Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

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  • 1/286 Questions

    When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

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About This Quiz

This EMT quiz assesses critical skills and knowledge required for emergency medical technicians. It covers equipment usage, communication protocols, and scene assessment, crucial for effective emergency response and patient care.

Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

    • High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask..

    • Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask(BVM) and high flow oxygen.

    • High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.

    • Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask(BVM) and high flow oxygen.
    Explanation
    If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates that their respiratory function is compromised. In such a situation, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen is the most appropriate course of action. This method ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygen supply and helps to maintain their breathing until further medical assistance is available. Using a BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing, while high flow oxygen ensures a sufficient oxygen concentration.

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  • 3. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • An significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    Explanation
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when a patient has experienced a significant mechanism of injury, such as a severe car accident or a fall from a height, the assessment will prioritize assessing and addressing any potential life-threatening injuries in the area of the body that is most at risk. This allows medical professionals to quickly identify and treat any immediate threats to the patient's life and stabilize them before addressing other injuries or areas of the body.

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  • 4. 

    Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

    • Army field litter

    • Long backboard

    • Scoop stretcher

    • Stoke's basket

    Correct Answer
    A. Army field litter
    Explanation
    The Army field litter is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. This device is specifically designed to safely transport injured individuals in challenging environments. It is lightweight, portable, and can be easily carried by a team of medical personnel. The litter is equipped with handles and straps to secure the patient during transportation. Its design allows for quick and efficient evacuation of casualties, making it an essential tool in emergency situations.

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  • 5. 

    If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

    • Initial patient assessment

    • Detailed physical exam

    • Initial physical exam

    • Vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Detailed physical exam
    Explanation
    In a situation where a severely injured patient's life is at risk, it may be necessary to prioritize immediate life-saving interventions over a detailed physical examination. The detailed physical exam involves a thorough assessment of the patient's body systems, which can be time-consuming and may delay critical interventions. In such cases, it is more important to quickly assess and address the life-threatening problem, such as controlling bleeding or ensuring proper breathing, rather than conducting a detailed examination.

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  • 6. 

    In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of a unstable patient?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should check and evaluate the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure their stability and make any necessary adjustments to their treatment plan. Regular reassessment is crucial in monitoring the patient's vital signs, response to treatment, and overall progress, especially in critical or unstable situations.

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  • 7. 

    In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

    • Left atrium

    • Right atrium

    • Left ventricle

    • Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Right atrium
    Explanation
    The pacemaker lead is inserted in the right atrium when using a temporary external pulse generator system. This is because the right atrium is one of the chambers of the heart where the electrical signals originate and is commonly used as the insertion site for temporary pacemaker leads.

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  • 8. 

    In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

    • Statement that he or she feels dizzy

    • Plan to resolve a health issue

    • Complaint of headache

    • Pulse rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse rate
    Explanation
    In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's pulse rate. This is because the pulse rate provides valuable information about the patient's cardiovascular health and can help in assessing their overall well-being. Monitoring the pulse rate can help identify any abnormalities or irregularities that may require further investigation or treatment. Additionally, changes in the pulse rate can also indicate the effectiveness of any interventions or treatments being implemented to resolve a health issue.

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  • 9. 

    What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

    • Postural hypotension

    • Positional hypotension

    • Situational hypotension

    • Environmental hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Postural hypotension
    Explanation
    Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is also known as postural hypotension because it is characterized by a decrease in blood pressure upon assuming an upright posture. The term "postural hypotension" accurately describes the condition and is commonly used interchangeably with orthostatic hypotension. The other options, including positional hypotension, situational hypotension, and environmental hypotension, do not accurately represent the condition and are not commonly used terms.

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  • 10. 

    After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment what should you do next?

    • Apply a sterile dressing

    • Assess sensory awareness

    • Begin suturing the wound

    • Soak the wound in cold water

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess sensory awareness
    Explanation
    After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This is because the anesthetic may numb the area and temporarily impair the person's ability to feel pain or sensation. By assessing sensory awareness, you can ensure that the anesthetic has taken effect and determine if further treatment, such as suturing the wound or applying a sterile dressing, can be done without causing discomfort or harm to the patient.

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  • 11. 

    Deficiency in a respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Deficiency in respirations, such as slow or irregular shallow respirations, can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. This causes a decrease in blood pH, leading to a condition called respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the respiratory system is unable to eliminate enough carbon dioxide from the body, resulting in an acidic imbalance.

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  • 12. 

    What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

    • Call the nurse to come see the patient

    • Call the doctor to come seethe patient

    • Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab

    • Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
    Explanation
    If a small object is identified while straining urine, the appropriate steps would be to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is the correct answer because placing the object in a sterile urine cup ensures that it is properly contained and preserved for further examination. Notifying the nurse is important as they can then inform the relevant healthcare professionals and take appropriate actions based on the findings.

