1.
True about apoptosis except?
Correct Answer
D. None
Explanation
All the statements provided in the question are true about apoptosis. Surface death receptors are indeed present in the extrinsic pathway, while the intrinsic pathway does take place in the mitochondria. Both pathways are mediated by initiator caspases. Therefore, the correct answer is "None" because there is no statement that is false or incorrect.
2.
All are true except?
Correct Answer
C. NADpH oxidase produces free radicals
Explanation
NADPH oxidase produces free radicals. Fenton's reaction is a chemical reaction that generates free radicals, while glutathione peroxidase is an enzyme that eliminates free radicals. Therefore, the statement "NADPH oxidase produces free radicals" is the only one that is not true.
3.
Touton type giant cells are seen in?
Correct Answer
C. Xanthoma
Explanation
Touton type giant cells are seen in xanthoma. Xanthomas are localized deposits of fat in the skin, tendons, or organs. Touton type giant cells are a specific type of giant cell that are characteristic of xanthomas. These giant cells have a ring of nuclei surrounding a central area of foamy cytoplasm. Therefore, xanthoma is the correct answer as it is the condition in which Touton type giant cells are observed.
4.
Carcinoma due to chronic pernicious anemia develops in?
Correct Answer
C. Fundus
Explanation
Carcinoma due to chronic pernicious anemia develops in the fundus. Chronic pernicious anemia is a condition characterized by the inability to absorb vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency. This deficiency can cause changes in the gastric mucosa, including atrophy and metaplasia. The fundus of the stomach is particularly affected by these changes, making it more susceptible to the development of carcinoma. Therefore, the fundus is the most likely site for the development of carcinoma in individuals with chronic pernicious anemia.
5.
MHC 2 related to?
Correct Answer
D. All
Explanation
MHC 2 molecules are found on the surface of antigen presenting cells, such as dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. These molecules play a crucial role in presenting antigens to helper T cells, which are important for activating the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is "All" because MHC 2 is related to antigen presenting cells, humoral immunity, and dendritic cells.
6.
Popcorn cells are seen in?
Correct Answer
C. Hodgkins lympHoma
Explanation
Popcorn cells are a characteristic feature of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are named so because they have a characteristic appearance under the microscope, resembling popped corn kernels. They are large, binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli. Other types of lymphomas, such as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and rhabdomyosarcoma, do not typically exhibit popcorn cells. Therefore, the correct answer is Hodgkin's lymphoma.
7.
Mast cells are numerous in?
Correct Answer
B. Neurofibroma
Explanation
Neurofibromas are tumors that arise from the cells that support the nerves in the body. These tumors are composed of various cell types, including mast cells. Mast cells are immune cells that play a role in allergic reactions and inflammation. Therefore, neurofibromas, being tumors that originate from nerve support cells, are likely to have a high number of mast cells.
8.
Asteroid bodies are seen in?
Correct Answer
B. Sarcoidois
Explanation
Asteroid bodies are a characteristic finding in sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis is a multisystem inflammatory disease that can affect various organs, including the lungs, lymph nodes, skin, and eyes. Asteroid bodies are small, star-shaped inclusions that are found within giant cells called Langhans giant cells. These structures are thought to represent calcified proteinaceous material. Therefore, the correct answer is sarcoidosis.
9.
The best method for confirming amyloidosis?
Correct Answer
B. Rectal biopsy
Explanation
A rectal biopsy is the best method for confirming amyloidosis because it allows for the direct examination of the rectal tissue, which is commonly affected by amyloid deposits. During a rectal biopsy, a small sample of tissue is taken from the rectum and examined under a microscope for the presence of amyloid deposits. This method provides a more accurate diagnosis compared to other options such as tongue biopsy, colonoscopy, or sigmoidoscopy, which may not specifically target the affected area or provide sufficient tissue samples for analysis.
10.
Ca 125 is a diagnostic marker for?
Correct Answer
B. Ovarian cancer
Explanation
CA 125 is a diagnostic marker commonly used in the detection and monitoring of ovarian cancer. It is a protein that is elevated in the blood of many women with ovarian cancer. Measuring CA 125 levels can help in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer, as well as in monitoring the effectiveness of treatment and detecting any recurrence of the disease. Therefore, the correct answer is ovarian cancer.
11.
Marker for hodgkins lymphoma?
Correct Answer
B. CD 15 and 30
Explanation
CD 15 and 30 are markers for Hodgkin's lymphoma. CD 15 is a marker for Reed-Sternberg cells, which are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. CD 30 is also expressed on Reed-Sternberg cells and is commonly used as a diagnostic marker for Hodgkin's lymphoma. These markers help in identifying the presence of Hodgkin's lymphoma cells and differentiate it from other types of lymphomas. CD 5 and 10 are not specific markers for Hodgkin's lymphoma, and HMB 45 is a marker for melanoma, not lymphoma.
12.
Cell cycle regulating oncogene?
