless of the involvement of a government vehicle, the number of vehicles involved, or the person conducting the investigation.

Explanation

A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident when it involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander. This means that if any of these conditions are met, the accident is considered major regardless of the involvement of a government vehicle, the number of vehicles involved, or the person conducting the investigation.

12. What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

T-position

Shrimping

Comb blocks

Standup base

Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the forearms and hands to cover and shield the head, creating a protective barrier against incoming strikes. By positioning the arms in a comb-like formation, the fighter can effectively block and deflect punches or strikes aimed at the head, minimizing the risk of injury. This technique is commonly used in various martial arts and self-defense systems to ensure the safety of the practitioner during combat situations.

Explanation

Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the forearms and hands to cover and shield the head, creating a protective barrier against incoming strikes. By positioning the arms in a comb-like formation, the fighter can effectively block and deflect punches or strikes aimed at the head, minimizing the risk of injury. This technique is commonly used in various martial arts and self-defense systems to ensure the safety of the practitioner during combat situations.

13. To ensure the safety of the patrol office and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

Advise the suspect of rights

Handcuff the suspects hands in the front

Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

Have a second sf member ride in the back with the suspect

Before placing a suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and others involved. By conducting a thorough search or frisk, any potential weapons or illegal items can be identified and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape during transportation. This step is crucial for legal precautions as well, as it helps to prevent the suspect from carrying any prohibited items that could be used to harm themselves or others.

Explanation

Before placing a suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and others involved. By conducting a thorough search or frisk, any potential weapons or illegal items can be identified and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape during transportation. This step is crucial for legal precautions as well, as it helps to prevent the suspect from carrying any prohibited items that could be used to harm themselves or others.

14. Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

To secure an unlocked door

To prevent injury to persons

To render aid to someone in danger

To prevent serious damage to property

Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. This is because securing an unlocked door does not necessarily require making an entry without search authority. It can be done by simply locking the door or notifying the appropriate authorities to address the issue.

Explanation

Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. This is because securing an unlocked door does not necessarily require making an entry without search authority. It can be done by simply locking the door or notifying the appropriate authorities to address the issue.

15. What type of force is required at all installation supporting protection level (PL) 1,2, or 3 resources?

Security patrols

Fire teams (FT)

Alarm fire team (AFT)

Security response team (SRT)

The correct answer is Security response team (SRT). At all installation supporting protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources, a security response team is required. This team is responsible for responding to security incidents and ensuring the safety and protection of the resources. They are trained to handle emergency situations, conduct investigations, and provide immediate response to any security threats. Their presence and quick response are crucial in maintaining the security and integrity of the installation and its resources.

Explanation

The correct answer is Security response team (SRT). At all installation supporting protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources, a security response team is required. This team is responsible for responding to security incidents and ensuring the safety and protection of the resources. They are trained to handle emergency situations, conduct investigations, and provide immediate response to any security threats. Their presence and quick response are crucial in maintaining the security and integrity of the installation and its resources.

16. What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

Have a family member or friend ride in the from seat

Notify base defense operations center (BDOC) of ending mileage

Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transportation.

Explanation

When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transportation.

17. In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and

Vandals

Terrorists

Psychotics

Trespassers

In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and terrorists. While criminals may aim to steal or smuggle nuclear materials for financial gain, protestors may seek to raise awareness about the dangers of nuclear power. However, terrorists pose the highest threat as they may intend to use nuclear materials as weapons or target nuclear facilities to cause widespread destruction and loss of life. Their motives can vary, ranging from political, ideological, or religious reasons. Therefore, terrorists are considered a significant concern in nuclear security.

Explanation

In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and terrorists. While criminals may aim to steal or smuggle nuclear materials for financial gain, protestors may seek to raise awareness about the dangers of nuclear power. However, terrorists pose the highest threat as they may intend to use nuclear materials as weapons or target nuclear facilities to cause widespread destruction and loss of life. Their motives can vary, ranging from political, ideological, or religious reasons. Therefore, terrorists are considered a significant concern in nuclear security.

18. In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

Selfishness

Higher awareness

Insecurity and isolation

Tentativeness and hesitation

When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is natural for them to feel insecure and isolated. This fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force, as they may be unsure of the consequences or the appropriate course of action. This hesitation can stem from a desire to avoid harm to themselves or others, leading to a cautious and uncertain approach.

Explanation

When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is natural for them to feel insecure and isolated. This fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force, as they may be unsure of the consequences or the appropriate course of action. This hesitation can stem from a desire to avoid harm to themselves or others, leading to a cautious and uncertain approach.

19. When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be based on an assessment of the situation and whether it is reasonable and necessary in the given circumstances. This ensures that the use of force, whether lethal or non-lethal, is held to the same standard of reasonableness and proportionality.

Explanation

Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be based on an assessment of the situation and whether it is reasonable and necessary in the given circumstances. This ensures that the use of force, whether lethal or non-lethal, is held to the same standard of reasonableness and proportionality.

20. How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

By grabbing your weapon with your weapon side (WS) hand

By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand

By rolling onto support side (SS) , keeping holstered weapon away from suspect

By rolling onto your weapons side (WS) , keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

When attaining weapons retention during a rear mount, the correct technique is to roll onto your weapons side (WS) while keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or taken by the suspect. Rolling onto the WS allows for better control and protection of the weapon, ensuring its retention during the encounter.

Explanation

When attaining weapons retention during a rear mount, the correct technique is to roll onto your weapons side (WS) while keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or taken by the suspect. Rolling onto the WS allows for better control and protection of the weapon, ensuring its retention during the encounter.

21. What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into?

Cone

Circle

Rectangle

Straight line

The radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR is concentrated into a cone shape. This is because RADAR systems emit radio waves in a specific direction, and as the waves travel away from the source, they spread out in a cone-like pattern. This allows the RADAR to cover a wider area and detect objects within that cone-shaped region.

Explanation

The radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR is concentrated into a cone shape. This is because RADAR systems emit radio waves in a specific direction, and as the waves travel away from the source, they spread out in a cone-like pattern. This allows the RADAR to cover a wider area and detect objects within that cone-shaped region.

22. What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

Wall

Prone

Kneeling

Standing

Standing is the correct answer because it is the type of search primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or too intoxicated to stand on their own. When a suspect is cooperative and does not pose an immediate threat, a standing search is conducted to ensure their safety and the safety of the officers involved. This type of search allows for a less invasive approach while still maintaining control over the situation.

Explanation

Standing is the correct answer because it is the type of search primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or too intoxicated to stand on their own. When a suspect is cooperative and does not pose an immediate threat, a standing search is conducted to ensure their safety and the safety of the officers involved. This type of search allows for a less invasive approach while still maintaining control over the situation.

23. When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

Complete and simple

Systematic and simple

Complete and thorough

Systematic and thorough

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic ensures that the search is organized and follows a logical process, which helps in covering all relevant areas and gathering all necessary information. Being thorough means not leaving any stone unturned and conducting a comprehensive search, considering all possible sources and avenues for information. This approach ensures that no crucial details or evidence are missed and increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable results.