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  • 13. 

    Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

    • Illness

    • Wellness

    • Diagnosis

    • Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Rehabilitation
    Explanation
    During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization are particularly relevant. This is because rehabilitation focuses on helping patients regain their independence and achieve their highest level of functioning after an illness, injury, or surgery. By promoting self-actualization, nurses support patients in reaching their full potential and regaining control over their lives. This may involve providing emotional support, encouraging autonomy, promoting self-care skills, and assisting with goal-setting and achievement. Overall, the rehabilitation phase aims to empower patients and enhance their overall well-being.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • Blood pressure screenings

    • Assessing current fitness status

    • Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help in identifying individuals who may have high blood pressure and need medical intervention. Regular screenings can help in early detection and prevention of cardiovascular diseases, which are a common health issue in the workplace. By offering blood pressure screenings, the work site wellness program aims to promote employee health and well-being, and encourage individuals to take necessary steps to manage their blood pressure and overall health.

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  • 15. 

    A good source of protein is?

    • Fruits

    • Rice

    • Poultry

    • Vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. Poultry
    Explanation
    Poultry is a good source of protein because it contains high-quality, complete protein that provides all the essential amino acids our body needs. Poultry, such as chicken and turkey, is lean meat that is low in fat and cholesterol, making it a healthier protein option compared to other sources. It also contains important nutrients like iron and B vitamins, which are essential for energy production and overall health. Including poultry in our diet can help promote muscle growth, repair tissues, and support a healthy immune system.

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  • 16. 

    Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Hemolytic anemia

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as weakness, fatigue, and neurological symptoms, are often first observed in individuals with pernicious anemia. This condition occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough B12 from the diet, leading to a decrease in the production of healthy red blood cells. Aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia are not directly related to B12 deficiency and have different underlying causes.

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  • 17. 

    Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with

    • Anemia

    • Seizures

    • Strabismus

    • Disfigurement

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizures
    Explanation
    Overdosing on B6 during pregnancy can lead to seizures in newborns. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in brain development. However, excessive intake of B6 can be toxic and cause neurological problems. Seizures are a common symptom of B6 toxicity, particularly in newborns whose developing brains are more vulnerable. Anemia, strabismus, and disfigurement are not typically associated with B6 overdose during pregnancy.

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  • 18. 

    A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

    • Myopia

    • Presbyopia

    • Night blindness

    • Macular degeneration

    Correct Answer
    A. Night blindness
    Explanation
    Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin, which is necessary for good vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is affected, leading to difficulty in seeing in dim light or at night. Therefore, night blindness is a common symptom of vitamin A deficiency.

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  • 19. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When a individual is unable to sink in water

    • Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    Sodium chloride, also known as salt, plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, it can lead to sodium chloride deficiency. This deficiency can manifest in various symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and even confusion. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be observed through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 20. 

    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

    • Salts

    • Acids

    • Catalyzed

    • Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    A. Acids
    Explanation
    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH value less than 7 and are capable of donating a proton or hydrogen ion when dissolved in water. They are known for their sour taste and ability to react with bases to form salts. Acids are commonly used in various industries, such as the production of fertilizers, cleaning agents, and food additives.

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  • 21. 

    What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

    • Stomach

    • Heart

    • Brain

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids. The liver produces bile, which helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. It also synthesizes cholesterol and triglycerides, and regulates their levels in the body. Additionally, the liver is involved in converting excess glucose into fatty acids, and vice versa, to maintain a balance in lipid metabolism. Overall, the liver is a central organ in lipid metabolism and its proper functioning is essential for maintaining lipid homeostasis in the body.

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  • 22. 

    What cells do lymph nods contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

    • Lymphocytes and macrophages

    • Polyleukocytes and monocytes

    • Monocytes and phagocytes

    • Neutrophils and leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes and macrophages
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response, producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system's response to pathogens. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys foreign substances, including microorganisms. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to detect, destroy, and eliminate invading microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.

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  • 23. 

    Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

    • Secondary immune response

    • Primary immune response

    • Partial immune response

    • Single immune response

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary immune response
    Explanation
    When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because it is the initial reaction of his immune system to the virus. The primary immune response involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, and the production of specific antibodies to target and eliminate the virus. This response is crucial in building immunity against future infections with the same virus.

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  • 24. 

    During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

    • Bruising

    • Maturation

    • Inflammation

    • Reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    During the inflammation stage of healing, immature fiber cells and capillaries are formed. Inflammation is the initial response to tissue injury and is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. During this stage, the body releases chemicals that attract immune cells to the injured area. These immune cells help remove debris and initiate the formation of new blood vessels (capillaries) to provide oxygen and nutrients to the healing tissue. Immature fiber cells are also formed during this stage, which eventually mature and form scar tissue during the later stages of healing.

