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All of the following statements are true about the SinuAtrial (SA) node EXCEPT
A.
It receives sympathetic impulses from the first five to six thoracic spinal cord segments that accelerate its basal rate
B.
It sends impulses directly to the atrioventricular bundle of subendocardial branches (fibers)
C.
It receives autonomic innervation from cardiac plexus that is located on aortic arch and carina of trachea
D.
It sets that basal heart rate at 80-100 beats per
E.
It receives parasympathetic impulses from the vagus nerve that decrease its basal rate
Correct Answer
B. It sends impulses directly to the atrioventricular bundle of subendocardial branches (fibers)
Explanation The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heartbeat. It receives sympathetic impulses from the first five to six thoracic spinal cord segments, which increase its basal rate. It also receives autonomic innervation from the cardiac plexus located on the aortic arch and carina of the trachea. Additionally, it receives parasympathetic impulses from the vagus nerve, which decrease its basal rate. However, the SA node does not send impulses directly to the atrioventricular bundle of subendocardial branches (fibers), making this statement false.
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2.
The right coronary artery typically:
A.
Runs parallel with the great cardiac vein
B.
Fills when the aortic valve is open
C.
Has a circumflex branch
D.
Supplies most of the interventricular septum
E.
Supplies both the AV and SA nodes
Correct Answer
E. Supplies both the AV and SA nodes
Explanation The right coronary artery supplies both the AV (atrioventricular) and SA (sinoatrial) nodes. The AV node is responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles, while the SA node is the natural pacemaker of the heart, initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. The right coronary artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to these important nodes, ensuring their proper functioning.
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3.
Supplies both the AV and SA nodes.
A.
Right vagus nerve
B.
Aorta
C.
Hemiazygos vein
D.
Inferior vena cava
E.
Right phrenic nerve
Correct Answer
A. Right vagus nerve
Explanation The right vagus nerve supplies both the atrioventricular (AV) and sinoatrial (SA) nodes. The AV node is responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles, while the SA node is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart, initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rate. The right vagus nerve plays a crucial role in controlling the heart rate by providing parasympathetic innervation to these nodes.
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4.
Which structure is most likely injured in a shallow stab wound in the left fourth intercostal space, immediately lateral to the sternum?
A.
Right atrium
B.
Right ventricle
C.
Superior vena cava
D.
Pulmonary trunk
E.
Thoracic aorta
Correct Answer
B. Right ventricle
Explanation A shallow stab wound in the left fourth intercostal space, immediately lateral to the sternum is most likely to injure the right ventricle. This is because the right ventricle is located in the lower part of the heart and is closest to the area of the wound. The other structures listed, such as the right atrium, superior vena cava, pulmonary trunk, and thoracic aorta, are not in close proximity to the left fourth intercostal space and would not be as likely to be injured in this specific location.
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5.
Which of the following associations about heart structures is INCORRECT?
A.
Crista terminalis; right atrium
B.
Oval fossa; interatrial septum
C.
Bundle branches; interventricular septum
D.
Septal papillary muscles; left ventricle
E.
Opening to coronary arteries; aortic valve
Correct Answer
D. Septal papillary muscles; left ventricle
Explanation The septal papillary muscles are actually associated with the right ventricle, not the left ventricle. The papillary muscles are small, finger-like projections of muscle tissue that attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral valves). They help to anchor the valves and prevent them from prolapsing into the atria during ventricular contraction.
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6.
A brain tumor involving the body of the lateral ventricle may directly extend to which structure?
A.
Pons
B.
Caudate nucleus
C.
Hypothalamus
D.
Lentiform nucleus
E.
Hippocampus
Correct Answer
B. Caudate nucleus
Explanation A brain tumor involving the body of the lateral ventricle may directly extend to the caudate nucleus. The caudate nucleus is a structure located within the brain that plays a role in movement, learning, and memory. It is situated near the lateral ventricles, and a tumor in the lateral ventricle can potentially invade and affect the caudate nucleus.
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7.