Explanation

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic ensures that the search is organized and follows a logical process, which helps in covering all relevant areas and gathering all necessary information. Being thorough means not leaving any stone unturned and conducting a comprehensive search, considering all possible sources and avenues for information. This approach ensures that no crucial details or evidence are missed and increases the chances of obtaining accurate and reliable results.

24. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

As close as you can get to the accident scene

So it controls the traffic flow around the accident

Away from the scene to prevent damage by debris

To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard

When positioning your vehicle at the scene of an accident, it is important to prioritize the safety of the scene and injured persons while also avoiding the creation of a traffic hazard. By positioning your vehicle in a way that protects the accident scene and injured individuals, you can help prevent further harm or damage. This may involve parking at a safe distance from the scene to prevent damage from debris or controlling the traffic flow around the accident to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

Explanation

When positioning your vehicle at the scene of an accident, it is important to prioritize the safety of the scene and injured persons while also avoiding the creation of a traffic hazard. By positioning your vehicle in a way that protects the accident scene and injured individuals, you can help prevent further harm or damage. This may involve parking at a safe distance from the scene to prevent damage from debris or controlling the traffic flow around the accident to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

25. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?

Article 92

Article 108

Article 112a

Article 123a

Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the illegal possession, use, distribution, or introduction of a controlled substance into the body. It establishes the rules and regulations regarding the punishment for such offenses within the military justice system.

Explanation

Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the illegal possession, use, distribution, or introduction of a controlled substance into the body. It establishes the rules and regulations regarding the punishment for such offenses within the military justice system.

26. Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

Line

Wedge

Circular

Diamond

A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangle shape, with the tip of the triangle leading the way. The narrow end of the wedge is used to push through the crowd, creating a gap and forcing the crowd to split into smaller groups. This formation allows for better control and dispersal of the crowd, making it an effective strategy in riot control situations.

Explanation

A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangle shape, with the tip of the triangle leading the way. The narrow end of the wedge is used to push through the crowd, creating a gap and forcing the crowd to split into smaller groups. This formation allows for better control and dispersal of the crowd, making it an effective strategy in riot control situations.

27. Conscious verbal communication occurs when

Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

Words occur naturally during a conversation

The communicator reads it directly from a form

The communicator is in a hurry

In conscious verbal communication, words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This implies that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and selecting them deliberately. This level of consideration suggests that the communicator is mindful of the impact their words may have on the listener and is attempting to convey their message effectively. It also implies that the communicator is taking the time to think about their response and craft it in a thoughtful manner. Overall, conscious verbal communication involves intentional and careful selection of words to facilitate effective communication.

Explanation

In conscious verbal communication, words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This implies that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and selecting them deliberately. This level of consideration suggests that the communicator is mindful of the impact their words may have on the listener and is attempting to convey their message effectively. It also implies that the communicator is taking the time to think about their response and craft it in a thoughtful manner. Overall, conscious verbal communication involves intentional and careful selection of words to facilitate effective communication.

28. When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand

Next to your vehicle

In the center of the road

Off to the side of the road

In the center of the intersection

When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of the traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road may obstruct the view for drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic.

Explanation

When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of the traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road may obstruct the view for drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic.

29. What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

See first and act first

First in and fit to fight

Defense of others and operationally fortified

Self-defense and mission accomplishment

The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow military personnel to use force to protect themselves or their unit from imminent threat or harm. Mission accomplishment refers to the rules that outline the actions and tactics necessary to achieve the objectives of the mission. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel prioritize their own safety while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned mission.

Explanation

The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow military personnel to use force to protect themselves or their unit from imminent threat or harm. Mission accomplishment refers to the rules that outline the actions and tactics necessary to achieve the objectives of the mission. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel prioritize their own safety while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned mission.

30. Only personnel certified through what program or the host-nation equivalent at a weapons storage and security systems (WS3) installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas?

Nuclear weapons personnel escort program (PEP)

Nuclear weapons personnel protection program (PPP)

Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP)

Nuclear weapons personnel certification program (PCP)

The Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP) is the correct answer because it is a program that certifies personnel to have the necessary reliability and trustworthiness to handle and be in close proximity to nuclear weapons. This program ensures that only individuals who meet strict criteria and have undergone thorough background checks and evaluations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or perform escort duties within these areas. The PRP is specifically designed to maintain the security and integrity of nuclear weapons installations.

Explanation

The Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program (PRP) is the correct answer because it is a program that certifies personnel to have the necessary reliability and trustworthiness to handle and be in close proximity to nuclear weapons. This program ensures that only individuals who meet strict criteria and have undergone thorough background checks and evaluations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or perform escort duties within these areas. The PRP is specifically designed to maintain the security and integrity of nuclear weapons installations.

31. When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

Before it has been fully processed for evidence

After it has been fully processed for evidence

After the coroner pronounces them dead

After the body has bee photographed

In order to ensure the preservation and integrity of potential evidence, it is necessary to cover the body of a deceased person after it has been fully processed. This prevents any contamination or tampering with the evidence that may occur during the processing of the crime scene. Covering the body after it has been fully processed allows investigators to thoroughly collect all necessary evidence before taking steps to protect and preserve the body.

Explanation

In order to ensure the preservation and integrity of potential evidence, it is necessary to cover the body of a deceased person after it has been fully processed. This prevents any contamination or tampering with the evidence that may occur during the processing of the crime scene. Covering the body after it has been fully processed allows investigators to thoroughly collect all necessary evidence before taking steps to protect and preserve the body.

32. DD Form 1408 , Armed Forces traffic Ticket is issued to someone who

Causes and accident on-base and is a non-military member

Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident

Causes an accident on-base and is a military member

Commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense

The correct answer is "commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense." The DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who has committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a non-moving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). This form is used to document the offense and initiate any necessary legal proceedings or administrative actions. It is not specific to accidents or the military status of the individual involved.

Explanation

The correct answer is "commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense." The DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who has committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a non-moving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). This form is used to document the offense and initiate any necessary legal proceedings or administrative actions. It is not specific to accidents or the military status of the individual involved.

33. How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

One

Two

Three

Four

The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

Explanation

The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

34. What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

Casual

Sighting

Agitated

Mob-like

Casual crowd refers to a group of individuals or small groups who do not share any common interests or connections. They come together by chance or coincidence and do not have a specific purpose or goal. This type of crowd is characterized by its lack of organization and unity, as the individuals or small groups within it have no binding factors.

Explanation

Casual crowd refers to a group of individuals or small groups who do not share any common interests or connections. They come together by chance or coincidence and do not have a specific purpose or goal. This type of crowd is characterized by its lack of organization and unity, as the individuals or small groups within it have no binding factors.

35. What does "code three" indicate when security forces personnel are making an emergency response?

No emergency lights

Use of emergency lights only

Use of emergency lights and siren

Use of emergency lights, siren, and public address system

"Code three" indicates the use of emergency lights and siren when security forces personnel are making an emergency response. This means that they will activate both the emergency lights and the siren to alert other drivers and pedestrians and to clear the way for their emergency vehicle. The use of the siren helps to quickly and effectively communicate the urgency of the situation, while the emergency lights provide visual warning to others on the road. The combination of both the lights and siren ensures that the emergency vehicle can navigate through traffic safely and efficiently.