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  • 25. 

    For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

    • Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

    • Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath

    • Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate

    • Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes." Severe injuries or medical conditions can lead to neurological damage, which can manifest as impaired vision and uncoordinated movement. Additionally, the brain's functioning may be affected, resulting in behavioral changes.

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  • 26. 

    As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed?

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Every two years

    • As needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Area-specific general operating instructions (OI) should be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up to date and in compliance with any changes in regulations, procedures, or equipment. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or revisions to be made, ensuring that employees have the most accurate and current information when performing their tasks. By conducting an annual review, organizations can maintain the effectiveness and safety of their operating instructions and mitigate any potential risks or hazards.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen

    • Antibody

    • Pathogen

    • Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts its normal functioning. Pathogens can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild infections to severe diseases. They are capable of reproducing and spreading within the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, inflammation, and tissue damage. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.

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  • 28. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstral cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can occur in females who have gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread to the reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, and can result in long-term complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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  • 29. 

    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

    • Disinfectant

    • Antiseptic

    • Detergent

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin and other external surfaces of the body to prevent infection. Disinfectants, on the other hand, are used on inanimate objects and surfaces to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms. Detergents are used for cleaning purposes and do not have the same antimicrobial properties as antiseptics. Antitoxins are substances that neutralize toxins produced by microorganisms, but they do not directly inhibit their growth or development.

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  • 30. 

    What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 6 months

    • When package integrity is compromised

    Correct Answer
    A. When package integrity is compromised
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when package integrity is compromised. This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is indefinite as long as the package remains sealed and intact. However, if there is any damage or compromise to the packaging, the equipment should be considered unsterile and should not be used. This emphasizes the importance of maintaining the integrity of the packaging to ensure the sterility of the equipment.

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  • 31. 

    What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • Between 112 and 121 degrees F

    • Between 122 and 131 degrees F

    • Between 215 and 230 degrees F

    • Option 4Between 270 and 285 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 122 and 131 degrees F
    Explanation
    Peracetic acid sterilizers use a temperature range of between 122 and 131 degrees Fahrenheit for the sterilization cycle. This specific temperature range is necessary to ensure the effective sterilization of the equipment or materials being treated. Lower temperatures may not be sufficient to kill all microorganisms, while higher temperatures may cause damage to the items being sterilized. Therefore, maintaining the temperature within this range is crucial for the proper functioning of the peracetic acid sterilizer.

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  • 32. 

    What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

    • Risk assessment and control

    • Risk management and patient safety

    • Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control

    • Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control
    Explanation
    The foundations of safe and effective healthcare involve proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare providers should actively seek out potential risks, evaluate their potential impact, and take measures to prevent or mitigate them. By being proactive in identifying and addressing risks, healthcare providers can minimize the chances of adverse events and ensure the safety and well-being of their patients. This approach also emphasizes the importance of continuous monitoring and improvement to maintain a high standard of patient care.

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  • 33. 

    Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

    • Dentists

    • Registered Nurses

    • Physician Assistants (PA)

    • Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Registered Nurses
    Explanation
    Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They are trained healthcare professionals who have the knowledge and skills to provide a wide range of healthcare services. They can assess patients, diagnose illnesses, and prescribe medications. Therefore, the correct answer is Registered Nurses.

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  • 34. 

    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

    • Patient's condition and the cost of admission per day

    • Facility policy and the patient's distance from home

    • Patient's condition and the facility policy

    • Facility policy and patient's request

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient's condition and the facility policy
    Explanation
    The steps in the routine admission process are determined by considering the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to ensure that they receive the appropriate level of care and treatment. The facility policy is also taken into account to ensure that the admission process follows the guidelines and protocols set by the healthcare institution. By considering both factors, the admission process can be tailored to meet the specific needs of the patient while adhering to the policies and procedures of the facility.

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  • 35. 

    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • Evaluate patient

    • Obtain patient's history

    • Transcribe doctor's order

    • Obtain patient's vital signs, height and weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain patient's vital signs, height and weight
    Explanation
    During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important in order to assess the patient's current health status and to establish a baseline for future comparisons. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide valuable information to the healthcare team, enabling them to monitor the patient's condition and make informed decisions regarding their care.

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  • 36. 

    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

    • Pass

    • Discharges

    • Subsisting elsewhere

    • Absent without leave (AWOL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    The term "pass" is commonly used in medical facilities to refer to a temporary departure of a patient from the facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 and 48 hours. This allows the patient to leave the facility for various reasons such as attending a family event or personal matters, while still being under the care of the medical staff. It is a regulated and authorized process that ensures the patient's safety and well-being during their absence.

