B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05)
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
- A.
Dentists
- B.
Registered Nurses
- C.
Physician Assistants (PA)
- D.
Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM).
Correct Answer
B. Registered NursesExplanation
Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They are trained healthcare professionals who can provide a wide range of patient care services, including administering medications, performing procedures, and providing patient education. Therefore, they are not the individuals who are not authorized to see and treat patients.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
- A.
Patient’s condition and the cost of admission per day.
- B.
Facility policy and the patient’s distance from home.
- C.
Patient’s condition and the facility policy
- D.
Facility policy and patient’s request.
Correct Answer
C. Patient’s condition and the facility policyExplanation
The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important in determining the level of care and treatment required, which will influence the steps in the admission process. The facility policy also plays a role in determining the necessary procedures and protocols to be followed during the admission process. Both factors need to be taken into consideration to ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and that the facility operates in accordance with its policies and guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
- A.
Evaluate patient.
- B.
Obtain patient’s history.
- C.
Transcribe doctor’s orders
- D.
Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.
Correct Answer
D. Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.Explanation
During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining the appropriate care and treatment plan. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide accurate and up-to-date information to the healthcare team, which is essential for monitoring the patient's condition and making informed decisions regarding their care.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
- A.
Pass.
- B.
Discharge
- C.
Subsisting elsewhere.
- D.
Absent without leave (AWOL).
Correct Answer
A. Pass.Explanation
The correct answer is "Pass." In a medical facility, a patient can be granted a pass to temporarily leave the facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours. This allows the patient to attend to personal matters or take a break from the facility while still being under the care of medical professionals.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility?
- A.
56
- B.
66
- C.
76
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 66Explanation
The correct answer is 66. This suggests that a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility is allowed to carry 66 pounds of baggage.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
- A.
On pass.
- B.
Subsisting out
- C.
On convalescent leave.
- D.
Discharged and an outpatient
Correct Answer
B. Subsisting outExplanation
The correct answer is "subsisting out". This term suggests that the patient is allowed to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment. It implies that the patient is able to sustain themselves and continue their treatment outside of the hospital setting.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If an inpatient chart with doctor’s orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
- A.
Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed.
- B.
Patient is doing well and no problems were noted.
- C.
doctor probably changed the orders verbally.
- D.
Vital signs were not completed.
Correct Answer
D. Vital signs were not completed.Explanation
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This is because if the vital signs had been taken, they would have been recorded in the chart as per the doctor's orders. The other options, such as the patient being off the unit having tests completed or the doctor changing the orders verbally, do not provide a direct explanation for the blank chart. Additionally, assuming that the patient is doing well and no problems were noted is not a valid inference as vital signs are an important indicator of a patient's health status.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
- A.
No documentation is required at shift change.
- B.
Document all totals in the Remarks section
- C.
Document in the Grand Total block.
- D.
Circle the last accumulated total.
Correct Answer
C. Document in the Grand Total block.Explanation
The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to document them in the Grand Total block. This means that the totals should be recorded in the designated section on the form where the overall sum of intake and output is calculated. This ensures that the shift change totals are accurately recorded and easily accessible for reference.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Assessing
- C.
Evaluating
- D.
Implementing
Correct Answer
A. PlanningExplanation
Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves creating a roadmap for the patient's care. It includes setting goals, determining interventions, and organizing resources to address the identified nursing diagnoses. Through planning, nurses can prioritize and coordinate their actions to effectively resolve the patient's health issues. Assessing helps in gathering information about the patient's condition, evaluating involves determining the effectiveness of interventions, and implementing refers to carrying out the planned interventions. However, planning is the initial and crucial step in the nursing process that guides the entire care process.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
- A.
An observable change in patient behavior.
- B.
A measurable change in the patient’s condition
- C.
A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning
- D.
A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior.
Correct Answer
D. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior.Explanation
A client goal, relative to the nursing process, refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be achievable and quantifiable, allowing healthcare professionals to track the progress and effectiveness of the care plan. It helps guide the nursing interventions and serves as a benchmark for evaluating the patient's response to treatment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient’s concerns prior to surgery?
- A.
Sedation
- B.
Back massage
- C.