Explanation

"Code three" indicates the use of emergency lights and siren when security forces personnel are making an emergency response. This means that they will activate both the emergency lights and the siren to alert other drivers and pedestrians and to clear the way for their emergency vehicle. The use of the siren helps to quickly and effectively communicate the urgency of the situation, while the emergency lights provide visual warning to others on the road. The combination of both the lights and siren ensures that the emergency vehicle can navigate through traffic safely and efficiently.

36. When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

To show inability to take full responsibility for actions

Without legal justification or authorization

With full medical justification and authorization

With legal authorization and personal justification

Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as an action done without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity involving controlled substances, such as possessing, distributing, or using them, without the proper legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the person involved is acting in violation of the law and without the necessary legal backing for their actions.

Explanation

Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as an action done without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity involving controlled substances, such as possessing, distributing, or using them, without the proper legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the person involved is acting in violation of the law and without the necessary legal backing for their actions.

37. What is conducted during a domestic dispute / violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

Rights Advisement

Complete Search

Interrogation

Interview

During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the involved parties to gather information about the situation, understand the level of threat, and evaluate the potential risk to individuals involved. The interview helps law enforcement officers gather evidence, assess the severity of the situation, and make informed decisions regarding the safety and well-being of the family members involved.

Explanation

During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the involved parties to gather information about the situation, understand the level of threat, and evaluate the potential risk to individuals involved. The interview helps law enforcement officers gather evidence, assess the severity of the situation, and make informed decisions regarding the safety and well-being of the family members involved.

38. What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets

Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets

The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that if US forces are under threat or attack, they are allowed to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit. This allows them to respond to any identified enemy targets that pose a threat without requiring specific authorization before firing.

Explanation

The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that if US forces are under threat or attack, they are allowed to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit. This allows them to respond to any identified enemy targets that pose a threat without requiring specific authorization before firing.

39. What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

Annual refresher

Quarterly refresher

Initial and annual refresher

Initial and semiannual refresher

If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basic techniques and safety measures associated with using an expandable baton. Additionally, since it is a weapon, it is important to have annual refresher training to ensure that you are up to date with any changes in techniques or regulations, as well as to maintain proficiency in using the baton safely and effectively.

Explanation

If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basic techniques and safety measures associated with using an expandable baton. Additionally, since it is a weapon, it is important to have annual refresher training to ensure that you are up to date with any changes in techniques or regulations, as well as to maintain proficiency in using the baton safely and effectively.

40. What must a sf on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

How to employ different types of searching techniques

Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area

Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available

Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs

Before making a decision on how to search an area, a SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search. The situation will provide information about the urgency and potential risks involved, while the terrain will affect the mobility and visibility of the search team. Weather and light conditions will impact visibility and safety, and the number of available searches will determine the resources and manpower that can be allocated to the search operation.

Explanation

Before making a decision on how to search an area, a SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searches available. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search. The situation will provide information about the urgency and potential risks involved, while the terrain will affect the mobility and visibility of the search team. Weather and light conditions will impact visibility and safety, and the number of available searches will determine the resources and manpower that can be allocated to the search operation.

41. Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

Neglect

Sexual abuse

Mental abuse

Physical abuse

Mental abuse refers to emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, which can include constant criticism, humiliation, or rejection. Neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse are the other three types of child abuse. Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child's basic needs, such as food, shelter, or medical care. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity imposed on a child, while physical abuse refers to the intentional use of physical force that causes harm to a child.

Explanation

Mental abuse refers to emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, which can include constant criticism, humiliation, or rejection. Neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse are the other three types of child abuse. Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child's basic needs, such as food, shelter, or medical care. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity imposed on a child, while physical abuse refers to the intentional use of physical force that causes harm to a child.

42. How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you

Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET" and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD

Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSSS YOUR FEET.

The correct answer is commanding the suspect to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position is commonly known as the "final challenge position" and is used to ensure the suspect is in a vulnerable and controlled position, making it easier for the authorities to approach and detain them safely.

Explanation

The correct answer is commanding the suspect to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position is commonly known as the "final challenge position" and is used to ensure the suspect is in a vulnerable and controlled position, making it easier for the authorities to approach and detain them safely.

43. What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket , is given to the violator or affixed to the violators vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?

Red

Pink

White

Yellow

The copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket, that is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended is pink.

Explanation

The copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket, that is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended is pink.

44. What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

Aggrevated assault

Simple assault

Assault

Battery

Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant intends to do more than just frighten the victim, typically involving the use of a weapon or causing serious bodily harm. Unlike simple assault, which is generally considered a misdemeanor, aggravated assault involves more severe actions and carries harsher penalties. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching that occurs as a result of an assault.

Explanation

Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant intends to do more than just frighten the victim, typically involving the use of a weapon or causing serious bodily harm. Unlike simple assault, which is generally considered a misdemeanor, aggravated assault involves more severe actions and carries harsher penalties. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching that occurs as a result of an assault.

45. What type of nuclear inspection assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives?

No-/minimal-notice inspections

Nuclear surety inspection (NSI)

Initial nuclear surety inspection (INSI)

Nuclear weapons technical inspections (NWTI)

A nuclear surety inspection (NSI) is a type of nuclear inspection that assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons. It also evaluates if the unit operates in a safe and secure environment and complies with applicable directives. This inspection ensures that the unit follows all necessary protocols and procedures to maintain the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

Explanation

A nuclear surety inspection (NSI) is a type of nuclear inspection that assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons. It also evaluates if the unit operates in a safe and secure environment and complies with applicable directives. This inspection ensures that the unit follows all necessary protocols and procedures to maintain the safety and security of nuclear weapons.

46. What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it,

It is dispose of the form because it is not required to be maintained

It is maintained at he entry control point

It is filed at pass registration

It is given to the individual

Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This suggests that the individual is responsible for keeping the original copy of the form.

Explanation

Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This suggests that the individual is responsible for keeping the original copy of the form.

47. Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects

Of the implied consent policy

Of their right to speak to a lawyer

That drivers cannot refuse a breath test

That their test results cannot be used against them

Before using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is necessary to inform the suspects about the implied consent policy. This policy implies that by operating a vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to submit to a breath test or other chemical tests to determine their level of intoxication. Therefore, advising the suspects of the implied consent policy is crucial as it ensures they are aware of their legal obligation to comply with the test.

Explanation

Before using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is necessary to inform the suspects about the implied consent policy. This policy implies that by operating a vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to submit to a breath test or other chemical tests to determine their level of intoxication. Therefore, advising the suspects of the implied consent policy is crucial as it ensures they are aware of their legal obligation to comply with the test.

48. What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified?

After action report

After execution report

Plaining objective report

Teaching objective reports

The primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified is through an after action report. This report is typically prepared after an event, project, or exercise and provides a detailed analysis of what occurred, including strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. It helps to identify lessons learned and provides valuable insights for future planning and decision-making.

Explanation

The primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified is through an after action report. This report is typically prepared after an event, project, or exercise and provides a detailed analysis of what occurred, including strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. It helps to identify lessons learned and provides valuable insights for future planning and decision-making.

