Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

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| Attempts: 1,687 | Questions: 200 | Updated: Jul 22, 2025
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1. Nonopioid analgesics are available 

Explanation

Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, which means that they can be purchased without a prescription from a healthcare professional. This is in contrast to medications that are only available by prescription, which require a doctor's authorization. Over the counter medications are typically considered safe for self-use and are widely accessible to the general public.

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About This Quiz
Quiz On Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) - Quiz

This EMT quiz assesses critical skills and knowledge required for emergency medical technicians. It covers equipment usage, communication protocols, and scene assessment, crucial for effective emergency response and patient care.

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2. To use the internal girdle of support, you must 

Explanation

To use the internal girdle of support, it is necessary to simultaneously contract both the abdominal and buttocks muscles. This is because these muscles work together to provide stability and support to the core and lower body. By contracting the abdominal muscles, the core is engaged and provides a strong foundation for movement. Simultaneously contracting the buttocks muscles helps to stabilize the pelvis and maintain proper alignment. This combination of muscle activation helps to maintain proper posture and support the spine during movement.

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3. Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with 

Explanation

Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with preventing the formation of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in the inflammatory response. By preventing their formation, anti-inflammatory drugs can reduce inflammation and associated symptoms such as pain, swelling, and redness. This mechanism of action is commonly used in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions, including arthritis, asthma, and certain skin disorders.

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4. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

Explanation

During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization are particularly relevant. This is because rehabilitation focuses on helping patients regain their independence and achieve their highest level of functioning after an illness, injury, or surgery. By promoting self-actualization, nurses support patients in reaching their full potential and regaining control over their lives. This may involve providing emotional support, encouraging autonomy, promoting self-care skills, and assisting with goal-setting and achievement. Overall, the rehabilitation phase aims to empower patients and enhance their overall well-being.

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5. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

Explanation

When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, and if not properly managed, it can result in dehydration. Dehydration can be particularly dangerous for children as they have a higher risk of complications. It is important to monitor their fluid intake and provide them with rehydration solutions or fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain their overall well-being.

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6. When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is

Explanation

When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is to manage the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause damage to the respiratory system, leading to difficulty in breathing or airway obstruction. Therefore, ensuring the patient's airway is clear and maintaining proper ventilation is crucial in order to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety. Applying sterile dressings to the burn sites, evaluating the extent of the burn, and infection control are important steps in the overall management of the patient, but they come after addressing the airway.

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7. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Explanation

The Army field litter is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. This device is specifically designed to safely transport injured individuals in challenging environments. It is lightweight, portable, and can be easily carried by a team of medical personnel. The litter is equipped with handles and straps to secure the patient during transportation. Its design allows for quick and efficient evacuation of casualties, making it an essential tool in emergency situations.

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8. How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound? 

Explanation

Wet to dry dressing is used to debride a wound by removing dead tissue and promoting wound healing. The wet dressing is applied to the wound and allowed to dry. As it dries, it adheres to the wound and when removed, it pulls away dead tissue and debris. This helps in cleaning the wound and promoting the growth of healthy tissue.

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9. When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control? 

Explanation

When a patient is taking penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat and also using oral contraceptives for birth control, it is important for the patient to use a backup method of birth control while taking the penicillin. This is because penicillin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, using a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, is necessary to ensure contraception during the course of penicillin treatment.

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10. What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound? 

Explanation

The proper sequence for cleaning a wound is to first remove the old dressing to expose the wound. Then, don sterile gloves to maintain a sterile environment and prevent contamination. Finally, wipe from the wound outwards to remove any debris or bacteria from the wound site. This sequence helps to ensure proper wound care and minimize the risk of infection.

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11. Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Explanation

Drawsheets are used to assist in moving a patient by sliding them across a surface, such as from a bed to a stretcher. Roller boards are also used for this purpose, as they provide a smooth and stable surface for the patient to slide on. Therefore, using a drawsheet in combination with a roller board would be the most appropriate and effective method for sliding a patient from a bed to a stretcher.

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12. If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? 

Explanation

If the patient develops diarrhea after five days of penicillin treatment, adding yogurt or buttermilk to their diet and monitoring the number of episodes would be appropriate advice. This is because diarrhea can be a common side effect of taking antibiotics, including penicillin, as it can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the gut. Yogurt or buttermilk contains probiotics, which are beneficial bacteria that can help restore the balance and alleviate symptoms of diarrhea. Monitoring the number of episodes is important to ensure that the condition does not worsen and to determine if any further medical intervention is necessary.

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13. Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

Explanation

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH value less than 7 and are capable of donating a proton or hydrogen ion when dissolved in water. They are known for their sour taste and ability to react with bases to form salts. Acids are commonly used in various industries, such as the production of fertilizers, cleaning agents, and food additives.

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14. Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? 

Explanation

Tetracyclines, Gentamycin, and Procardia are not known to interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest. However, Theophyline is a medication that can interact with quinolones and increase the risk of cardiac arrest.

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15. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

Explanation

In a situation where a severely injured patient's life is at risk, it may be necessary to prioritize immediate life-saving interventions over a detailed physical examination. The detailed physical exam involves a thorough assessment of the patient's body systems, which can be time-consuming and may delay critical interventions. In such cases, it is more important to quickly assess and address the life-threatening problem, such as controlling bleeding or ensuring proper breathing, rather than conducting a detailed examination.

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16. Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

Explanation

Influenza vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products because the vaccine is typically produced using chicken eggs. Therefore, individuals with egg allergies may have an allergic reaction to the vaccine.

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17. Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

Explanation

Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They are trained healthcare professionals who have the knowledge and skills to provide a wide range of healthcare services. They can assess patients, diagnose illnesses, and prescribe medications. Therefore, the correct answer is Registered Nurses.

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18. Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

Explanation

A client goal in the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement that describes the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be achievable and specific, and it should provide a clear indication of the desired outcome of the care planning. By setting such goals, nurses can effectively plan and evaluate the effectiveness of their interventions in promoting positive changes in the patient's behavior.

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19. As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed?

Explanation

Area-specific general operating instructions (OI) should be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up to date and in compliance with any changes in regulations, procedures, or equipment. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or revisions to be made, ensuring that employees have the most accurate and current information when performing their tasks. By conducting an annual review, organizations can maintain the effectiveness and safety of their operating instructions and mitigate any potential risks or hazards.

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20. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Explanation

A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts its normal functioning. Pathogens can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild infections to severe diseases. They are capable of reproducing and spreading within the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, inflammation, and tissue damage. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.

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21. Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? 

Explanation

Passive exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise. This type of exercise involves the therapist or a machine moving the patient's body or limbs to perform the exercise, without any effort or voluntary muscle contraction from the patient. It helps in maintaining or improving joint flexibility, preventing muscle atrophy, and promoting blood circulation in patients who are unable to actively participate in exercise due to physical limitations or medical conditions.

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22. Which element is not required on a medication order? 

Explanation

A medication order typically includes the patient's name, specified time, and the provider's signature. The patient's age is not necessary for a medication order as it does not directly impact the prescription or administration of the medication. The age may be relevant for determining the appropriate dosage, but this information can be obtained from the patient's medical record or by directly asking the patient. Therefore, it is not a required element on a medication order.

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23. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's custom can help stimulate their appetite because elderly patients often have specific preferences and dietary restrictions. By providing them with food that they are familiar with and enjoy, it can increase their interest in eating and make the meal more enjoyable. This approach recognizes the importance of personalizing their dining experience and respecting their individual needs and preferences.

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24. Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

Explanation

Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they involve bending forward at the waist and stretching the back of the thigh muscles. This movement may put strain on the surgical site and increase the risk of complications. Postoperative patients are usually advised to avoid activities that involve bending, twisting, or putting excessive strain on the surgical area to promote proper healing and prevent any potential damage. Therefore, standing hamstring stretches are not commonly recommended for postoperative patients.

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25. In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of a unstable patient?