Which are the only two UNPAIRED vessels near or a part of the Circle of Willis?
A.
Basilar artery and posterior cerebral artery
B.
Basilar artery and posterior communicating artery
C.
Superior cerebellar artery and posterior communicating artery?
D.
Basilar artery and anterior communicating artery?
E.
Anterior communicating artery and posterior communicating artery?
Correct Answer
D. Basilar artery and anterior communicating artery?
Explanation The Circle of Willis is a circular network of arteries at the base of the brain that provides collateral circulation. The only two unpaired vessels near or a part of the Circle of Willis are the Basilar artery and the anterior communicating artery. The Basilar artery is a single midline artery formed by the fusion of the vertebral arteries, while the anterior communicating artery connects the two anterior cerebral arteries.
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8.
Which of the following associations about brain injury is INCORRECT?
A.
BrocaÕs area; speech deficiency
B.
Temporal lobe; memory loss
C.
Postcentral gyrus; limb paralysis
D.
Thalamus; sensation loss
E.
Calcarine sulcus; blindness
Correct Answer
C. Postcentral gyrus; limb paralysis
Explanation The postcentral gyrus is responsible for somatosensory processing, not limb paralysis. Limb paralysis is typically associated with damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract.
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9.
Considering the lungs:
A.
The pleural domes are inferior to the first rib
B.
The inferior pulmonary ligaments are made by the pleural reflections under the hilum
C.
The segmental bronchi branches are inside the mediastinum
D.
The horizontal fissure can be found in each lung
E.
The left lung has no superior lobe
Correct Answer
B. The inferior pulmonary ligaments are made by the pleural reflections under the hilum
Explanation The correct answer states that the inferior pulmonary ligaments are made by the pleural reflections under the hilum. This means that the pleural reflections, which are folds in the pleura, extend downward from the hilum (the area where the bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lungs) to form the inferior pulmonary ligaments. These ligaments help to anchor the lungs in place within the thoracic cavity.
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10.
In the thoracic cavity:
A.
The phrenic nerves are between the fibrous pericardium and the pleurae
B.
The posterior mediastinum contains also the thymus
C.
The superior vena cava is on the left side
D.
The heart occupies the anterior mediastinum
E.
The trachea bifurcates approximately at T3
Correct Answer
A. The pHrenic nerves are between the fibrous pericardium and the pleurae
Explanation The phrenic nerves are located between the fibrous pericardium and the pleurae in the thoracic cavity. These nerves are responsible for controlling the movement of the diaphragm, which is the main muscle involved in breathing. The fibrous pericardium is a tough, protective layer that surrounds the heart, while the pleurae are thin membranes that line the lungs and chest cavity. The positioning of the phrenic nerves between these structures allows them to efficiently transmit signals from the brain to the diaphragm, enabling the process of breathing.
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11.
The artery that gives origin to small branches directed to the medial side of the breast is:
A.
Superior epigastric artery
B.
Internal thoracic artery
C.
Muscolophrenic artery
D.
Posterior intercostal artery
E.
Thoracoacromial artery
Correct Answer
B. Internal thoracic artery
Explanation The internal thoracic artery is the correct answer because it gives origin to small branches that are directed to the medial side of the breast. This artery is a branch of the subclavian artery and runs along the inside of the chest wall, giving off branches that supply blood to the anterior chest wall, including the medial side of the breast. The other arteries listed do not specifically give origin to branches directed to the medial side of the breast.
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12.
The horizontal fissure separates:
A.
Right upper lobe from right middle lobe
B.
Right middle lobe from right lower lobe
C.
Left upper lobe from left lower lobe
D.
Left upper lobe from left middle lobe
E.
Left middle lobe from left lower lobe
Correct Answer
A. Right upper lobe from right middle lobe
Explanation The horizontal fissure is a prominent anatomical feature in the lungs that separates the right upper lobe from the right middle lobe. This fissure runs horizontally across the right lung and is responsible for dividing these two lobes. The other options listed do not accurately represent the location of the horizontal fissure.
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13.