Correct Answer
A. CDK4
Explanation
CDK4 is a cell cycle regulating oncogene. It plays a crucial role in controlling the progression of the cell cycle by forming a complex with cyclin D and phosphorylating the retinoblastoma protein (Rb). This phosphorylation releases Rb's inhibitory effect on the cell cycle, allowing the cell to proceed from the G1 to the S phase. Dysregulation of CDK4 can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and division, contributing to the development of cancer. Therefore, CDK4 is a key player in cell cycle regulation and a potential target for cancer therapies.
13.
Hemodialysis associated amyloid?
Correct Answer
B. Beta 2 microglobulin
Explanation
Hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis is a condition that occurs in patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis. It is characterized by the deposition of amyloid fibrils in various tissues, particularly in joints and bones. The main component of these amyloid fibrils is Beta 2 microglobulin, which is a protein that is normally present on the surface of cells and is involved in immune response. However, in patients with end-stage renal disease undergoing hemodialysis, Beta 2 microglobulin accumulates in the blood due to impaired clearance by the kidneys, leading to its deposition as amyloid fibrils. Therefore, Beta 2 microglobulin is the correct answer in this context.
14.
Not a feature of apoptosis?
Correct Answer
A. Cellular swelling
Explanation
Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that occurs in multicellular organisms. During apoptosis, cells undergo a series of controlled events that ultimately lead to their death. One of the characteristic features of apoptosis is the shrinkage of the cell, not cellular swelling. Therefore, cellular swelling is not a feature of apoptosis. Instead, apoptosis involves nuclear compaction, which refers to the condensation and fragmentation of the cell's nucleus. Additionally, apoptosis also involves the maintenance of an intact cell membrane until the final stages of the process.
15.
Infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis known as?
Correct Answer
C. Assmans focus
Explanation
Assman's focus refers to an infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis. This term is named after the German pathologist, Friedrich Assmann. It is a localized area of infection in the lungs that occurs as a result of primary tuberculosis. The lesion typically consists of a small calcified nodule surrounded by fibrous tissue. This focus is an important diagnostic feature of tuberculosis and can be seen on chest X-rays.
16.
Onion thickening of arteriolar walls seen in?
Correct Answer
B. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
Explanation
Hyaline arteriosclerosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and hardening of the arteriolar walls. This occurs due to the deposition of a protein called hyaline in the walls of small arteries and arterioles. This condition is commonly associated with chronic hypertension and diabetes. It can lead to a decrease in blood flow and oxygen supply to various organs, potentially causing organ damage. Garres osteomyelitis is a bone infection, Raynaud's disease is a condition characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in response to cold or stress, and Beurgers disease is a condition that involves inflammation and clotting of the small and medium-sized arteries in the extremities.
17.
Edema in nephrotic syndrome caused by?
Correct Answer
B. Hypoalbuminemia
Explanation
In nephrotic syndrome, there is a significant loss of protein, particularly albumin, through the urine. This leads to a decrease in the levels of albumin in the blood, known as hypoalbuminemia. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids in the body by exerting an osmotic pressure that keeps fluid within the blood vessels. When albumin levels are low, the osmotic pressure decreases, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate in the tissues, resulting in edema. Therefore, hypoalbuminemia is the main cause of edema in nephrotic syndrome.
18.
Does Berry aneurysm defect lie in______________
Correct Answer
A. Degeneration of media layer
Explanation
Berry aneurysm is a type of aneurysm that occurs in the brain's blood vessels. It is characterized by a bulging or ballooning of the blood vessel wall, usually at a weak point where the vessel branches. The correct answer, "Degeneration of media layer," refers to the degeneration of the middle layer of the blood vessel wall, known as the media. This degeneration weakens the vessel wall, making it more prone to bulging and forming an aneurysm. Inflammation in the vessel wall and degeneration of the internal elastic lamina can also contribute to the development of a berry aneurysm, but the degeneration of the media layer is the primary factor.
19.
Schilling test is used to find out ?
Correct Answer
D. Vit.B12 malabsorption
Explanation
The Schilling test is a diagnostic test used to determine the cause of vitamin B12 malabsorption. This test involves the administration of radioactive vitamin B12 and measuring the amount of radioactivity excreted in the urine. If there is a deficiency in the absorption of vitamin B12, it can lead to various symptoms such as anemia, fatigue, and neurological problems. Therefore, the Schilling test is used to identify the underlying cause of vitamin B12 malabsorption, which can be due to factors such as pernicious anemia or gastrointestinal disorders.
20.
In tumour Telomerase get?
Correct Answer
A. Reactivated
Explanation
Telomerase is an enzyme that helps maintain the length of telomeres, which are protective caps at the ends of chromosomes. In normal cells, telomerase is usually inactive, preventing unlimited cell division. However, in cancer cells, telomerase can be reactivated, allowing the cells to continuously divide and grow. Therefore, the correct answer is "Reactivated" as tumour cells often have increased telomerase activity compared to normal cells.