Explanation

The recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should check and evaluate the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure their stability and make any necessary adjustments to their treatment plan. Regular reassessment is crucial in monitoring the patient's vital signs, response to treatment, and overall progress, especially in critical or unstable situations.

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26. What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The perceived quality of care and treatment is significantly impacted by the professionalism and caring attitude of the staff. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism, they adhere to ethical standards, maintain competence, and prioritize patient well-being. Additionally, a caring attitude fosters a supportive and empathetic environment, which enhances the patient's experience and satisfaction. Patients are more likely to trust and feel comfortable with healthcare providers who display professionalism and a caring attitude, leading to improved perceived quality of care and treatment.

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27. What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? 

Explanation

During gastric gavage, the solution temperature should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled solutions, can cause discomfort and potentially harm the patient. Lukewarm solutions may also not be ideal as they can irritate the digestive system. Therefore, maintaining a solution temperature at room temperature ensures that it is comfortable and safe for administration.

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28. How is whole blood normally supplied?

Explanation

Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that when blood is collected from a donor, it is typically collected in 450 cc units. This standard unit size allows for efficient processing and storage of blood products. It also ensures that an adequate amount of blood is available for transfusion when needed.

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29. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Explanation

Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help in identifying individuals who may have high blood pressure and need medical intervention. Regular screenings can help in early detection and prevention of cardiovascular diseases, which are a common health issue in the workplace. By offering blood pressure screenings, the work site wellness program aims to promote employee health and well-being, and encourage individuals to take necessary steps to manage their blood pressure and overall health.

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30. Which is a sign of uremia?

Explanation

Oliguria is a sign of uremia, which is a condition characterized by the buildup of waste products in the blood due to kidney dysfunction. Oliguria refers to a decreased urine output, typically less than 400 milliliters per day. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to a decrease in urine production. Therefore, oliguria is a clear sign of uremia. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, polyuria refers to excessive urine production, and dysuria refers to painful urination, none of which are specific signs of uremia.

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31. A good source of protein is?

Explanation

Poultry is a good source of protein because it contains high-quality, complete protein that provides all the essential amino acids our body needs. Poultry, such as chicken and turkey, is lean meat that is low in fat and cholesterol, making it a healthier protein option compared to other sources. It also contains important nutrients like iron and B vitamins, which are essential for energy production and overall health. Including poultry in our diet can help promote muscle growth, repair tissues, and support a healthy immune system.

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32. Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with

Explanation

Overdosing on B6 during pregnancy can lead to seizures in newborns. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in brain development. However, excessive intake of B6 can be toxic and cause neurological problems. Seizures are a common symptom of B6 toxicity, particularly in newborns whose developing brains are more vulnerable. Anemia, strabismus, and disfigurement are not typically associated with B6 overdose during pregnancy.

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33. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Explanation

The pacemaker lead is inserted in the right atrium when using a temporary external pulse generator system. This is because the right atrium is one of the chambers of the heart where the electrical signals originate and is commonly used as the insertion site for temporary pacemaker leads.

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34. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

Explanation

If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates that their respiratory function is compromised. In such a situation, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen is the most appropriate course of action. This method ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygen supply and helps to maintain their breathing until further medical assistance is available. Using a BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing, while high flow oxygen ensures a sufficient oxygen concentration.

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35. What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time? 

Explanation

If you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time, the body will respond by initiating a reflex vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels in the area where the heat treatment is applied will constrict or narrow in order to reduce blood flow to that area. This is a protective mechanism of the body to prevent excessive heat from causing damage to the tissues.

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36. Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the AF?

Explanation

Upon entering the Air Force, all recruits receive a booster for tetanus. This is because tetanus is caused by a bacteria commonly found in soil, dust, and manure, which can enter the body through cuts or wounds. The booster shot helps to ensure that recruits are protected against this potentially serious infection, which can cause muscle stiffness and spasms, difficulty swallowing, and even death if left untreated.

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37. When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to  a. one milliliter (ml). 

Explanation

When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to one milliliter (ml). This means that for every gram of weight gained by the diaper, it indicates that one milliliter of urine has been produced by the infant.

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38. What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

Explanation

The steps in the routine admission process are determined by considering the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to ensure that they receive the appropriate level of care and treatment. The facility policy is also taken into account to ensure that the admission process follows the guidelines and protocols set by the healthcare institution. By considering both factors, the admission process can be tailored to meet the specific needs of the patient while adhering to the policies and procedures of the facility.

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39. Colostomy irrigations are performed to 

Explanation

Colostomy irrigations are performed to establish fecal control. This means that the procedure helps regulate and manage the elimination of feces from the body through the colostomy. By performing irrigations, the healthcare provider can ensure that the patient has control over bowel movements and can establish a regular schedule for emptying the bowel. This promotes a sense of independence and improves the patient's quality of life.

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40. One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea

Explanation

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can occur in females who have gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the infection can spread to the reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, leading to PID. PID can cause severe pelvic pain, fever, and can result in long-term complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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41. In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

Explanation

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's pulse rate. This is because the pulse rate provides valuable information about the patient's cardiovascular health and can help in assessing their overall well-being. Monitoring the pulse rate can help identify any abnormalities or irregularities that may require further investigation or treatment. Additionally, changes in the pulse rate can also indicate the effectiveness of any interventions or treatments being implemented to resolve a health issue.

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42. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is also known as postural hypotension because it is characterized by a decrease in blood pressure upon assuming an upright posture. The term "postural hypotension" accurately describes the condition and is commonly used interchangeably with orthostatic hypotension. The other options, including positional hypotension, situational hypotension, and environmental hypotension, do not accurately represent the condition and are not commonly used terms.

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43. What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Explanation

During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important in order to assess the patient's current health status and to establish a baseline for future comparisons. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide valuable information to the healthcare team, enabling them to monitor the patient's condition and make informed decisions regarding their care.

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44. What pt-education would be appropriate for a pt who has been prescribed tessalon perles to help stop coughing?

Explanation

The correct answer is "do not chew the capsule". This is because Tessalon Perles are a medication used to relieve coughing, and chewing the capsule can reduce its effectiveness. It is important to swallow the capsule whole to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication.

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45. What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse? 

Explanation

In the third and final phase of spousal abuse, the spouse states that the abuse will never happen again. This is a common characteristic of the cycle of abuse known as the "honeymoon phase." During this phase, the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and promise to change their behavior. This phase is often marked by a period of calm and reconciliation, which can give the victim false hope and make it difficult for them to leave the abusive relationship. However, it is important to note that this statement is often manipulative and the abuse is likely to continue.

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46. When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to 

Explanation

When administering eye medications, it is important to ensure that the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This is because gravity will cause the medication to flow downwards, and positioning the treated eye lower will help to direct the flow away from the unaffected eye. This is important to prevent any potential contamination or irritation of the unaffected eye.

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47. What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Explanation

The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids. The liver produces bile, which helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. It also synthesizes cholesterol and triglycerides, and regulates their levels in the body. Additionally, the liver is involved in converting excess glucose into fatty acids, and vice versa, to maintain a balance in lipid metabolism. Overall, the liver is a central organ in lipid metabolism and its proper functioning is essential for maintaining lipid homeostasis in the body.

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48. What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range? 

Explanation

The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98 percent. This means that in a healthy individual, the oxygen saturation level in their arterial blood should be between 95 and 98 percent. Oxygen saturation is a measure of how much oxygen is being carried by the red blood cells in the arteries, and it is an important indicator of respiratory function and overall health.

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49. What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? 

Explanation

When CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream, it leads to respiratory acidosis. This occurs when there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the body, causing a decrease in pH levels and an increase in acidity. This can happen due to conditions such as lung diseases, hypoventilation, or impaired gas exchange. The excess CO2 combines with water to form carbonic acid, leading to an imbalance in the body's acid-base levels.

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50. Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? 

Explanation

Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the passageway that leads from the outer ear to the middle ear. This is where the medication is placed in order to treat conditions such as ear infections or inflammation. Administering the medication directly into the external auditory canal allows for targeted treatment of the affected area.