The three lobes of the right lung have the following number of bronchopulmonary segments, respectively:
A.
5,3,2
B.
2,3,5
C.
3,3,4
D.
3,2,5
E.
2,4,4
Correct Answer
D. 3,2,5
Explanation The right lung is divided into three lobes: the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe is further divided into bronchopulmonary segments, which are responsible for supplying air to specific regions of the lung. The correct answer, 3, 2, 5, indicates that the superior lobe has 3 bronchopulmonary segments, the middle lobe has 2 segments, and the inferior lobe has 5 segments.
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14.
The tip of the knife is in the pleural cavity (space). This cavity is located between:
A.
Parietal pleura and visceral pleura
B.
Adjacent ribs
C.
Mediastinal pleura and costal pleura
D.
Visceral pleura and lung tissue
E.
Innermost intercostal muscle and parietal pleura
Correct Answer
A. Parietal pleura and visceral pleura
Explanation The pleural cavity is the space between the parietal pleura (the outer layer of the pleura) and the visceral pleura (the inner layer of the pleura). The pleura is a thin membrane that lines the lungs and the inside of the chest cavity. The tip of the knife being in the pleural cavity indicates that it has penetrated through the parietal pleura and is now located between the parietal and visceral pleura.
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15.
The inferior thoracic aperture:
A.
It is wider in the transverse plane than in the sagittal plane
B.
All the sentences are correct
C.
It measures 5 cm antero-posteriorly and 10 cm transversely
D.
The posterior border is limited by the level of the 10th thoracic vertebra
E.
Anteriorly is limited by the body of the sternum
Correct Answer
A. It is wider in the transverse plane than in the sagittal plane
Explanation The correct answer is "It is wider in the transverse plane than in the sagittal plane." This means that the inferior thoracic aperture is wider from side to side (transverse plane) than from front to back (sagittal plane). This is important because it allows for greater movement and expansion of the thoracic cavity during respiration.
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16.
Regarding the Thymus gland, please indicate the CORRECT sentence:
A.
It contains many afferent lymphatics
B.
It is supplied mainly from branches of thoracic aorta
C.
It lies mainly in the superior mediastinum and anterior part of inferior mediastinum
D.
It is responsible for the provision of thymus-processed (B) lymphocytes
E.
It lies mainly in the middle and posterior mediastinum
Correct Answer
C. It lies mainly in the superior mediastinum and anterior part of inferior mediastinum
Explanation The correct answer is that the thymus gland lies mainly in the superior mediastinum and anterior part of the inferior mediastinum. This means that it is located in the upper part of the chest, behind the sternum and between the lungs. The thymus gland is responsible for the production and maturation of T lymphocytes, not B lymphocytes. It is supplied by branches of the internal thoracic artery, not the thoracic aorta. It does not contain afferent lymphatics and does not lie in the middle and posterior mediastinum.
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17.
Considering the pulmonary arteries:
A.
The left pulmonary artery emerges from the concavity of the pulmonary trunk
B.
There are usually four pulmonary arteries, two from each lung
C.
The right pulmonary artery divides into two larger branches
D.
The right pulmonary artery emerges in front of the aortic arch
E.
There are only two branches of the left pulmonary artery
Correct Answer
C. The right pulmonary artery divides into two larger branches
Explanation The correct answer is that the right pulmonary artery divides into two larger branches. This means that after emerging from the pulmonary trunk, the right pulmonary artery splits into two separate arteries that supply blood to different areas of the right lung. This is in contrast to the left pulmonary artery, which usually only has two branches.
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18.
If you touch a U-shaped depression located on the manubrium of the sternum, you localize the:
A.
Angle of Louis
B.
Jugular notch
C.
Sternal angle
D.
Xiphoid process
E.
Xiphisternal joint
Correct Answer
B. Jugular notch
Explanation When you touch a U-shaped depression located on the manubrium of the sternum, you are localizing the jugular notch. The jugular notch is an anatomical landmark that can be easily felt and used as a reference point during physical examinations. It is located at the top of the sternum, where the manubrium meets the body of the sternum. The jugular notch is important for identifying the level of the second rib and the sternal angle, which can be helpful in assessing the position and alignment of other structures in the chest.