49. How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

Flat markers

Lights and cones

Elevated markers

Posted SF personnel

Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers can clearly identify the boundaries and avoid entering these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, lights and cones may not be as durable or effective in all weather conditions, and relying solely on posted SF personnel may not be practical or feasible in all situations. Therefore, elevated markers are the most suitable option for clearly marking the boundaries of these areas.

Explanation

Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers can clearly identify the boundaries and avoid entering these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, lights and cones may not be as durable or effective in all weather conditions, and relying solely on posted SF personnel may not be practical or feasible in all situations. Therefore, elevated markers are the most suitable option for clearly marking the boundaries of these areas.

50. Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?

24 inches

16 inches

8 inches

4 inches

Vegetation in clear zones inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities is limited to a maximum height of 8 inches. This restriction is likely in place to ensure that the vegetation does not obstruct visibility or interfere with the security and safety of the facility. By keeping the vegetation at a low height, it becomes easier to monitor the area and detect any potential threats or unauthorized access. Additionally, maintaining shorter vegetation helps to prevent the accumulation of debris and reduces the risk of fire hazards.

Explanation

Vegetation in clear zones inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities is limited to a maximum height of 8 inches. This restriction is likely in place to ensure that the vegetation does not obstruct visibility or interfere with the security and safety of the facility. By keeping the vegetation at a low height, it becomes easier to monitor the area and detect any potential threats or unauthorized access. Additionally, maintaining shorter vegetation helps to prevent the accumulation of debris and reduces the risk of fire hazards.

51. You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial / Post-trial Prisoner or detained person, when

A first sergeant is releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended

Security forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended

Civil law enforcement is releasing a military individual who has been detained or apprehended

Federal law enforcement personnel are releasing a military individual who has been detained or apprehended

The correct answer is security forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended. This is because the DD Form 2708 is used specifically for documenting the release of a prisoner or detained person by security forces personnel. It is not used for releases by first sergeants, civil law enforcement, or federal law enforcement personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is security forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended. This is because the DD Form 2708 is used specifically for documenting the release of a prisoner or detained person by security forces personnel. It is not used for releases by first sergeants, civil law enforcement, or federal law enforcement personnel.

52. What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

AF Form 1109

AF Form 1297

AF Form 1920

AF Form 3545

The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form within the Air Force that ensures consistent and accurate recording of apprehensions. By completing this form, all relevant information regarding the apprehension can be documented and properly processed.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form within the Air Force that ensures consistent and accurate recording of apprehensions. By completing this form, all relevant information regarding the apprehension can be documented and properly processed.

53. Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and

Issue citations

Conduct speed studies

Train new security forces members

Comply with the installation commander's orders

Speed measuring devices are used to conduct speed studies. These studies involve collecting data on vehicle speeds in order to analyze and evaluate the speed patterns on a particular road or area. By conducting speed studies, authorities can determine if the speed limits are appropriate, identify areas with high-speed violations, and make informed decisions regarding traffic control measures. It helps in improving road safety and implementing effective traffic management strategies.

Explanation

Speed measuring devices are used to conduct speed studies. These studies involve collecting data on vehicle speeds in order to analyze and evaluate the speed patterns on a particular road or area. By conducting speed studies, authorities can determine if the speed limits are appropriate, identify areas with high-speed violations, and make informed decisions regarding traffic control measures. It helps in improving road safety and implementing effective traffic management strategies.

54. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?

50 feet

75 feet

100 feet

125 feet

The restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible and provide adequate warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Placing the signs too close together may cause confusion, while spacing them too far apart may not effectively communicate the restricted area boundaries. Therefore, a distance of 100 feet strikes a balance between visibility and effectiveness.

Explanation

The restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible and provide adequate warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Placing the signs too close together may cause confusion, while spacing them too far apart may not effectively communicate the restricted area boundaries. Therefore, a distance of 100 feet strikes a balance between visibility and effectiveness.

55. At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?

Tactical

Financial

Operational

Administrative

The nuclear roadmap primarily focuses on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it is concerned with the day-to-day activities and processes involved in carrying out the nuclear mission. This includes tasks such as planning, coordinating, and executing operations related to nuclear activities. The operational level is crucial in ensuring the effective and efficient management of the nuclear mission, as it involves implementing strategies and making decisions that directly impact the mission's success.

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap primarily focuses on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it is concerned with the day-to-day activities and processes involved in carrying out the nuclear mission. This includes tasks such as planning, coordinating, and executing operations related to nuclear activities. The operational level is crucial in ensuring the effective and efficient management of the nuclear mission, as it involves implementing strategies and making decisions that directly impact the mission's success.

56. What agency has a primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

Family Advocacy Office (FAO)

Federal Bureau Of Investigations (FBI)

Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations and providing counterintelligence services for the United States Air Force. In cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm, AFOSI would take the lead in investigating and prosecuting the offenders.

Explanation

The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations and providing counterintelligence services for the United States Air Force. In cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm, AFOSI would take the lead in investigating and prosecuting the offenders.

57. Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?

Area Lighting

Boundary Lighting

Special Purpose lighting

Very near infrared (VNIR)

The correct answer is very near infrared (VNIR). Very near infrared lighting is used in nuclear restricted areas because it provides low illumination that is not visible to the human eye. This type of lighting is necessary to maintain the security and safety of these areas while minimizing the risk of exposure to radiation.

Explanation

The correct answer is very near infrared (VNIR). Very near infrared lighting is used in nuclear restricted areas because it provides low illumination that is not visible to the human eye. This type of lighting is necessary to maintain the security and safety of these areas while minimizing the risk of exposure to radiation.

58. What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another , whether successful or not provided the target is aware of the danger?

Aggressive assault

Simple assault

Assault

Battery

Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger. It includes the intention to cause physical harm or instill fear in the victim. This term encompasses both physical and verbal threats or actions that can be perceived as harmful or dangerous by the target. Aggressive assault and simple assault are not specific legal terms and do not capture the full definition of assault. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching of another person, which is a separate offense from assault.

Explanation

Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger. It includes the intention to cause physical harm or instill fear in the victim. This term encompasses both physical and verbal threats or actions that can be perceived as harmful or dangerous by the target. Aggressive assault and simple assault are not specific legal terms and do not capture the full definition of assault. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harmful touching of another person, which is a separate offense from assault.

59. How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

1 second

3 seconds

5 seconds

7 seconds

A direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for 1 second. This duration is considered sufficient to incapacitate the subject temporarily and allow the user to escape or seek help if necessary. A longer duration may cause excessive discomfort and potential harm to the subject, while a shorter duration may not be effective enough to subdue them. Therefore, 1 second is the recommended duration for a direct pepper spray burst.

Explanation

A direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for 1 second. This duration is considered sufficient to incapacitate the subject temporarily and allow the user to escape or seek help if necessary. A longer duration may cause excessive discomfort and potential harm to the subject, while a shorter duration may not be effective enough to subdue them. Therefore, 1 second is the recommended duration for a direct pepper spray burst.

60. Where on the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident report, would you annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test?

Section I, suspects data

Section ll, Initial Contact

Section lll, standardization field sobriety test

Section IV, synopsis

In section lll, standardization field sobriety test, you would annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test. This section is specifically designated for recording the details and results of the field sobriety test, which includes the suspect's blood alcohol level.