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51. Antipsychotic medications are categorized as 

Explanation

Antipsychotic medications are classified as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce hallucinations, delusions, and other symptoms of psychosis. The term "major tranquilizers" is often used to describe antipsychotics because they have a calming and sedating effect on individuals with these conditions.

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52. What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?

Explanation

The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30 minutes. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may compromise the quality of the blood products and increase the risk of complications for the recipient.

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53. To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe 

Explanation

When administering ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier access to the ear canal and ensures that the drops are properly administered. Pulling the earlobe outward, inward, or up would not have the same effect of straightening the canal and may make it more difficult to administer the drops correctly.

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54. Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? 

Explanation

Stimulants are a drug classification that can cause euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing. They work by increasing activity in the central nervous system, leading to heightened alertness and energy levels. Examples of stimulants include amphetamines, cocaine, and methamphetamine. Depressants, narcotics, and alcohol, on the other hand, have sedative effects and would not typically cause the symptoms described in the question.

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55. Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis? 

Explanation

Before the administration of digitalis, the apical pulse point should be checked. Digitalis is a medication used to treat heart conditions, and it works by slowing down the heart rate. By checking the apical pulse, which is the pulse heard at the apex of the heart, healthcare providers can assess the heart rate and rhythm before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can further slow down the heart rate, and if the heart rate is already too slow, it may not be safe to administer the medication.

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56. A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

Explanation

Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin, which is necessary for good vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is affected, leading to difficulty in seeing in dim light or at night. Therefore, night blindness is a common symptom of vitamin A deficiency.

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57. Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas and physical overactivity?

Explanation

Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Mania is often associated with bipolar disorder and can lead to impulsive behavior, decreased need for sleep, and an inflated sense of self-importance. It is different from neurosis, obsession, and psychosis, which are not specific to mood disorders and have different symptoms and characteristics.

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58. Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with 

Explanation

Adrenergic blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline in the body. They are commonly used in low doses for patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. These medications help to relax the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. By blocking the effects of adrenaline, adrenergic blockers can help to prevent or reduce bronchospasm, which is a common symptom of lung conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This makes the answer "lung conditions that cause bronchospasm" the correct choice.

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59. A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called

Explanation

A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone is unable to withstand normal stress or pressure, leading to a break. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells infiltrate the bone, causing it to become weak and susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are different from traumatic fractures, which occur due to an external force or injury, and congenital fractures, which are present at birth. Hairline fractures are small cracks in the bone that are often difficult to detect.

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60. Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

Explanation

The term "pass" is commonly used in medical facilities to refer to a temporary departure of a patient from the facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 and 48 hours. This allows the patient to leave the facility for various reasons such as attending a family event or personal matters, while still being under the care of the medical staff. It is a regulated and authorized process that ensures the patient's safety and well-being during their absence.

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61. Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with 

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers are a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that can interfere with the way the body metabolizes these medications, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause harm. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers.

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62. Vaginal suppositories are 

Explanation

Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This is because suppositories are a form of medication that is inserted into the vagina to treat infections such as yeast infections or bacterial vaginosis. The medication in the suppository helps to kill the harmful bacteria or fungi that are causing the infection. Cooling the suppository before administration may help to soothe any discomfort or inflammation in the vaginal area. Cleansing purposes and administering along the anterior wall of the vagina are not the primary purposes of using vaginal suppositories.

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63. The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is 

Explanation

Lidocaine is the drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) associated with a myocardial infarction (MI) because it is a class Ib antiarrhythmic medication. It works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which can help to stabilize the electrical activity and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. Epinephrine, Tonocard, and Ultram are not typically used for treating PVCs associated with an MI.

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64. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

Explanation

Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin and other external surfaces of the body to prevent infection. Disinfectants, on the other hand, are used on inanimate objects and surfaces to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms. Detergents are used for cleaning purposes and do not have the same antimicrobial properties as antiseptics. Antitoxins are substances that neutralize toxins produced by microorganisms, but they do not directly inhibit their growth or development.

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65. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

Explanation

Sodium chloride, also known as salt, plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, it can lead to sodium chloride deficiency. This deficiency can manifest in various symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and even confusion. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be observed through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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66. A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as 

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is the best definition for a specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs. Clinical pharmacists have advanced training and expertise in medication therapy management, and they work closely with healthcare providers to optimize medication regimens for patients. They are knowledgeable about drug interactions, dosages, and potential side effects, and they play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective medication use.

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67.  Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except 

Explanation

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68. When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? 

Explanation

When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for the fluid to flow gently and effectively into the vagina without causing discomfort or injury to the patient. Hanging the bag too low may result in inadequate cleansing, while hanging it too high can cause excessive pressure or discomfort for the patient.

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69. For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to 

Explanation

Beginning the exercise program early in the patient's hospital stay is the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program for patients who suffer from pain. This is because starting the program early allows the patient to gradually build up their tolerance and strength, reducing the risk of exacerbating their pain. It also gives healthcare professionals more time to monitor and adjust the program as needed, ensuring that it is safe and effective for the patient. By starting early, the patient can also benefit from the positive effects of exercise on pain management sooner.

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70. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Explanation

The correct answer is when package integrity is compromised. This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is indefinite as long as the package remains sealed and intact. However, if there is any damage or compromise to the packaging, the equipment should be considered unsterile and should not be used. This emphasizes the importance of maintaining the integrity of the packaging to ensure the sterility of the equipment.

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71. How many pounds are equal to 65 kg? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 143. To convert kg to pounds, we use the conversion factor of 1 kg = 2.20462 pounds. Therefore, 65 kg is equal to 65 * 2.20462 = 143 pounds.

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72. Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with 

Explanation

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are medications that work by blocking certain receptors in the brain, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Diuretics, on the other hand, are medications that help increase the production of urine, which can help reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure. Combining central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors with diuretics can have a synergistic effect in lowering blood pressure, making diuretics the most appropriate choice for combination therapy.

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73. Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

Explanation

Crepitus is the correct answer because it is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often described as a crackling or grating noise and can occur due to various reasons such as arthritis, joint injuries, or bone fractures. Crepitus is commonly associated with joint problems and can be a symptom of underlying medical conditions.

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74. Opioids are contraindicated with 

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment. This means that opioids should not be used in the treatment of head injuries. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous for individuals with head injuries as it can further compromise their breathing and potentially worsen their condition. Therefore, alternative pain management options should be considered for individuals with head injuries.

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75. When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to 

Explanation

When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, the primary goal should be to develop a good rapport. This is important because establishing a positive and trusting relationship with the patient is essential for effective treatment and therapy. A good rapport helps to create a safe and supportive environment where the patient feels comfortable sharing their thoughts and emotions. It also allows the healthcare provider to better understand the patient's needs and tailor the activities accordingly. By developing a good rapport, the patient is more likely to engage in the activities and benefit from them.

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76. The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is 

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medication to dissolve blood clots. While it can be effective in treating conditions such as heart attacks and strokes, the most serious complication is bleeding. This is because the medication can increase the risk of bleeding by breaking down clots not only in the targeted area but also in other parts of the body. Bleeding can occur internally or externally and can range from mild to severe, potentially leading to life-threatening situations. Therefore, close monitoring and careful management of patients undergoing thrombolytic therapy is crucial to minimize the risk of bleeding.

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77. When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is

Explanation

When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, emotions, and overall well-being. It helps to identify any abnormal or concerning patterns, such as aggression, withdrawal, or self-harm. By closely monitoring and documenting their behavior, healthcare professionals can assess the effectiveness of treatments, make informed decisions about their care, and ensure their safety. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits are also important factors to consider, but behavior takes precedence as it directly reflects the patient's mental condition.

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78. How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

Explanation

There are two ways a provider can initiate a drug order. The provider can either write a prescription for the patient to take to a pharmacy or they can electronically send the prescription directly to the pharmacy. Both methods are commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure that patients receive the necessary medications in a timely manner.

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79. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment what should you do next?