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19.
Which of the following is most likely a result of a tumor that invades the retromammary space?
A.
Increased mobility of the breast
B.
Edema (swelling) in the breast due to obstruction of lymphatic vessels
C.
Decreased mobility of the breast
D.
Blockage of the internal thoracic artery
E.
None of the options is correct
Correct Answer
C. Decreased mobility of the breast
Explanation A tumor that invades the retromammary space is likely to cause decreased mobility of the breast. The retromammary space is a potential space between the breast tissue and the underlying pectoral muscles. When a tumor invades this space, it can disrupt the normal movement and mobility of the breast. This can be due to the tumor causing adhesions or fibrosis in the surrounding tissues, leading to a decrease in the ability of the breast to move freely.
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20.
Worn-out and damaged red blood cells are destroyed in the:
A.
Bone marrow
B.
Thymus gland
C.
Spleen
D.
Lymph nodes
E.
Tonsils
Correct Answer
C. Spleen
Explanation Red blood cells have a limited lifespan of about 120 days, after which they become worn-out and damaged. The spleen plays a crucial role in their destruction. It acts as a filter for the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells from circulation. The spleen contains specialized cells called macrophages, which engulf and break down these cells. Additionally, the spleen also helps in the storage and release of healthy red blood cells when needed. Therefore, the correct answer is spleen.
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21.
Concerning the spermatic cord, the cremasteric muscle and its fascia are derived by:
A.
Transversus abdominis and its fascia
B.
External oblique muscle and its fascia
C.
None of the these
D.
Transversalis fascia
E.
Internal oblique muscle and its fascia
Correct Answer
E. Internal oblique muscle and its fascia
Explanation The cremasteric muscle and its fascia are derived from the internal oblique muscle and its fascia.
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22.
In female, the gubernaculum (ligament that drives the migration of the gonads):
A.
None is correct
B.
Regresses completely
C.
Forms the round ligament
D.
Forms the broad ligament
E.
Forms the cardinal ligament
Correct Answer
C. Forms the round ligament
Explanation The gubernaculum in females forms the round ligament. The gubernaculum is a ligament that helps in the migration of the gonads during embryonic development. In males, it helps in the descent of the testes into the scrotum, but in females, it regresses and forms the round ligament. The round ligament is responsible for supporting the uterus and helping to maintain its position within the pelvis.
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23.
In the enteric nervous system, the Auerbach's plexus is located:
A.
Between the external longitudinal muscle layer and the serosa
B.
Between the inner circular and external longitudinal muscle layers
C.
Between the mucosae and the muscolaris mucosae
D.
Between the submucosa and the mucosa
E.
Between the submucosa and the inner circular muscle layer
Correct Answer
B. Between the inner circular and external longitudinal muscle layers
Explanation The Auerbach's plexus is located between the inner circular and external longitudinal muscle layers in the enteric nervous system. This plexus, also known as the myenteric plexus, is responsible for coordinating and regulating the contractions of the gastrointestinal tract. It contains a network of nerve fibers and ganglia that help control the movement of food and the secretion of digestive enzymes. By being positioned between these two muscle layers, the Auerbach's plexus can effectively coordinate the contractions of the smooth muscles in the gastrointestinal tract to facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients.
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24.
Name the glands associated with GI tract
A.
Liver, parotids and thyroid glands
B.
All answers are wrong
C.
Liver, pancreas and adrenal glands
D.
Pancreas, parotids and thyroid glands
E.
Liver, parotids and pancreas
Correct Answer
E. Liver, parotids and pancreas
Explanation The correct answer is liver, parotids, and pancreas. The liver is an accessory organ of the digestive system that produces bile to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. The parotid glands are salivary glands located near the ears that secrete saliva into the mouth, helping to break down food. The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland that produces digestive enzymes and hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels.
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25.
Parasympathetic preganglionic nerve fibers that target abdominal viscera are provided by:
A.