Explanation

In section lll, standardization field sobriety test, you would annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test. This section is specifically designated for recording the details and results of the field sobriety test, which includes the suspect's blood alcohol level.

61. How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

From top to bottom, left to right

From right to left, top to bottom

From left to right , bottom to top

From bottom to top, left to right

To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you should start from the left side and move towards the right side. Then, you should move from the bottom towards the top. By following this pattern, you can accurately locate the grid coordinate on the map.

Explanation

To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you should start from the left side and move towards the right side. Then, you should move from the bottom towards the top. By following this pattern, you can accurately locate the grid coordinate on the map.

62. Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?

Military Control (MILCON)

Tactical Control (TACON)

Operational Control (OPCON)

Administrative Control (ADCON)

Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised through subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. OPCON allows commanders to direct and control the tactical employment of assigned or attached forces, and it includes the authority to organize, plan, and execute operations. This level of control ensures that commanders have the necessary authority and flexibility to effectively carry out their missions while still operating within the overall strategic guidance provided by higher authorities.

Explanation

Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised through subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. OPCON allows commanders to direct and control the tactical employment of assigned or attached forces, and it includes the authority to organize, plan, and execute operations. This level of control ensures that commanders have the necessary authority and flexibility to effectively carry out their missions while still operating within the overall strategic guidance provided by higher authorities.

63. The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

Fire Chief

Flight Chief

Commander

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

The correct answer is Commander. The use of the riot baton is based on the Commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The Commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the use of force and determining the appropriate level of force required in a given situation. The Fire Chief, Flight Chief, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the ultimate authority lies with the Commander in determining the use of the riot baton.

Explanation

The correct answer is Commander. The use of the riot baton is based on the Commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The Commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the use of force and determining the appropriate level of force required in a given situation. The Fire Chief, Flight Chief, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the ultimate authority lies with the Commander in determining the use of the riot baton.

64. Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the

Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF)

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

Federal Law Enforcement Officers Association (FLEOA)

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

The correct answer is National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). The NHTSA is responsible for developing and promoting guidelines and standards for traffic safety in the United States. They have developed the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) as a standardized method for law enforcement officers to assess a driver's level of impairment. These tests are widely used by security forces personnel to determine if a driver is under the influence of alcohol or drugs while operating a vehicle.

Explanation

The correct answer is National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). The NHTSA is responsible for developing and promoting guidelines and standards for traffic safety in the United States. They have developed the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) as a standardized method for law enforcement officers to assess a driver's level of impairment. These tests are widely used by security forces personnel to determine if a driver is under the influence of alcohol or drugs while operating a vehicle.

65. What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault / rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

Your tact and poise

Your ability to cope

Your physical appearance

Your tone of voice and manners

Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it reflects your sensitivity and professionalism in handling such a sensitive situation. By being tactful, you can show empathy and understanding towards the victim, making them feel more comfortable and supported. Your poise, which includes remaining calm and composed, can help create a safe and secure environment for the victim, allowing them to open up and trust you. Overall, your tact and poise can greatly impact the victim's emotional well-being during their initial contact.

Explanation

Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it reflects your sensitivity and professionalism in handling such a sensitive situation. By being tactful, you can show empathy and understanding towards the victim, making them feel more comfortable and supported. Your poise, which includes remaining calm and composed, can help create a safe and secure environment for the victim, allowing them to open up and trust you. Overall, your tact and poise can greatly impact the victim's emotional well-being during their initial contact.

66. (DCNI) what security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF) , and establishes site security?

Alert Fire Team (AFT)

Mobile Fire Team (MFT)

Camper Alert Team (CAT)

Security Escort Team (SET)

The Security Escort Team (SET) is the correct answer because they are routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team to provide security for a penetrated launch facility (LF) and establish site security. The other options, such as Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT), and Camper Alert Team (CAT), do not specifically mention these responsibilities.

Explanation

The Security Escort Team (SET) is the correct answer because they are routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team to provide security for a penetrated launch facility (LF) and establish site security. The other options, such as Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT), and Camper Alert Team (CAT), do not specifically mention these responsibilities.

67. Which crime prevention program allows some people to report their observations to police only when they know they can remain anonymous?

Youth services

Operation crime stop

Neighborhood watch

Operation identification

Operation Crime Stop is a crime prevention program that allows individuals to report their observations to the police while remaining anonymous. This program recognizes that some people may be hesitant to come forward with information due to fear of retaliation or other concerns. By providing the option of anonymity, Operation Crime Stop aims to encourage more people to report suspicious activities or crimes, thereby assisting law enforcement in their efforts to prevent and solve crimes.

Explanation

Operation Crime Stop is a crime prevention program that allows individuals to report their observations to the police while remaining anonymous. This program recognizes that some people may be hesitant to come forward with information due to fear of retaliation or other concerns. By providing the option of anonymity, Operation Crime Stop aims to encourage more people to report suspicious activities or crimes, thereby assisting law enforcement in their efforts to prevent and solve crimes.

68. When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being

Concise

Accurate

Objective

Complete

When a well-written incident report includes the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, it can be considered complete. This means that all necessary information regarding the incident has been provided, leaving no gaps or missing details. The report covers all aspects of the incident, ensuring that nothing important has been omitted.

Explanation

When a well-written incident report includes the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, it can be considered complete. This means that all necessary information regarding the incident has been provided, leaving no gaps or missing details. The report covers all aspects of the incident, ensuring that nothing important has been omitted.

69. How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen?

10 minutes

20 minutes

30 minutes

40 minutes

To collect an accurate breath specimen, it is necessary to observe the person for a certain duration. This waiting period allows any residual substances in the mouth, such as food or drink, to dissipate and ensures that the breath sample collected is not contaminated. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that this is the minimum amount of time required to properly observe the person before collecting their breath specimen.

Explanation

To collect an accurate breath specimen, it is necessary to observe the person for a certain duration. This waiting period allows any residual substances in the mouth, such as food or drink, to dissipate and ensures that the breath sample collected is not contaminated. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that this is the minimum amount of time required to properly observe the person before collecting their breath specimen.

70. Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties?

Flight Chief

Flight commander

Immediate supervisor

Certifying official

The certifying official is responsible for making a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties. This individual has the authority to determine if an individual meets the necessary requirements and standards to perform PRP duties. The certifying official has the knowledge and expertise to assess the individual's reliability and ensure that they are qualified and trustworthy for the assigned duties.

Explanation

The certifying official is responsible for making a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties. This individual has the authority to determine if an individual meets the necessary requirements and standards to perform PRP duties. The certifying official has the knowledge and expertise to assess the individual's reliability and ensure that they are qualified and trustworthy for the assigned duties.

71. To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

US marshal

Military sponsor

Local law enforcement

Air force office of special investigations (AFOSI)

In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, military sponsors are responsible for releasing civilians who commit minor offenses. Military sponsors play a crucial role in ensuring that these individuals are properly handled and released according to military regulations and procedures. They act as a liaison between the military and local law enforcement, ensuring that the civilians are treated fairly and in accordance with the law. This arrangement helps maintain order and accountability in areas where multiple jurisdictions overlap.