Explanation

After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This is because the anesthetic may numb the area and temporarily impair the person's ability to feel pain or sensation. By assessing sensory awareness, you can ensure that the anesthetic has taken effect and determine if further treatment, such as suturing the wound or applying a sterile dressing, can be done without causing discomfort or harm to the patient.

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80. Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

Explanation

When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because it is the initial reaction of his immune system to the virus. The primary immune response involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, and the production of specific antibodies to target and eliminate the virus. This response is crucial in building immunity against future infections with the same virus.

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81. Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract? 

Explanation

Kaopectate acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect on the gastrointestinal tract. It contains an active ingredient called attapulgite, which absorbs excess fluid and toxins in the digestive system. This helps to reduce diarrhea and relieve symptoms of upset stomach. Tums, Riopan, and Maalox are antacids that primarily work by neutralizing stomach acid and relieving heartburn, but they do not have the same absorbent and drying effects as Kaopectate.

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82. Cathartics are categorized as 

Explanation

Cathartics are categorized as laxatives because they are substances that promote bowel movements and relieve constipation. They work by increasing the movement of the intestines or by softening the stool, making it easier to pass. While antidiarrheals are used to treat diarrhea, antiemetics are used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, and emetics are used to induce vomiting. Therefore, the correct categorization for cathartics is laxatives.

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83. For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

Explanation

The correct answer is "Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes." Severe injuries or medical conditions can lead to neurological damage, which can manifest as impaired vision and uncoordinated movement. Additionally, the brain's functioning may be affected, resulting in behavioral changes.

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84. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. This is because a tourniquet is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the limb and restricting blood flow. It helps to prevent excessive blood loss and allows the healthcare provider to safely manage the wound and provide necessary care.

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85. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior and hurt displays a behavior of

Explanation

The patient's behavior of withdrawal can be explained by their feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt. They may choose to isolate themselves and withdraw from social interactions as a defense mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional pain. This behavior can also be a way for them to cope with their negative emotions and avoid potential rejection or judgment from others.

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86. To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every 

Explanation

To prevent decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, patient positioning should be changed every two hours. This is because prolonged pressure on certain areas of the body can lead to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. By changing the patient's position every two hours, the pressure is relieved and blood flow is restored, reducing the risk of developing ulcers. Changing the position every one hour may be too frequent and disruptive for the patient, while changing every three or four hours may not provide enough relief from pressure.

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87. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

Explanation

The correct answer is a lifelong process. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is a lifelong process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage, leading to long-term physical and functional impairments. Therefore, rehabilitation is necessary throughout the patient's life to help manage their condition, improve their quality of life, and maximize their independence.

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88. Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

Explanation

Orthopedic deformities like clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. Congenital means that these deformities are present at birth and are typically caused by abnormal development or genetic factors. This distinguishes them from deformities that are acquired later in life due to infection, injury, or disease.

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89. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when a patient has experienced a significant mechanism of injury, such as a severe car accident or a fall from a height, the assessment will prioritize assessing and addressing any potential life-threatening injuries in the area of the body that is most at risk. This allows medical professionals to quickly identify and treat any immediate threats to the patient's life and stabilize them before addressing other injuries or areas of the body.

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90. What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Explanation

If a small object is identified while straining urine, the appropriate steps would be to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is the correct answer because placing the object in a sterile urine cup ensures that it is properly contained and preserved for further examination. Notifying the nurse is important as they can then inform the relevant healthcare professionals and take appropriate actions based on the findings.

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91. With type I diabetes, the pancreas 

Explanation

Type I diabetes is characterized by the inability of the pancreas to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar levels. Insulin is responsible for regulating the amount of glucose in the blood, and without enough insulin, blood sugar levels can rise to dangerous levels. This is why individuals with type I diabetes often require insulin injections to manage their blood sugar levels. The other options mentioned in the question, such as releasing more glycogen into the blood or producing excessive amounts of insulin, are not accurate descriptions of type I diabetes.

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92.  The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is 

Explanation

The correct answer is intramuscular (IM). This method of parenteral medication administration involves injecting a drug into a muscle. It is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily over a period of time. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, allowing for a slower absorption compared to intravenous administration. This route is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and certain types of pain medications.

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93. Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of 

Explanation

Opioid antagonists are medications that are used to treat opioid overdose. When someone overdoses on opioids, such as heroin or prescription painkillers, their breathing can slow down or stop completely, leading to a life-threatening situation. Opioid antagonists work by blocking the effects of opioids in the body, reversing the overdose and restoring normal breathing. Acetaminophen overdose is typically treated with a different medication, such as N-acetylcysteine. Ibuprofen overdose may cause stomach irritation and can be managed with supportive care. Vitamin C overdose is rare and usually not life-threatening.

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94. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardigan activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

Explanation

Arrhythmia is the correct answer for this question. Arrhythmia refers to any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities observed on electrocardiogram tracings. It can manifest as irregular heartbeats, abnormal heart rhythms, or a disruption in the normal sequence of electrical impulses in the heart. Cardiac arrest, depolarization, and atrial excitation are not the appropriate terms to describe this condition.

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95. When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds y spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?

Explanation

If a patient responds by spontaneously opening their eyes or answering clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, aware of their surroundings, and able to respond appropriately to stimuli. Assessing the patient's mental status in this situation would involve further evaluation of their cognitive abilities, memory, attention, and orientation to determine if there are any deficits or abnormalities.

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96. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture in the field. When a fracture occurs, it often causes pain, swelling, and a visible deformity. Therefore, the acronym PSD accurately represents these common symptoms associated with a fracture.

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97. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Incubation." Incubation refers to the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this stage, the agent begins to multiply and spread within the body, preparing for the onset of symptoms. The duration of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific infectious agent and the individual's immune response.

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98. The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned 

Explanation

The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side. This position allows the person to have better control and visibility during the transfer process. Being at the head of the bed also ensures that the person can communicate effectively with the patient and coordinate the transfer smoothly.

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99. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because the consent form ensures that the patient has given their informed consent for the procedure, understanding the risks and benefits involved. It is a legal and ethical requirement to obtain the patient's consent before proceeding with any medical intervention. Therefore, once the consent form is signed, the provider can proceed with the minor surgery procedure.

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100. When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? 

Explanation

When using an oxygen tent, it is important to regularly monitor the oxygen concentrations and temperature to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment. Checking these parameters every 1 to 2 hours allows for timely adjustments and interventions if there are any fluctuations or abnormalities. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain the desired oxygen levels and temperature within the tent, ensuring the patient receives the appropriate care and minimizing the risk of any adverse effects.

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101. Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be

Explanation

In the presence of an anxious patient, it is important to be consistent in your behavior and actions. This means maintaining a calm and reassuring demeanor, using consistent communication and providing a stable and predictable environment. Consistency helps to create a sense of safety and trust for the patient, which can help alleviate their anxiety and promote a positive therapeutic relationship.

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102. When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? 

Explanation

During the insertion of a central venous pressure line, the Valsalva maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient holding their breath and bearing down, which increases the pressure in the chest and helps prevent air from entering the bloodstream. This maneuver is effective in reducing the risk of air embolism during the procedure.

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103. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If a child shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. This is because it is the responsibility of adults to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and allow authorities to investigate the situation and provide the necessary support and intervention. It is not appropriate to only report if the parents admit abuse or to counsel the parent on their actions, as the priority should be the safety and well-being of the child. Additionally, it is not correct to say that the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse, as anyone who suspects child abuse should report it.

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104. What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria. This organization is well-known for its role in ensuring quality and safety in healthcare settings. They develop standards and guidelines that hospitals must meet in order to receive accreditation. The Joint Commission conducts regular evaluations and inspections to assess hospitals' compliance with these criteria. Their goal is to improve patient care and outcomes by promoting high standards of quality and safety in healthcare facilities.

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105. What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. By providing information and education about the upcoming procedure, the patient can have a better understanding of what to expect, which can reduce anxiety and fear. This can ultimately improve the patient's overall experience and satisfaction with their care. Sedation, back massage, and oxygen therapy may have their own benefits, but they do not directly address the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment like preoperative teaching does.