Sympathetic trunk
B.
Stellate ganglia
C.
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
D.
Thoracolumbar splanchnic nerves
E.
Vagus nerve
Correct Answer
E. Vagus nerve
Explanation The correct answer is the vagus nerve. The vagus nerve is responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to the abdominal viscera. It originates from the brainstem and travels down to innervate various organs in the abdomen, such as the stomach, liver, and intestines. The vagus nerve helps regulate digestion, heart rate, and other autonomic functions in the abdominal region.
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26.
The approximal dimension of the kidneys are (length/width/thickness):
A.
20cm x 6cm x 1cm
B.
10cm x 4cm x 2cm
C.
20cm x 6cm x 3cm
D.
12cm x 3cm x 3cm
E.
12cm x 6cm x 3cm
Correct Answer
E. 12cm x 6cm x 3cm
Explanation The correct answer is 12cm x 6cm x 3cm. This is the only option that matches the typical dimensions of the kidneys. The kidneys are approximately 12cm in length, 6cm in width, and 3cm in thickness.
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27.
The bile duct is most often formed by the:
A.
Right and left hepatic ducts
B.
Main pancreatic duct and common hepatic duct
C.
Main pancreatic duct and cystic duct
D.
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct
E.
Hepatopancreatic duct and cystic duct
Correct Answer
D. Cystic duct and common hepatic duct
Explanation The bile duct is most often formed by the cystic duct and common hepatic duct. The cystic duct connects the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct, which carries bile from the liver. Together, these two ducts form the bile duct, which transports bile to the small intestine to aid in digestion.
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28.
The diameter of the small intestine from the duodenum to the ilium range between:
A.
5 cm to 5 cm
B.
10 cm to 2.5 cm
C.
5 cm to 2.5 cm
D.
5 cm to 1 cm
E.
10 cm to 5 cm
Correct Answer
C. 5 cm to 2.5 cm
Explanation The correct answer is 5 cm to 2.5 cm. This is because the diameter of the small intestine gradually decreases as it progresses from the duodenum to the ilium. The duodenum has a larger diameter of around 5 cm, while the ilium has a smaller diameter of around 2.5 cm.
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29.
The epithelium covering the urinary tract is:
A.
Simple squamous
B.
Simple cuboidal
C.
Stratified squamous keratiniz
D.
Transitional
E.
Simple columnar
Correct Answer
D. Transitional
Explanation The correct answer is transitional because the epithelium covering the urinary tract needs to be able to stretch and accommodate changes in volume as urine passes through. Transitional epithelium is specialized to do this, as it can change shape and stretch when the bladder is full, and then return to its original shape when the bladder is empty. This type of epithelium is found in organs that need to expand and contract, such as the urinary bladder.
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30.
The presence of numerous preganglionic sympathetic neurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord produce the _________
A.
Gray commissure
B.
Lateral horns
C.
Anterior horns
D.
Spinal canal
E.
Posterior horns
Correct Answer
B. Lateral horns
Explanation The presence of numerous preganglionic sympathetic neurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord produce the lateral horns.
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31.
The right lobe of the visceral surface of the liver is in relationship with:
A.
Right kidney, transverse colon and duodenum
B.
Right kidney, right colic flexure and jejunum
C.
All options are wrong
D.
Right kidney, right colic flexure and duodenum
E.
Right kidney, stomach and duodenum
Correct Answer
D. Right kidney, right colic flexure and duodenum
Explanation The correct answer is right kidney, right colic flexure and duodenum. The visceral surface of the liver is the surface that faces the abdominal organs. The right lobe of the liver is in contact with the right kidney, right colic flexure (part of the large intestine), and the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine). This relationship is important for understanding the anatomical connections and potential clinical implications in this area of the abdomen.
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32.
The stomach projects on the anterior abdominal wall at the level of:
A.
Only on the hypogastrium
B.
Only on the epigastrium
C.
Epigastrium and left hypochondria
D.
Only on the mesogastrium
E.