Explanation

In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, military sponsors are responsible for releasing civilians who commit minor offenses. Military sponsors play a crucial role in ensuring that these individuals are properly handled and released according to military regulations and procedures. They act as a liaison between the military and local law enforcement, ensuring that the civilians are treated fairly and in accordance with the law. This arrangement helps maintain order and accountability in areas where multiple jurisdictions overlap.

72. On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a

List of items to be searched

Probable cause statement

List of questions to ask suspect

Statement made by suspect

On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, you must write or type a probable cause statement. This statement is necessary to provide a legal justification for conducting a search and seizure. It explains the reasons why the search is being conducted and the belief that evidence of a crime will be found. The probable cause statement is important in protecting the rights of individuals and ensuring that searches are conducted within the boundaries of the law.

Explanation

On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, you must write or type a probable cause statement. This statement is necessary to provide a legal justification for conducting a search and seizure. It explains the reasons why the search is being conducted and the belief that evidence of a crime will be found. The probable cause statement is important in protecting the rights of individuals and ensuring that searches are conducted within the boundaries of the law.

73. What are the two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?

Deferral and suspension

Disqualification and deferral

Suspension and decertification

Temporary suspension and decertification

The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) involves ensuring the reliability and trustworthiness of personnel who have access to sensitive information or perform critical duties. In this context, suspension refers to temporarily removing an individual from their PRP duties due to a specific reason, such as an ongoing investigation or a breach of security protocols. On the other hand, decertification involves permanently revoking an individual's PRP status, typically due to a significant violation or failure to meet the program's standards. Both suspension and decertification are types of removal within the PRP, ensuring the program's effectiveness and maintaining the security of sensitive information.

Explanation

The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) involves ensuring the reliability and trustworthiness of personnel who have access to sensitive information or perform critical duties. In this context, suspension refers to temporarily removing an individual from their PRP duties due to a specific reason, such as an ongoing investigation or a breach of security protocols. On the other hand, decertification involves permanently revoking an individual's PRP status, typically due to a significant violation or failure to meet the program's standards. Both suspension and decertification are types of removal within the PRP, ensuring the program's effectiveness and maintaining the security of sensitive information.

74. How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?

Patrol vehicle parks at a 45-degree angle , perpendicular to the curb line

Park primary vehicle directly behind the violator, front wheels turned to the left

Backup patrol vehicle parks parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle

Park primary and backup vehicles behind the suspect vehicle at a distance of 30 to 40 feet

The correct answer is to park the backup patrol vehicle parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle. This positioning allows for maximum coverage and protection for the officers during a high-risk traffic stop. By parking in this manner, the officers can create a double abreast formation, which provides a strong visual presence and enhances officer safety. It also allows for better control of the situation and minimizes the risk of the suspect vehicle escaping or causing harm.

Explanation

The correct answer is to park the backup patrol vehicle parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle. This positioning allows for maximum coverage and protection for the officers during a high-risk traffic stop. By parking in this manner, the officers can create a double abreast formation, which provides a strong visual presence and enhances officer safety. It also allows for better control of the situation and minimizes the risk of the suspect vehicle escaping or causing harm.

75. What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.

Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.

Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.

Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.

Law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather they must use a level of force that is considered reasonable in the situation. The Supreme Court has held that the force used must be objectively reasonable based on the circumstances, such as the severity of the crime, the threat posed by the individual, and whether the individual is actively resisting arrest.

Explanation

Law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather they must use a level of force that is considered reasonable in the situation. The Supreme Court has held that the force used must be objectively reasonable based on the circumstances, such as the severity of the crime, the threat posed by the individual, and whether the individual is actively resisting arrest.

76. What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL) 1 assets?

Close-in-sentry (CIS)

Flight line sentry (FLS)

Installation Controller (EC)

Close-boundary sentry (CBS)

Close-in-sentry (CIS) is the correct answer because they are responsible for controlling the entry into the aircraft when it is carrying specific protection level (PL) 1 assets. They ensure that only authorized personnel are allowed access to the aircraft, maintaining the security and integrity of the PL 1 assets.

Explanation

Close-in-sentry (CIS) is the correct answer because they are responsible for controlling the entry into the aircraft when it is carrying specific protection level (PL) 1 assets. They ensure that only authorized personnel are allowed access to the aircraft, maintaining the security and integrity of the PL 1 assets.

77. What should not be confused with rules of engagement(ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

Law of armed conflict

Rules for use of force

Operational orders

Operations plans

During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). The rules for use of force outline the guidelines and limitations for the application of force by military personnel, while the ROE specifically pertain to the circumstances and conditions under which force can be used. It is important to differentiate between the two to ensure that military actions are carried out in accordance with legal and ethical standards, and to prevent any confusion or misinterpretation of the rules governing the use of force.

Explanation

During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). The rules for use of force outline the guidelines and limitations for the application of force by military personnel, while the ROE specifically pertain to the circumstances and conditions under which force can be used. It is important to differentiate between the two to ensure that military actions are carried out in accordance with legal and ethical standards, and to prevent any confusion or misinterpretation of the rules governing the use of force.

78. What is the level of force necessary to compel a subjects compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death

Minimum use of force

Maximum use of force

Transitional use of force

Intermediate use of force

The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance without causing death is known as the intermediate use of force. This level of force is neither the minimum nor the maximum, but falls in between. It suggests that a certain amount of force is required to ensure compliance, but it should be used with caution to avoid causing severe harm or death.

Explanation

The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance without causing death is known as the intermediate use of force. This level of force is neither the minimum nor the maximum, but falls in between. It suggests that a certain amount of force is required to ensure compliance, but it should be used with caution to avoid causing severe harm or death.

79. What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

Simple

Partial

Complete

Plainview

A simple search involves searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and looking for any evidence or items of interest without physically taking it apart. This type of search is often the first step in an investigation or inspection process, allowing investigators to quickly assess the situation and determine if further actions or disassembly is necessary.

Explanation

A simple search involves searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and looking for any evidence or items of interest without physically taking it apart. This type of search is often the first step in an investigation or inspection process, allowing investigators to quickly assess the situation and determine if further actions or disassembly is necessary.

80. Once completed, who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag

Person relinquishing possession of the property

Person who obtained or collected the property

Property custodian

Chief investigator

The second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is given to the person relinquishing possession of the property. This is because the form serves as a record of the property being transferred from one person to another. The person relinquishing possession is responsible for providing the necessary information and details about the property, and the second copy of the form serves as their proof of transfer.

Explanation

The second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is given to the person relinquishing possession of the property. This is because the form serves as a record of the property being transferred from one person to another. The person relinquishing possession is responsible for providing the necessary information and details about the property, and the second copy of the form serves as their proof of transfer.

81. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Involvement with local youth programs

Random calls to solve community problems

A zero tolerance approach to handling crime

Greater community voice in setting police priorities

The greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. When the community has a say in determining the focus of law enforcement efforts, it ensures that the police address the specific concerns and needs of the community. This approach fosters trust, collaboration, and a sense of ownership among community members, leading to effective problem-solving and crime prevention strategies. It also promotes transparency and accountability, as the police are more likely to be responsive to the community's concerns and expectations. Ultimately, this involvement helps create a safer and more harmonious neighborhood.