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106. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

Explanation

A liquid diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract. This is because liquids are easier to consume and require minimal chewing and swallowing effort. Liquid diets can also help in reducing the amount of residue in the digestive tract, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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107. Complex carbohydrates are called

Explanation

Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple sugar molecules bonded together. They are large and complex molecules that provide a long-lasting source of energy for the body. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen. Unlike monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are simpler forms of carbohydrates, polysaccharides require more time and energy to break down and digest. Therefore, the correct answer is polysaccharides.

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108. Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Explanation

The purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC is to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. These precautions are put in place to protect healthcare workers and patients from potential infections. By following these precautions, such as hand hygiene, personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices, the spread of infectious agents can be minimized and the overall safety in healthcare settings can be improved.

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109. The first stage of dying is

Explanation

The first stage of dying is denial. Denial is a common reaction when faced with the reality of death. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. During this stage, individuals may refuse to accept the diagnosis or the severity of their condition, often clinging to hope for a different outcome. Denial allows individuals to gradually come to terms with their impending death at their own pace.

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110. What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how individuals perceive and interpret themselves, including their abilities, qualities, and worth. It encompasses their beliefs, thoughts, and evaluations about themselves. Socioeconomic status, opinions of others, and job title may have some impact on an individual's self-perception, but ultimately, it is their own perception of themselves that plays the most significant role in shaping their feelings and self-esteem.

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111. What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

Explanation

Grapefruit juice is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs. This is because grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit the activity of an enzyme called CYP3A4, which is responsible for breaking down many medications in the body. When this enzyme is inhibited, the medications can accumulate to higher levels in the bloodstream, leading to potential side effects or reduced effectiveness. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking these types of medications.

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112. When cleaning a two in laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important because foreign material in the wound can increase the risk of infection and hinder the healing process. Flushing the wound with a sterile solution helps to remove any debris or contaminants, reducing the chances of infection and promoting proper healing. It is a crucial step in wound care to ensure the wound is clean before further treatment or suturing.

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113. If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion is experiencing distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential transfusion reaction, specifically fluid overload. This is not a normal side effect and requires immediate attention. Stopping the transfusion is the first step to prevent further complications.

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114.  How do you apply moist heat? 

Explanation

To apply moist heat, you should moisten a towel and place it between the heat application and the patient. This helps to create a barrier and prevent direct contact between the heat source and the skin, reducing the risk of burns or discomfort. The moisture in the towel also helps to retain heat and provide a more effective and soothing treatment.

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115. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because sharing a patient's name over a public channel can violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect patient information and only share necessary details that are relevant to their medical condition.

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116. Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection? 

Explanation

Mr. Johnson's daughter would receive the instruction to not aspirate when giving heparin injections. Aspiration involves pulling back on the syringe plunger to check for blood return before injecting the medication. However, with heparin injections, aspiration is not recommended because it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site. Therefore, it is important for Mr. Johnson's daughter to be aware of this instruction to ensure safe and effective administration of the medication.

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117. Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to 

Explanation

Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to reexpand a collapsed lung. When a lung collapses, air or fluid accumulates in the chest cavity, causing the lung to collapse and preventing it from functioning properly. Closed-chest drainage involves inserting a chest tube into the chest cavity to drain the accumulated air or fluid, allowing the lung to reexpand and resume normal function. This procedure is commonly used in the treatment of conditions such as pneumothorax or hemothorax, where the lung collapses due to air or blood accumulation in the chest cavity.

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118. Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? 

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the digestive system is less occupied with food. When taken before meals, the stomach and intestines have less content to process, allowing the medication to be absorbed more quickly into the bloodstream. This results in faster onset of action and quicker effectiveness of the medication.

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119. Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

Explanation

Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are powerful pain medications that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. This means that the person's breathing may become slow and shallow, which can be dangerous. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate and depth is crucial to ensure their safety while receiving narcotics for pain management.

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120. Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Explanation

Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or fabric materials, which can be damaged or destroyed by the high temperatures and chemical reactions that occur during the sterilization process.

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121. When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving

Explanation

When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, it is important to instruct them to avoid shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with facial skin stretched, and with slow strokes. However, shaving in the direction of hair growth is actually the correct method to prevent PFB. This helps to minimize irritation and ingrown hairs. Shaving against the direction of hair growth can increase the risk of irritation and ingrown hairs, exacerbating the condition.

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122.  Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection? 

Explanation

Corticosteroids are used to prevent organ transplant rejection because they have immunosuppressive properties. They work by suppressing the immune system's response to the transplanted organ, reducing the risk of rejection. Insulin, Tapazole, and thyroid agents are not endocrine therapy drugs used for this purpose.

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123. Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Explanation

Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of a patient. This test measures the concentration of particles in the urine, which can indicate the amount of water present in the body. A higher specific gravity indicates dehydration, while a lower specific gravity suggests overhydration. Therefore, this test is used to assess the hydration status of a patient.

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124. Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with 

Explanation

Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When taken with alcohol or salicylates, which are substances found in certain medications like aspirin, it can enhance the hypoglycemic effect. This means that the combination of insulin and alcohol or salicylates can cause a greater decrease in blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is important for individuals taking insulin to be cautious when consuming alcohol or using medications containing salicylates to avoid this interaction.

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125. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

Explanation

A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at 24 months because by this age, most toddlers have gone through significant growth and development. At 24 months, they have had ample time to gain weight and increase their overall size. This is a common milestone in a child's growth trajectory, and it is expected that their weight would have quadrupled since birth by this time.

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126. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

Explanation

Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can be caused by various sources such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. Artifacts can mimic abnormal cardiac activity and may lead to misinterpretation of the ECG. Therefore, it is important to identify and differentiate artifacts from true cardiac abnormalities to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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127.  A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is 

Explanation

Sedatives and hypnotic medications can have a common side effect of depressing the rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. This means that individuals taking these medications may experience a decrease in the amount of time spent in REM sleep, which is a stage of sleep associated with dreaming and cognitive processing. This side effect can result in disrupted sleep patterns and potentially affect the overall quality of sleep.

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128. During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? 

Explanation

During catheterization of a male patient, the penis is held at a 60° angle and the catheter is inserted 4 to 5 inches. This angle allows for easier insertion and navigation of the catheter into the urethra, while the 4 to 5 inch insertion depth ensures that the catheter reaches the bladder to drain urine effectively.

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129. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

Explanation

In this scenario, determining if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which eye is important because it can affect the course of treatment. If the patient is wearing contact lenses, they may need to be removed immediately to prevent further damage to the eye. Additionally, knowing which eye is affected helps prioritize the urgency of the situation and allows for appropriate treatment planning.

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130. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

Explanation

Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as weakness, fatigue, and neurological symptoms, are often first observed in individuals with pernicious anemia. This condition occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough B12 from the diet, leading to a decrease in the production of healthy red blood cells. Aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia are not directly related to B12 deficiency and have different underlying causes.

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131. Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitos transmit the viral disease yellow fever. Yellow fever is caused by the yellow fever virus and is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitos. It is prevalent in tropical and subtropical areas of Africa and South America. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, and jaundice. In severe cases, it can lead to organ failure and death. Vaccination is available to prevent yellow fever, and mosquito control measures are important in reducing the transmission of the disease.

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132. What type of medication would be prescribed for a pt with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

Explanation

Antihistamines would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen. These medications work by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction. By blocking histamine, antihistamines can help relieve symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes.

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133. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the inspection of the rectum. It allows healthcare professionals to visually examine the rectal area for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a proctoscopy, a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera at the end, called a proctoscope, is inserted into the rectum. This procedure is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, and inflammation. The other options mentioned (sigmoid colon, ascending colon, and transverse colon) are not part of a proctoscopy procedure as they involve different parts of the colon.

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134. Deficiency in a respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Explanation

Deficiency in respirations, such as slow or irregular shallow respirations, can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. This causes a decrease in blood pH, leading to a condition called respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the respiratory system is unable to eliminate enough carbon dioxide from the body, resulting in an acidic imbalance.