Mesogastrium and left hypochondria
Correct Answer
C. Epigastrium and left hypochondria
Explanation The stomach projects on the anterior abdominal wall at the level of the epigastrium and left hypochondria. This means that the upper part of the stomach, known as the fundus, is located in the epigastrium region, which is the upper central part of the abdomen. The left hypochondria region, on the other hand, is the upper left part of the abdomen, where the body of the stomach is located. Therefore, the correct answer is epigastrium and left hypochondria.
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33.
What makes the portal triad?
A.
A branch of the portal vein, a branch of the central vein and a ramus of the common bile duct
B.
A branch of the portal vein, a branch of hepatic artery and a ramus of the pancreatic duct
C.
A branch of the portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery and a ramus of the common bile duct
D.
None is correct
E.
A branch of the portal vein, a branch of the gastric vein and a ramus of the common bile duct
Correct Answer
C. A branch of the portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery and a ramus of the common bile duct
Explanation The portal triad is made up of a branch of the portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery, and a ramus of the common bile duct. These three structures are found together in the liver and play important roles in its function. The portal vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs to the liver, while the hepatic artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver. The common bile duct carries bile, which is produced by the liver, to the small intestine to aid in digestion. Together, these structures form the portal triad and are essential for the liver's metabolic processes.
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34.
Which of the following are reflections or remnants of peritoneum?
A.
Tunica albuginea
B.
Medial umbilical ligament
C.
Gerota's fascia
D.
Lesser omentum
E.
Glisson's capsule
Correct Answer
D. Lesser omentum
Explanation The lesser omentum is a reflection of the peritoneum, specifically the visceral peritoneum, that connects the lesser curvature of the stomach and the proximal part of the duodenum to the liver. It forms a double layer of peritoneum and contains important structures such as the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct. The other options listed are not reflections or remnants of peritoneum.
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35.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow through the kidneys on its route to the glomeruli of the nephrons?
Which of the following structures develop as intraperitoneal and then becomes secondarily retroperitoneal?
A.
Spleen
B.
Aorta
C.
Pancreas
D.
Transverse colon
E.
Kidney
Correct Answer
C. Pancreas
Explanation The pancreas develops as intraperitoneal and then becomes secondarily retroperitoneal. This means that during embryonic development, the pancreas initially forms within the peritoneal cavity but later moves and attaches to the posterior abdominal wall, behind the peritoneum. This change in position from intraperitoneal to retroperitoneal is a common developmental process for certain organs, including the pancreas.
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37.
Which of the following vessels is a direct tributary of the portal vein:
A.
None of these
B.
Inferior mesenteric vein
C.
Right gastro-omental vein
D.
Hepatic veins
E.
Right gastric vein
Correct Answer
E. Right gastric vein
Explanation The right gastric vein is a direct tributary of the portal vein. It drains blood from the lesser curvature of the stomach and transports it to the portal vein, which then carries the blood to the liver. The other options mentioned are not direct tributaries of the portal vein. The inferior mesenteric vein drains blood from the large intestine and merges with the splenic vein before entering the portal vein. The right gastro-omental vein drains blood from the greater curvature of the stomach and merges with the superior mesenteric vein before entering the portal vein. The hepatic veins drain blood from the liver and do not directly connect to the portal vein.
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38.
Which part of the GI tract mentioned below is most anatomically mobile?
A.
Descending colon
B.
Rectum
C.
Duodenum
D.
Ascending colon
E.
Transverse colon
Correct Answer
E. Transverse colon
Explanation The transverse colon is the part of the large intestine that runs horizontally across the abdomen. It is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a long, flexible mesentery, allowing it to move freely. This mobility allows the transverse colon to change position and accommodate changes in the volume of its contents. In contrast, the ascending and descending colons are relatively fixed in position, and the rectum and duodenum are also less mobile compared to the transverse colon.
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39.
Which statement is correct regarding the functional layer of the endometrium:
A.
It is the portion of the endometrium that doesn't shed during menstruation
B.