Explanation

The greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. When the community has a say in determining the focus of law enforcement efforts, it ensures that the police address the specific concerns and needs of the community. This approach fosters trust, collaboration, and a sense of ownership among community members, leading to effective problem-solving and crime prevention strategies. It also promotes transparency and accountability, as the police are more likely to be responsive to the community's concerns and expectations. Ultimately, this involvement helps create a safer and more harmonious neighborhood.

82. In how many copies is the AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration log prepared?

One

Two

Three

Four

The AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration log is prepared in one copy. This suggests that only one copy of the form is needed to document visitor registrations.

Explanation

The AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration log is prepared in one copy. This suggests that only one copy of the form is needed to document visitor registrations.

83. How often must the approving authority review all permanent security deviations?

Monthly

Every six months

Every year

Every two years

The approving authority must review all permanent security deviations every year. This ensures that any potential risks or vulnerabilities are addressed and mitigated in a timely manner. Regular reviews help to maintain the effectiveness of security measures and ensure compliance with regulations and standards. By conducting annual reviews, the approving authority can stay updated on any changes or developments in the security landscape and make necessary adjustments to maintain the security of the system or organization.

Explanation

The approving authority must review all permanent security deviations every year. This ensures that any potential risks or vulnerabilities are addressed and mitigated in a timely manner. Regular reviews help to maintain the effectiveness of security measures and ensure compliance with regulations and standards. By conducting annual reviews, the approving authority can stay updated on any changes or developments in the security landscape and make necessary adjustments to maintain the security of the system or organization.

84. Within how many days from the event it refers will an after action report be submitted?

15

30

45

60

An after action report will be submitted within 30 days from the event it refers to. This report is a detailed analysis of an event, highlighting the actions taken, outcomes, and lessons learned. It allows for reflection and evaluation to improve future performance. The 30-day timeframe ensures that the report is submitted in a timely manner while still allowing enough time for gathering and analyzing relevant information.

Explanation

An after action report will be submitted within 30 days from the event it refers to. This report is a detailed analysis of an event, highlighting the actions taken, outcomes, and lessons learned. It allows for reflection and evaluation to improve future performance. The 30-day timeframe ensures that the report is submitted in a timely manner while still allowing enough time for gathering and analyzing relevant information.

85. Who uses section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident report?

Suspects commander

Staff judge advocate (SJA)

Security forces reports & analyses

Air Force Office of investigations (AFOSI)

Section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident report is used by security forces reports & analyses. This section is specifically designed for security forces personnel to document their analysis and findings regarding the incident. It helps in determining the appropriate administrative actions that need to be taken in response to the incident. Therefore, security forces reports & analyses is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident report is used by security forces reports & analyses. This section is specifically designed for security forces personnel to document their analysis and findings regarding the incident. It helps in determining the appropriate administrative actions that need to be taken in response to the incident. Therefore, security forces reports & analyses is the correct answer for this question.

86. The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data is used to record

Interviews between a Security Forces member and a suspect

Interviews between a Security Forces member and complainant

Routine contact between Security Forces members and members of the public

Emergency contact between security force members and members of the public

The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data, is used to record routine contact between Security Forces members and members of the public. This form is not specifically designed for interviews with suspects or complainants, nor is it intended for emergency contacts. Instead, it is used to document interactions that occur during routine encounters between Security Forces personnel and individuals in the community.

Explanation

The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data, is used to record routine contact between Security Forces members and members of the public. This form is not specifically designed for interviews with suspects or complainants, nor is it intended for emergency contacts. Instead, it is used to document interactions that occur during routine encounters between Security Forces personnel and individuals in the community.

87. From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

Defense Force Commander

Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

Before disposing of crime scene evidence, approval must be obtained from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military personnel, including the proper handling and disposal of evidence in accordance with the law. They ensure that the disposal process is conducted in a legally sound manner, protecting the integrity of the evidence and ensuring due process.

Explanation

Before disposing of crime scene evidence, approval must be obtained from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military personnel, including the proper handling and disposal of evidence in accordance with the law. They ensure that the disposal process is conducted in a legally sound manner, protecting the integrity of the evidence and ensuring due process.

88. What concept was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function?

Roadmap

Two-person

No-lone zone

Split knowledge

Split knowledge is a concept designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function. This means that the information required to launch a nuclear weapon is divided among multiple individuals, ensuring that no single person has access to all the necessary knowledge. By implementing split knowledge, it adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized or accidental launch of nuclear weapons.

Explanation

Split knowledge is a concept designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function. This means that the information required to launch a nuclear weapon is divided among multiple individuals, ensuring that no single person has access to all the necessary knowledge. By implementing split knowledge, it adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized or accidental launch of nuclear weapons.

89. Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area per escort official?

4

6

8

10

The correct answer is 6. This means that each escort official can escort up to 6 persons inside an exclusion area. This limit is likely in place to ensure the safety and security of both the escort official and the persons being escorted. By limiting the number of persons per escort official, it becomes easier to manage and control the situation within the exclusion area.

Explanation

The correct answer is 6. This means that each escort official can escort up to 6 persons inside an exclusion area. This limit is likely in place to ensure the safety and security of both the escort official and the persons being escorted. By limiting the number of persons per escort official, it becomes easier to manage and control the situation within the exclusion area.

90. What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?

Federal Rules of Evidence

Manual for Courts Martial

Federal Statutes of Evidence

Uniform Code of Military Justice

The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. It is a comprehensive document that provides guidance on the admissibility and presentation of evidence in military courts. The Manual ensures that the military justice system operates fairly and consistently by outlining the procedures and standards for handling evidence during legal proceedings. It is a vital resource for military lawyers, judges, and personnel involved in the administration of military justice.

Explanation

The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. It is a comprehensive document that provides guidance on the admissibility and presentation of evidence in military courts. The Manual ensures that the military justice system operates fairly and consistently by outlining the procedures and standards for handling evidence during legal proceedings. It is a vital resource for military lawyers, judges, and personnel involved in the administration of military justice.

91. Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

Air Force Office of Special Investigations ( AFOSI)

Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

Department of Justice (DOJ)

Department of State (DOS)

The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. As the principal law enforcement agency, the DOJ is responsible for investigating and prosecuting federal crimes, including terrorism-related offenses. It works closely with other federal agencies, such as the FBI, to gather intelligence, prevent terrorist activities, and respond to high-risk incidents. The DOJ also plays a crucial role in coordinating efforts with state and local law enforcement agencies to ensure effective response and collaboration in addressing these threats.

Explanation

The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. As the principal law enforcement agency, the DOJ is responsible for investigating and prosecuting federal crimes, including terrorism-related offenses. It works closely with other federal agencies, such as the FBI, to gather intelligence, prevent terrorist activities, and respond to high-risk incidents. The DOJ also plays a crucial role in coordinating efforts with state and local law enforcement agencies to ensure effective response and collaboration in addressing these threats.

92. Who ensures that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?

Couriers

Load masters

Security forces

Aircraft commanders

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and delineates no-lone zones around nuclear logistics aircraft. They play a crucial role in maintaining the security and safety of nuclear materials and equipment during transportation. Couriers are responsible for verifying the presence of two authorized persons at all times, ensuring compliance with TPC regulations. They also establish and enforce no-lone zones, which restrict access to sensitive areas and prevent unauthorized individuals from being alone with nuclear logistics aircraft.