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135. What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask? 

Explanation

When moving a patient on a venturi mask, it is important to monitor the patient continuously during the transport to ensure their safety and well-being. This includes monitoring their vital signs, oxygen saturation levels, and any signs of distress or discomfort. Additionally, it is necessary to reassess the patient upon arrival at the destination to evaluate their condition and make any necessary adjustments to their oxygen therapy.

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136. Which medication's primary action is pain relief? 

Explanation

Analgesics are medications specifically designed to relieve pain. Sedatives and hypnotics, on the other hand, are medications that promote relaxation and sleep. Therefore, the primary action of the combination of analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics is pain relief. This makes it the correct answer to the question.

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137. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose? 

Explanation

To calculate the mLs of Ancef to be given for each dose, we need to find the total amount of Ancef required for Mrs. Green's weight. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg, and the prescribed dosage is 5 mg/kg. Therefore, the total amount of Ancef required is 65 kg * 5 mg/kg = 325 mg.

The medication Ancef is supplied in vials of 50 mg/mL. To find the mLs needed, we divide the total amount required by the concentration of the vial: 325 mg / 50 mg/mL = 6.5 mL.

Therefore, 6.5 mLs of Ancef will be given for each dose.

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138.  What type of laxative is sorbitol? 

Explanation

Sorbitol is classified as a hyperosmotic laxative. Hyperosmotic laxatives work by drawing water into the intestines, which softens the stool and promotes bowel movements. Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol that is not absorbed by the body, so it remains in the intestines and causes an osmotic effect, attracting water into the bowel. This increased water content helps to relieve constipation and facilitate regular bowel movements.

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139. What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

Explanation

The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output values should be calculated and circled to indicate that they have been recorded. This ensures that the shift change is properly documented and allows for easy tracking and monitoring of intake and output levels.

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140. What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein? 

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position is the correct position for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein. This position involves tilting the patient's body so that the head is lower than the feet. This position helps to increase venous return and fill the neck veins, making it easier to insert the line. The other positions listed (left lateral recumbent, right lateral recumbent, and supine) do not provide the same benefits for inserting a central venous pressure line.

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141. LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer? 

Explanation

The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. Since the ordered dose is 12.5 mg, we need to calculate how many mLs would contain this dose. By setting up a proportion, we can find the answer. 50 mg is to 2 mL as 12.5 mg is to x mL. Cross multiplying, we get 50x = 25. Solving for x, we find that x = 0.5 mL. Therefore, you would administer 0.50 mLs.

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142. What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Explanation

The foundations of safe and effective healthcare involve proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare providers should actively seek out potential risks, evaluate their potential impact, and take measures to prevent or mitigate them. By being proactive in identifying and addressing risks, healthcare providers can minimize the chances of adverse events and ensure the safety and well-being of their patients. This approach also emphasizes the importance of continuous monitoring and improvement to maintain a high standard of patient care.

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143. A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes is 

Explanation

The correct answer is increased obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for developing type II diabetes in children. When children are overweight or obese, their bodies become less sensitive to insulin, which can lead to high blood sugar levels and eventually the development of diabetes. Therefore, increased obesity is a significant contributor to young children developing type II diabetes.

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144. There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident? 

Explanation

If a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within 30 minutes of the accident, there is a high rate of success. This is because the sooner the procedure is performed, the better the chances of the tooth surviving and successfully integrating with the surrounding tissues. Delaying the procedure beyond 30 minutes may result in a lower success rate as the chances of damage to the tooth and the surrounding tissues increase.

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145. Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn? 

Explanation

Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as partial thickness burn. This type of burn involves damage to the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) and extends into the deeper layer (dermis). It may cause blisters, pain, and redness. Full thickness burn involves damage to both the epidermis and dermis, while superficial burn only affects the outer layer of the skin. "Severe thickness" is not a recognized classification for burns.

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146. Which is not commonly used disinfecting agent?

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent because it is a strong corrosive acid that can cause severe damage to surfaces and materials. It is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and etching metals, and is not suitable for disinfection due to its corrosive nature. In contrast, formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfecting agents in various settings such as healthcare, laboratories, and household cleaning, as they are effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

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147. Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of? 

Explanation

Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of constipation. This is because these substances can slow down the movement of the digestive system, leading to difficulty in passing stools. Constipation is a common side effect of antacids, and individuals taking these medications may need to increase their fiber intake or use other methods to relieve constipation.

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148. What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? 

Explanation

Sulfonylurea medications increase the production of insulin in the pancreas and improve peripheral insulin activity. This means that they stimulate the pancreas to release more insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. Additionally, they enhance the effectiveness of insulin in the body, allowing it to better regulate glucose uptake and utilization by the cells.

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149. Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? 

Explanation

The technique used to move a patient up in bed is determined by the size and capabilities of the patient. The size of the patient is important because it determines the amount of force needed to move them. The capabilities of the patient, such as their ability to assist or follow instructions, also play a role in determining the technique used. For example, a larger patient may require the use of a mechanical lift or additional assistance from healthcare providers. Similarly, a patient with limited mobility may require a different technique compared to a patient who can actively participate in the movement.

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150. Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to 

Explanation

Patients who are allergic to penicillin are most likely to be allergic to cephalosporins because both penicillin and cephalosporins belong to the beta-lactam class of antibiotics, which have a similar chemical structure. This similarity in structure increases the likelihood of cross-reactivity and allergic reactions between these two classes of antibiotics. Macrolides, tetracyclines, and aminoglycosides have different chemical structures and are not closely related to penicillin, so the likelihood of cross-reactivity and allergic reactions with these antibiotics is lower.

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151. What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?

Explanation

Prepping the skin prior to surgery reduces the chance of infection by removing dirt, bacteria, and other microorganisms from the surgical site. This is important because any infection that occurs during surgery can lead to complications and prolonged recovery time for the patient. By thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting the skin, the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the surgical incision is minimized, promoting a safer and more successful surgical outcome.

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152. Name the parts of a needle. 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hub, shaft, and bevel." In a needle, the hub refers to the plastic or metal part that attaches to the syringe or other device. The shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle that penetrates the skin. The bevel is the slanted tip of the needle that allows for easier insertion into the skin. These three parts are essential components of a needle and contribute to its functionality during medical procedures.

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153. When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

Explanation

In the case of an apparent vehicle fire, the ambulance should be parked at a distance of 100 feet from the affected vehicle. This distance ensures the safety of the ambulance crew and patients, as well as allows for the proper functioning of firefighting equipment and emergency response. Being too close to the fire can put the ambulance at risk of damage or explosion, while being too far away may delay the provision of necessary medical assistance. Therefore, parking the ambulance at a distance of 100 feet strikes a balance between safety and prompt response.

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154. While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin 

Explanation

While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K plays a role in blood clotting, and heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood from clotting. Consuming foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of heparin and increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to monitor and control the intake of vitamin K-rich foods during heparin treatment.

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155. What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? 

Explanation

Syncope, or fainting, is a cardiac-related condition that may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia. When there is a decrease in blood flow to the brain due to reduced cardiac output, it can lead to a temporary loss of consciousness or fainting. This is because the brain is not receiving enough oxygen and nutrients, causing syncope to occur. Palpitations, dyspnea, and fatigue are not directly related to a decrease in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia.

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156. What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error? 

Explanation

The correct form that should be filled out when reporting a medication error is AF Form 765.

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157. What cells do lymph nods contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Explanation

Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response, producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system's response to pathogens. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys foreign substances, including microorganisms. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to detect, destroy, and eliminate invading microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.

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158. What so many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

Explanation

Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. This is because computer-generated products can provide accurate and legible information, reducing the chances of misinterpretation or transcription errors. Additionally, computer systems can have built-in checks and alerts to flag potential issues, ensuring that the correct medication and dosage are prescribed. Using computer-generated products can enhance patient safety and improve the efficiency of the medication ordering process.