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  • 37. 

    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

    • No documentation is required at shift change

    • Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • Document in the Grand Total book

    • Circle the last accumulated total

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle the last accumulated total
    Explanation
    The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output values should be calculated and circled to indicate that they have been recorded. This ensures that the shift change is properly documented and allows for easy tracking and monitoring of intake and output levels.

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  • 38. 

    Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

    • An observable change in patient behavior

    • A measurable change in the patient's condition

    • A realistic and measurable statement of end result of care planning

    • A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
    Explanation
    A client goal in the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement that describes the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be achievable and specific, and it should provide a clear indication of the desired outcome of the care planning. By setting such goals, nurses can effectively plan and evaluate the effectiveness of their interventions in promoting positive changes in the patient's behavior.

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  • 39. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • Credentials of the surgeon

    • Availability of a base chaplain

    • Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff

    • Number of nurses and technicians on staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
    Explanation
    The perceived quality of care and treatment is significantly impacted by the professionalism and caring attitude of the staff. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism, they adhere to ethical standards, maintain competence, and prioritize patient well-being. Additionally, a caring attitude fosters a supportive and empathetic environment, which enhances the patient's experience and satisfaction. Patients are more likely to trust and feel comfortable with healthcare providers who display professionalism and a caring attitude, leading to improved perceived quality of care and treatment.

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  • 40. 

    Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings maybe removed?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Without provider approval, antiembolism stockings may be removed for a maximum of 30 minutes.

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  • 41. 

    Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

    • Standing hamstring stretches

    • Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB)

    • Diaphragmatic breathing

    • Circles with the big toes

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing hamstring stretches
    Explanation
    Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they involve bending forward at the waist and stretching the back of the thigh muscles. This movement may put strain on the surgical site and increase the risk of complications. Postoperative patients are usually advised to avoid activities that involve bending, twisting, or putting excessive strain on the surgical area to promote proper healing and prevent any potential damage. Therefore, standing hamstring stretches are not commonly recommended for postoperative patients.

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  • 42. 

    How is whole blood normally supplied?

    • 100 cc units

    • 250 cc units

    • 450 cc units

    • 500 cc units

    Correct Answer
    A. 450 cc units
    Explanation
    Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that when blood is collected from a donor, it is typically collected in 450 cc units. This standard unit size allows for efficient processing and storage of blood products. It also ensures that an adequate amount of blood is available for transfusion when needed.

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  • 43. 

    What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?

    • 20

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30 minutes. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may compromise the quality of the blood products and increase the risk of complications for the recipient.

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  • 44. 

    Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

    • Infectious

    • Congenital

    • Pathologic

    • Temporary

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopedic deformities like clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. Congenital means that these deformities are present at birth and are typically caused by abnormal development or genetic factors. This distinguishes them from deformities that are acquired later in life due to infection, injury, or disease.

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  • 45. 

    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called

    • Hairline

    • Pathologic

    • Congenital

    • Traumatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathologic
    Explanation
    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone is unable to withstand normal stress or pressure, leading to a break. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells infiltrate the bone, causing it to become weak and susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are different from traumatic fractures, which occur due to an external force or injury, and congenital fractures, which are present at birth. Hairline fractures are small cracks in the bone that are often difficult to detect.

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  • 46. 

    Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

    • Crepitus

    • Vibration

    • Resonance

    • Intonation

    Correct Answer
    A. Crepitus
    Explanation
    Crepitus is the correct answer because it is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often described as a crackling or grating noise and can occur due to various reasons such as arthritis, joint injuries, or bone fractures. Crepitus is commonly associated with joint problems and can be a symptom of underlying medical conditions.

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  • 47. 

    The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

    • Phantom limb pain

    • Phantom limb sensation

    • Physiological phenomena

    • Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present in the amputated limb but is perceived by the individual. It is a physiological phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of the limb and the resulting rewiring of neural pathways. This pain is not a psychological phenomenon but rather a real and distressing sensation that requires medical attention and treatment.

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  • 48. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • NG tube

    • Tourniquet

    • Oxygen

    • Suction

    Correct Answer
    A. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. This is because a tourniquet is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the limb and restricting blood flow. It helps to prevent excessive blood loss and allows the healthcare provider to safely manage the wound and provide necessary care.

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  • 49. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

    • Aspiration

    • Cardiac arrest

    • Disorientation

    • Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest because the sudden movement can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the heart, potentially causing a heart attack or arrhythmia. The spinal cord injury may already compromise the patient's cardiovascular system, making them more susceptible to cardiac arrest. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully to avoid any further complications.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 31, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 31, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 12, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Nekokise
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