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and delineates no-lone zones around nuclear logistics aircraft. They play a crucial role in maintaining the security and safety of nuclear materials and equipment during transportation. Couriers are responsible for verifying the presence of two authorized persons at all times, ensuring compliance with TPC regulations. They also establish and enforce no-lone zones, which restrict access to sensitive areas and prevent unauthorized individuals from being alone with nuclear logistics aircraft.

93. Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems?

Limited area

Restricted area

Exclusion area

Controlled area

An exclusion area refers to a designated zone that surrounds one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems. This area is restricted and prohibits unauthorized access to ensure the safety and security of the nuclear assets. It is implemented to prevent any potential threats or accidents and to maintain strict control over the area.

Explanation

An exclusion area refers to a designated zone that surrounds one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems. This area is restricted and prohibits unauthorized access to ensure the safety and security of the nuclear assets. It is implemented to prevent any potential threats or accidents and to maintain strict control over the area.

94. Which force protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?

Deter

Detect

Negate

Preempt

Negate is the correct answer because it means to nullify or neutralize a threat or hazard, making it incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This could involve implementing countermeasures, defensive strategies, or other actions to eliminate or minimize the impact of potential threats or hazards.

Explanation

Negate is the correct answer because it means to nullify or neutralize a threat or hazard, making it incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This could involve implementing countermeasures, defensive strategies, or other actions to eliminate or minimize the impact of potential threats or hazards.

95. What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels?

AF Form 116

AF Form 1315

DD Form 1805

DD Form 2708

AF Form 116 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels. This form is specifically designed for reporting security incidents and deviations, ensuring that all necessary information is captured and communicated through the appropriate channels. By using AF Form 116, security personnel can effectively document and track security deviations, allowing for proper investigation and resolution of any security breaches or incidents.

Explanation

AF Form 116 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels. This form is specifically designed for reporting security incidents and deviations, ensuring that all necessary information is captured and communicated through the appropriate channels. By using AF Form 116, security personnel can effectively document and track security deviations, allowing for proper investigation and resolution of any security breaches or incidents.

96. What are the two types o sketches normally made of the crime scene?

Rough and refine

Partial and refined

Rough and finished

Partial and complete

The correct answer is "rough and finished." In crime scene investigations, rough sketches are typically drawn initially to quickly capture the layout and key elements of the scene. These sketches are often hand-drawn and may not be to scale. They provide a general overview of the crime scene. Later on, a more detailed and accurate finished sketch is created, incorporating precise measurements and scale. This finished sketch is often computer-generated and includes specific details such as distances, objects, and evidence locations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "rough and finished." In crime scene investigations, rough sketches are typically drawn initially to quickly capture the layout and key elements of the scene. These sketches are often hand-drawn and may not be to scale. They provide a general overview of the crime scene. Later on, a more detailed and accurate finished sketch is created, incorporating precise measurements and scale. This finished sketch is often computer-generated and includes specific details such as distances, objects, and evidence locations.

97. What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening?

Point detection

Motion detection

Break-beam sensor

Break-wire sensor

Point detection is the correct answer because it refers to a type of electronic sensor that is capable of detecting intrusions at the opening. This type of sensor typically consists of an approved balanced magnetic switch or another type of sensor that can detect any changes or disruptions in the magnetic field, indicating the presence of an intrusion. Point detection sensors are commonly used in security systems to monitor doors, windows, or other access points for unauthorized entry.

Explanation

Point detection is the correct answer because it refers to a type of electronic sensor that is capable of detecting intrusions at the opening. This type of sensor typically consists of an approved balanced magnetic switch or another type of sensor that can detect any changes or disruptions in the magnetic field, indicating the presence of an intrusion. Point detection sensors are commonly used in security systems to monitor doors, windows, or other access points for unauthorized entry.

98. How many sections does the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, have

4

6

8

10

The AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, has 6 sections.

Explanation

The AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, has 6 sections.

99. What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?

Notification, response, confinement, and release

Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement

Initial contact, administrative , prosecution, and confinement

The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement or other authorities respond to the incident. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is gathered and analyzed. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court. And the fourth phase is confinement, where the convicted offender serves their punishment. In the victim/witness assistance program, it is important to brief all victims and witnesses on these four phases to ensure their understanding and cooperation throughout the process.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement or other authorities respond to the incident. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is gathered and analyzed. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court. And the fourth phase is confinement, where the convicted offender serves their punishment. In the victim/witness assistance program, it is important to brief all victims and witnesses on these four phases to ensure their understanding and cooperation throughout the process.

100. Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?

Flight Chief

Issuing patrol officer

Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

Defense Force Commander

The Defense Force Commander is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This individual has the highest authority and responsibility within the defense force, and therefore has the power to make decisions regarding legal matters such as voiding violation notices. The Flight Chief, Issuing patrol officer, and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) do not have the same level of authority as the Defense Force Commander in this situation.

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This individual has the highest authority and responsibility within the defense force, and therefore has the power to make decisions regarding legal matters such as voiding violation notices. The Flight Chief, Issuing patrol officer, and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) do not have the same level of authority as the Defense Force Commander in this situation.

Security Forces CDC Volume 2

1. What must be established at each incident site?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

3. In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

4. The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to

5. Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

6. Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

7. What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment , deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing?

8. What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

9. It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

10. What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?

11. A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime

12. What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

13. To ensure the safety of the patrol office and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

14. Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

15. What type of force is required at all installation supporting protection level (PL) 1,2, or 3 resources?

16. What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

17. In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and

18. In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

19. When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

20. How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

21. What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into?

22. What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

23. When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

24. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

25. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?

26. Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

27. Conscious verbal communication occurs when

28. When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand

29. What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

30. Only personnel certified through what program or the host-nation equivalent at a weapons storage and security systems (WS3) installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas?

31. When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

32. DD Form 1408 , Armed Forces traffic Ticket is issued to someone who

33. How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

34. What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

35. What does "code three" indicate when security forces personnel are making an emergency response?

36. When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

37. What is conducted during a domestic dispute / violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

38. What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

39. What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

40. What must a sf on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

41. Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

42. How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

43. What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic ticket , is given to the violator or affixed to the violators vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?

44. What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

45. What type of nuclear inspection assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives?

46. What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it,

47. Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects

48. What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified?

49. How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

50. Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?

51. You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial / Post-trial Prisoner or detained person, when

52. What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

53. Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and

54. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?

55. At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?

56. What agency has a primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

57. Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?

58. What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another , whether successful or not provided the target is aware of the danger?

59. How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

60. Where on the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident report, would you annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test?

61. How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

62. Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?

63. The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

64. Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the

65. What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault / rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

66. (DCNI) what security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF) , and establishes site security?

67. Which crime prevention program allows some people to report their observations to police only when they know they can remain anonymous?

68. When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being

69. How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen?

70. Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties?

71. To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

72. On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a

73. What are the two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?

74. How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?

75. What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

76. What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL) 1 assets?

77. What should not be confused with rules of engagement(ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?