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159. What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

The best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution is to remove protective devices themselves. This means that the technician should be responsible for removing any protective covers or caps on the IV solution, ensuring that the solution remains sterile during the process. By doing this themselves, the technician can minimize the risk of contamination from external sources and maintain the sterility of the solution before it is administered to the patient.

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160. Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

Explanation

Psychotherapy is a form of treatment that focuses on helping individuals improve their mental health and well-being. It typically includes various therapeutic approaches such as talk therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and group therapy. While hypnosis, psychoanalysis, and occupational therapy are commonly used in psychotherapy, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically considered a part of psychotherapy. ECT is a medical procedure that involves passing electric currents through the brain to induce controlled seizures and is primarily used to treat severe depression or other mental illnesses that have not responded to other treatments.

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161. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as

Explanation

Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but also have acceptable medical uses. These substances are classified as Schedule II drugs. Schedule II drugs are considered to have a high potential for abuse, but they also have recognized medical benefits and can be prescribed by doctors under certain conditions.

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162. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The Controlled Substances Act is a law that requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This act was enacted to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse. It aims to prevent the illegal use and trafficking of controlled substances by implementing strict regulations and monitoring their inventory regularly. The act provides guidelines on how these substances should be stored, documented, and reported to ensure their proper handling and prevent diversion into the illicit market.

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163. What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives? 

Explanation

When antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives, a potential side effect is an increase in bleeding time. Coumarin derivatives are oral anticoagulants that help prevent blood clot formation. Antacids, on the other hand, can interfere with the absorption of coumarin derivatives, leading to decreased effectiveness. This can result in an increase in bleeding time as the anticoagulant effect of the coumarin derivatives is reduced.

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164. As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage be monitored?

Explanation

Controlled temperature drug storage should be monitored once per day to ensure that the temperature remains within the required range. Monitoring the temperature daily allows for any deviations or fluctuations to be detected promptly, minimizing the risk of compromising the efficacy and safety of the drugs. Regular monitoring also ensures that any necessary corrective actions can be taken in a timely manner to maintain the integrity of the stored medications.

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165. Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings maybe removed?

Explanation

Without provider approval, antiembolism stockings may be removed for a maximum of 30 minutes.

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166.  What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? 

Explanation

The administration method that delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system is oral. This is because oral administration involves taking medication by mouth, either in the form of tablets, capsules, or liquids, and the medication is then absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and enters the digestive system for further processing and absorption into the bloodstream. Buccal, inhalation, and sublingual administration methods do not directly deliver medication into the digestive system.

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167. What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? 

Explanation

To help patients who become angry and hostile, it is important to provide them with a safe outlet to express their emotions. Allowing them to channel their hostility through verbal expression can help them release their anger in a non-physical way. This can be achieved through active listening, empathetic communication, and creating a supportive environment where patients feel understood and validated. It is crucial to avoid encouraging physical abuse or ignoring the issue by involving the patient in group therapy sessions or referring them to counseling with a nurse or physician.

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168. During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

Explanation

During the inflammation stage of healing, immature fiber cells and capillaries are formed. Inflammation is the initial response to tissue injury and is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. During this stage, the body releases chemicals that attract immune cells to the injured area. These immune cells help remove debris and initiate the formation of new blood vessels (capillaries) to provide oxygen and nutrients to the healing tissue. Immature fiber cells are also formed during this stage, which eventually mature and form scar tissue during the later stages of healing.

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169. The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

Explanation

Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present in the amputated limb but is perceived by the individual. It is a physiological phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of the limb and the resulting rewiring of neural pathways. This pain is not a psychological phenomenon but rather a real and distressing sensation that requires medical attention and treatment.

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170. Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

Explanation

Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, a patient is ideally placed in a semisitting position. This position allows for optimal airway clearance by promoting drainage of secretions and preventing aspiration. The semisitting position involves elevating the head of the bed to approximately 45 degrees, which helps to reduce the risk of complications during the suctioning procedure.

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171. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest because the sudden movement can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the heart, potentially causing a heart attack or arrhythmia. The spinal cord injury may already compromise the patient's cardiovascular system, making them more susceptible to cardiac arrest. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully to avoid any further complications.

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172. What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Explanation

Peracetic acid sterilizers use a temperature range of between 122 and 131 degrees Fahrenheit for the sterilization cycle. This specific temperature range is necessary to ensure the effective sterilization of the equipment or materials being treated. Lower temperatures may not be sufficient to kill all microorganisms, while higher temperatures may cause damage to the items being sterilized. Therefore, maintaining the temperature within this range is crucial for the proper functioning of the peracetic acid sterilizer.

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173. If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the nurse being busy or understaffed, the patient refusing to have their vital signs taken, or any other unforeseen circumstances that prevented the completion of this task. It is important to follow up on this and ensure that the vital signs are taken as ordered to monitor the patient's condition effectively.

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174. Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure  

Explanation

Hypovolemia is a fluid imbalance characterized by a decrease in blood volume. This can lead to symptoms such as dry mucous membranes, a weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), and a low central venous pressure. Hypovolemia occurs when there is a loss of fluids, such as through excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or bleeding. It can also result from inadequate fluid intake or certain medical conditions. Hypervolemia, on the other hand, is an excess of fluid in the body, while hyperkalemia and hypokalemia refer to imbalances in potassium levels.

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175. Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? 

Explanation

When your feet are parallel while standing, it helps to maintain balance by evenly distributing your body weight between both feet. This prevents any strain on your back, hips, and legs, as it ensures that your body is properly aligned and supported. By keeping your feet parallel, you also minimize the risk of developing any back, hip, and leg strain.

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176. As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the

Explanation

A cervical collar should be applied if there is any blow above the clavicles. The clavicles are the collarbones, and any impact or injury above this area can potentially affect the cervical spine or neck. Therefore, it is important to immobilize the neck using a cervical collar to prevent further damage or injury.

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177. In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

The slowest possible flow rate per hour for an intravenous (IV) solution is 10 to 50 cc. This range allows for a slow and controlled administration of the solution, ensuring that it is delivered at a safe and appropriate rate for the patient. Higher flow rates could potentially overwhelm the patient's system, while lower flow rates may not provide the necessary amount of the solution in a timely manner.

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178. What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Explanation

The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure accurate identification of patients and to avoid any confusion or errors in their medical records and treatment. Using the patient's full name helps to differentiate between individuals with similar names, while the date of birth provides an additional level of verification to confirm the patient's identity. This combination of identifiers helps to maintain patient safety and ensure the delivery of appropriate and personalized care.

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179. Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? 

Explanation

The Physician Desk Reference is a common reference source for drugs. It is a comprehensive guide that provides information on prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. It is widely used by healthcare professionals, including physicians, as a reliable source of drug information. The other options, such as the Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook and Technicians Pharmacy Handbook, may also contain drug information but are not as commonly used or recognized as the Physician Desk Reference. Internet search can be a source of drug information, but it is not considered a reliable or authoritative reference source.

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180. How are corneal abrasions detected? 

Explanation

Fluorescein stain is used to detect corneal abrasions. This diagnostic test involves applying a special dye called fluorescein to the surface of the eye. The dye helps to highlight any areas of damage or abrasions on the cornea by adhering to the exposed underlying tissue. When viewed under a blue light, the fluorescein stain causes the affected areas to appear bright green, making it easier for healthcare professionals to identify and assess the extent of the injury. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not suitable methods for detecting corneal abrasions.

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181. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about

Explanation

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about provocation. This means you are asking about any specific factor or action that may have caused or worsened the pain. By understanding the provocation, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the pain.

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182. During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

Separation anxiety is most stressful during the preschool stage. This is because preschool-aged children are starting to develop a sense of independence and autonomy, but they still heavily rely on their primary caregivers for security and comfort. The fear of being separated from their caregivers can be overwhelming during this stage, leading to heightened anxiety and distress. Preschoolers may exhibit clingy behavior, become upset when separated from their caregivers, and have difficulty adjusting to new environments or people.