It contains the majority of uterine glands and it is vascularized by spiral arteries
C.
The endometrium doesn't present a functional layer
D.
It is formed by connective tissue
E.
It is covered by a stratified squamous epithelium
Correct Answer
B. It contains the majority of uterine glands and it is vascularized by spiral arteries
Explanation The functional layer of the endometrium refers to the layer that undergoes changes during the menstrual cycle and is shed during menstruation. It is responsible for supporting the implantation of a fertilized egg. This layer contains the majority of uterine glands, which produce secretions to nourish a developing embryo. It is also highly vascularized by spiral arteries, which provide the necessary blood supply for the endometrium.
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40.
Within the testis, sperms are produced in the
A.
Epididymis
B.
Tunica albuginea
C.
Seminiferous tubules
D.
Ductus deferens
E.
Rete testis
Correct Answer
C. Seminiferous tubules
Explanation The correct answer is seminiferous tubules. The seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm production within the testis. These tubules are lined with specialized cells called germ cells, which undergo a process called spermatogenesis to produce mature sperm cells. The seminiferous tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm, while other structures such as the epididymis, tunica albuginea, ductus deferens, and rete testis are involved in the transport and storage of sperm.
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41.
Similar to other sections of the large intestine, the rectum is characterized by:
A.
A mesentery
B.
Haustra
C.
Epiploic appendices
D.
None of these
E.
Tenia coli
Correct Answer
D. None of these
Explanation The rectum is not characterized by any of the given options. The rectum is the final part of the large intestine, and it does not have a mesentery (a fold of the peritoneum that attaches organs to the abdominal wall), haustra (pouches in the colon), epiploic appendices (small fatty projections on the colon), or tenia coli (bands of smooth muscle in the colon). Therefore, the correct answer is "none of these."
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42.
The ureters present constrictions at the following locations:
Correct Answer
A. Ureteropelvic junction, pelvic brim, bladder wall
Explanation The correct answer is ureteropelvic junction, pelvic brim, bladder wall. The ureters are narrow tubes that connect the kidneys to the bladder. They have constrictions at specific locations to help control the flow of urine. The ureteropelvic junction is where the ureter connects to the renal pelvis of the kidney. The pelvic brim is the boundary between the pelvic cavity and the abdominal cavity, and the ureters pass through this area. The bladder wall is another location where the ureters constrict before entering the bladder. Therefore, all three of these locations have constrictions in the ureters.
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43.
Which statement regarding the rectouterine pouch is false:
A.
It is associated with the anterior vaginal fornix
B.
It contains terminal loops of the small intestine
C.
It is the lowest point of the peritoneal cavity
D.
It can be reached by rectal investigation
E.
It is associated with the posterior vaginal fornix
Correct Answer
A. It is associated with the anterior vaginal fornix
Explanation The rectouterine pouch, also known as the pouch of Douglas, is a peritoneal recess located between the rectum and the uterus in females. It is the lowest point of the peritoneal cavity and can be reached by rectal investigation. It is associated with the posterior vaginal fornix, not the anterior vaginal fornix.
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44.
Which of following statements regarding the ovary is false:
A.
The ligament of ovary (utero-ovarian) contains vessels and nerve
B.
It is also vascularized by the uterine artery
C.
It is vascularized by the ovarian artery
D.
The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein
E.
The suspensory ligament of the ovary contains vessels and nerve
Correct Answer
A. The ligament of ovary (utero-ovarian) contains vessels and nerve
Explanation The ligament of ovary (utero-ovarian) does not contain vessels and nerve.
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45.
Which of the following is true regarding the relations of the pancreas?
A.
The splenic artery runs along its inferior border
B.
The neck crosses the midline slightly superior to the transpyloric plan
C.
The accessory pancreatic duct drains inferiorly to the horizontal part of the duodenum
D.
It lies on the posterior wall of the omental bursae
E.
The portal vein forms anterior to the neck and body
Correct Answer
D. It lies on the posterior wall of the omental bursae
Explanation The pancreas lies on the posterior wall of the omental bursae.
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