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183. What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Explanation

Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is necessary to ensure that the user understands how to properly use the meter, interpret the results, and take any necessary precautions. Reading the operating instructions will also help prevent any potential errors or accidents that may occur during the use of the glucose meter. It is a crucial step in ensuring accurate and safe testing.

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184. What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Explanation

As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, your responsibilities include caring for the injured and monitoring and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. This involves providing medical assistance to those who are injured and ensuring their safety. Additionally, you are responsible for monitoring the condition of the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials and providing necessary medical treatment or rehabilitation as needed. This is crucial in ensuring the well-being of all individuals involved in the incident.

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185. What is not a side effects of tricyclics? 

Explanation

Tricyclics, a class of antidepressant medications, are known to cause various side effects. Urinary retention, cardiac arrhythmias, and postural hypotension are all potential side effects of tricyclics. However, pupil constriction is not a side effect of tricyclics.

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186. The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

Explanation

Regression is the correct answer because when children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors and ways of thinking that are more typical of an earlier stage of development. This can include behaviors such as temper tantrums, bed-wetting, or clinging to a parent. By engaging in these regressive behaviors, children are able to regain a sense of security and control in a familiar and comforting way.

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187. Aminoglycosides are used for 

Explanation

Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are known for their potent bactericidal activity against a wide range of bacteria. However, they are also associated with significant toxicities, particularly to the kidneys and ears. Due to these toxicities, aminoglycosides are typically used for short term treatment, such as in the management of severe infections where rapid bacterial eradication is necessary. Prolonged use of aminoglycosides can increase the risk of toxicity, and therefore, they are generally not recommended for long term treatment.

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188. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is essential for the examinee to have a minimum of 2 practice attempts in order to familiarize themselves with the procedure and ensure accurate results. Additionally, they must perform a minimum of 3 acceptable tracings, which refers to the successful completion of the required tests without any errors or abnormalities. This ensures that the examinee has adequately demonstrated their respiratory function and allows for a comprehensive evaluation of their pulmonary health.

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189. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Explanation

When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside and a little behind the patient. This position allows for better support and stability while walking. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to guide and stabilize their movement, while the other hand under the patient's near arm provides additional support and balance. This positioning and hand placement ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during ambulation.

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190. Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds?

Explanation

Fungi is the correct answer because it includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are responsible for various infections and can cause diseases in humans, plants, and animals. Fungi obtain nutrients by absorbing them from their surroundings and play important roles in ecosystems as decomposers and symbiotic partners.

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191. When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

Explanation

Alcohol should be avoided when providing skin care for the elderly because it can be drying and irritating to their already delicate and sensitive skin. Aging skin tends to be more prone to dryness and dehydration, and alcohol can further strip away natural oils, leading to increased dryness and potential discomfort. It is important to use gentle and hydrating products that can nourish and protect the skin without causing any harm or irritation.

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192.  Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause 

Explanation

Straining while holding breath during isometric exercises can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure and heart rate, which can potentially lead to a heart attack. This is because the increased pressure and strain on the heart can disrupt the normal flow of blood and oxygen to the heart muscle, which can result in a heart attack. It is important for patients to avoid holding their breath and to breathe normally during exercises to prevent this risk.

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193. What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Explanation

For a virus to multiply, it requires susceptible tissue. This means that the virus needs to find a host organism that has cells or tissues that can be infected and used as a replication site. Without susceptible tissue, the virus cannot enter and reproduce within the host, making it unable to multiply. The other options, such as water and soil, cool and dry, or warm and moist, do not directly relate to the multiplication of viruses.

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194. To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? 

Explanation

Liquid medications are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered accurately and safely, as it can be prepared and given directly to the patient. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for proper monitoring and assessment of the patient's condition before and after administration. Additionally, this practice helps to minimize the risk of medication errors and promotes patient-centered care.

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195. What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

Explanation

The correct answer is yellow fever and typhoid. When individuals are deploying to Africa, it is crucial to protect them from diseases that are prevalent in the region. Yellow fever is a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes and is endemic in parts of Africa. Vaccination against yellow fever is required for entry into many African countries. Typhoid fever, caused by the bacteria Salmonella Typhi, is also common in Africa and is transmitted through contaminated food and water. Vaccination against typhoid helps prevent this potentially serious illness. Therefore, individuals deploying to Africa should receive yellow fever and typhoid vaccines to safeguard their health.

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196. Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of 

Explanation

The extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications are a result of blocking dopamine receptors. These medications, known as typical antipsychotics, work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. This can lead to various EPS, such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Blocking dopamine receptors disrupts the normal balance of dopamine in the brain, which can result in these side effects.

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197. Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except?

Explanation

Vitamin C is commonly found in citrus fruits such as oranges and lemons, as well as in vegetables like broccoli and tomatoes. However, cheese does not naturally contain vitamin C. It is primarily found in fruits and vegetables, making cheese the exception in this list.

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198. What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance? 

Explanation

When providing care to a patient who has abused a substance, the priority should be to monitor vital signs and sustain life. This is because the immediate concern is the patient's health and well-being. By monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate interventions. Sustaining life involves addressing any immediate life-threatening issues and stabilizing the patient's condition. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, contacting the First Sergeant, or contacting Security Forces may be necessary at some point, but they are not the immediate priority when it comes to providing care to a patient who has abused a substance.

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199. When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Explanation

After ensuring that the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes and helps in tracking the patient's progress and any changes in their cardiac rhythm over time. It provides a clear record of when the rhythm strip was taken and can be used for future reference or comparison.

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200. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by 

Explanation

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. ACE inhibitors block the action of an enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a hormone that causes vasoconstriction. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors prevent the production of angiotensin II and subsequently reduce vasoconstriction, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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Vaginal suppositories are 
The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions...
Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of...
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best...
 Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all...
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's...
For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful...
What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the...
How many pounds are equal to 65 kg? 
Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined...
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub...
Opioids are contraindicated with 
When planning activities for patients with psychological problems,...
The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is 
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most...
How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires...
Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His...
Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a...
Cathartics are categorized as 
For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical...
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after...
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior and hurt displays a...
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be...
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized...
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
What steps should you take if you identify a small object while...
With type I diabetes, the pancreas 
 The method of parenteral medication administration that involves...
Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of 
What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical...
When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient...
Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the...
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of...
The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be...
When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations...
Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious...
When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure...
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs...
What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital...
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's perceived...
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing...
Complex carbohydrates are called
Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard...
The first stage of dying is
What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?
What food or drink is known for its high potential to change...
When cleaning a two in laceration on a healthy active duty male's...
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and...
 How do you apply moist heat? 
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio,...
Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin...
Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to 
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster...
Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can...
Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?
When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on...
 Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ...
Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the...
Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly...
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at
Any artificial products or features which appear on an...
 A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications...
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis...
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states...
Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by
Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit?
What type of medication would be prescribed for a pt with allergies to...
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
Deficiency in a respirations such as slow or irregular shallow...
What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venturi...
Which medication's primary action is pain relief? 
Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a...
 What type of laxative is sorbitol? 
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD...
What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central...
LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be...
What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?
A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes...
There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth...
Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its...
Which is not commonly used disinfecting agent?
Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side...
What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? 
Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient...
Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be...
What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?
Name the parts of a needle. 
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the...
While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be...
What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac...
What form should be filled out when reporting a medication...
What cells do lymph nods contain in large number to fight invading...
What so many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when...
What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility...
Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a...
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently...
As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage be...
Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes...
 What administration method delivers medication directly into a...
What should you do to help patients who become angry and...
During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries...
The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in...
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing...
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord...
What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a...
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every...
Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak...
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? 
As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above...
In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per...
What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient...
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? 
How are corneal abrasions detected? 
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her...
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most...
What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician...
What is not a side effects of tricyclics? 
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their...
Aminoglycosides are used for 
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice...
When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where...
Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as...
When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid...
 Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while...
What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications...
What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines...
Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except?
What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused...
When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring...
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure...
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