Oxygen therapy
- D.
Preoperative teaching
Correct Answer
D. Preoperative teachingExplanation
Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, preoperative teaching helps to alleviate anxiety and fear. It allows the patient to be better prepared for the surgery, both mentally and physically, and promotes a sense of control and involvement in their own care. This can lead to improved outcomes and a more positive surgical experience for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What has a significant impact on the patient’s perceived quality of care and treatment?
- A.
Credentials of the surgeon.
- B.
Availability of a base chaplain
- C.
Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
- D.
Number of nurses and technicians on staff.
Correct Answer
C. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staffExplanation
The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members are professional, they maintain a high level of competence and adhere to ethical standards, which instills confidence in the patient. Additionally, a caring attitude from the staff creates a supportive and empathetic environment, making the patient feel valued and well-cared for. These factors contribute to the overall perception of the quality of care and treatment received by the patient.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?
- A.
Reduces the chance of infection.
- B.
Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR).
- C.
Allows for proper suturing of the incision.
- D.
Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed
Correct Answer
A. Reduces the chance of infection.Explanation
Prepping the skin prior to surgery is important because it helps reduce the chance of infection. By cleaning the skin with an antiseptic solution, bacteria and other microorganisms present on the skin's surface are eliminated or reduced, lowering the risk of introducing them into the surgical site. This is crucial to prevent post-operative infections, which can lead to complications and prolong the healing process. Proper skin preparation is a standard practice in surgical procedures to maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
Antiembolism stockings are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings should not be removed for an extended period without provider approval because doing so can increase the risk of blood clots. The maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed without provider approval is 30 minutes. Removing the stockings for longer than this duration without medical supervision may compromise the effectiveness of the stockings in preventing blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
- A.
Isolation is necessary.
- B.
No precautions are necessary
- C.
A lead apron is placed over the patient
- D.
Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients.
Correct Answer
A. Isolation is necessary.Explanation
After receiving a radioisotope implant, the postoperative patient needs to be isolated to prevent exposure to others. Radioisotopes emit radiation, which can be harmful to others if they come into close contact with the patient. Isolation ensures that the radiation is contained and does not pose a risk to other individuals. This precaution is necessary to protect the health and safety of both the patient and others around them.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
- A.
Low
- B.
High
- C.
Fowler’s
- D.
Trendelenburg
Correct Answer
B. HighExplanation
The bed is placed in a high position in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient. This is because a high position allows for easier access to the patient and better visibility for the medical staff. It also facilitates patient transfers and reduces strain on the healthcare providers. Placing the bed in a high position is important for ensuring the comfort and safety of the patient during postoperative care.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
- A.
Standing hamstring stretches
- B.
Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB).
- C.
Diaphragmatic breathing.
- D.
Circles with the big toe
Correct Answer
A. Standing hamstring stretchesExplanation
Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they require the patient to stand and stretch the muscles in the back of their thighs. Postoperative patients may have limited mobility or restrictions on weight-bearing activities, making standing hamstring stretches potentially unsafe or uncomfortable for them. Other exercises listed, such as diaphragmatic breathing, turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB), and circles with the big toe, are commonly used for postoperative patients to promote lung expansion, circulation, and mobility.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which form is used to document a patient’s blood transfusion?
- A.
Standard Form 518.
- B.
Standard Form 3066
- C.
AF Form 2019
- D.
AF Form 3066.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Form 518.Explanation
Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion. This form is specifically designed for recording the details of blood transfusions, including the patient's information, the type and amount of blood transfused, any reactions or complications, and the signatures of the healthcare professionals involved. It serves as a standardized document to ensure accurate and consistent documentation of blood transfusions, which is crucial for patient safety and continuity of care.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How is whole blood normally supplied?
- A.
100 cc units
- B.
250 cc units.
- C.
450 cc units.
- D.
500 cc units.
Correct Answer
C. 450 cc units.Explanation
Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood contains 450 cubic centimeters of blood. This is the typical volume of blood that is collected from a donor and used for transfusions or other medical purposes. Other options, such as 100 cc units, 250 cc units, and 500 cc units, are not the standard volumes for whole blood supply.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
90
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30 minutes. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this time frame helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the quality of the blood products.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
- A.
Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect.
- B.
Place the patient on his or her left side
- C.
Administer 100 percent oxygen.
- D.
Stop the transfusion.
Correct Answer
D. Stop the transfusion.Explanation
If a patient receiving a blood transfusion shows signs of distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). This occurs when the volume of blood transfused exceeds the patient's circulatory capacity. The first step in managing TACO is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further fluid overload. This allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate interventions to alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?
- A.
Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) devices.
- B.
Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area.
- C.
Administration of oral analgesics.
- D.
Administration of narcotics
Correct Answer
D. Administration of narcoticsExplanation
Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are powerful pain medications that can suppress the central nervous system, including the respiratory centers in the brain. This can lead to decreased breathing rate and depth, which can be dangerous if not closely monitored. It is important to carefully monitor patients receiving narcotics for any signs of respiratory depression and adjust the dosage accordingly to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
- A.
Modified lateral.
- B.
Trendelenberg.
- C.
Semisitting.
- D.
Supine.
Correct Answer
C. Semisitting.Explanation
Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, it is ideal to place the patient in a semisitting position. This position allows for better accessibility to the patient's airway and facilitates the removal of secretions or foreign objects through suctioning. The semisitting position also helps to prevent aspiration and allows for proper drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of complications during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
- A.
Infectious
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Pathologic
- D.
Temporary
Correct Answer
B. CongenitalExplanation
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that they are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of the bones, joints, or muscles. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, but rather by genetic or environmental factors that affect the development of the musculoskeletal system during fetal development. Therefore, the correct answer is congenital.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
- A.
Hairline
- B.
Pathologic
- C.
Congenital
- D.
Traumatic
Correct Answer
B. PathologicExplanation
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone breaks due to an underlying disease or condition, rather than from a traumatic injury. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and weaken it, making it more susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are often more difficult to treat and may require additional interventions, such as surgery or radiation therapy, to address the underlying disease.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it
- A.
causes drop foo
- B.
Causes venous stasis
- C.
causes external hip rotation
- D.
promotes flexion deformities of the hip.
Correct Answer
D. promotes flexion deformities of the hip.Explanation
The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the hips and knees flexed, which can lead to shortening of the hip flexor muscles and tightening of the hip joint. Over time, this can result in a flexion contracture, where the hip joint becomes permanently flexed and limits the range of motion. Therefore, it is important to avoid this position for long periods of time in order to prevent the development of flexion deformities in the hip.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
- A.
Crepitus
- B.
Vibration
- C.
Resonance
- D.
Intonation
Correct Answer
A. CrepitusExplanation
Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often associated with joint conditions such as arthritis or fractures. It is characterized by a grinding or cracking noise that can be heard or felt when moving the affected joint. Crepitus is caused by the roughening or loss of cartilage in the joint, leading to bone-on-bone contact.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?
- A.
Closed reduction, external fixation.
- B.
Closed reduction, internal fixation
- C.
Open reduction, external fixation.
- D.
Open reduction, internal fixation.
Correct Answer
C. Open reduction, external fixation.Explanation
Pin care is required with open reduction, external fixation because in this type of reduction, the bone is surgically realigned and then held in place with pins or wires that are inserted through the skin and into the bone. These pins or wires can create an opening in the skin, which increases the risk of infection. Therefore, proper care and cleaning of the pins are necessary to prevent infection and promote healing.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?
- A.
None. It is normal for a cast to feel tight.
- B.
Remove the cast.
- C.
Bivalve the cast.
- D.
Petal the cast.
Correct Answer
C. Bivalve the cast.Explanation
If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action would be to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast along its length to create two halves that can be easily opened and closed with straps or tape. This allows for better circulation, reduces pressure, and provides relief to the patient. Removing the cast entirely may not be necessary, as it may still be needed for proper healing. Petaling the cast involves creating small cuts around the edges to relieve pressure, but bivalving is a more effective solution.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
- A.
Phantom limb pain.
- B.
Phantom limb sensation
- C.
Physiological phenomena.
- D.
Psychological phenomena.
Correct Answer
A. pHantom limb pain.Explanation
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb is commonly known as phantom limb pain. This sensation is a real physical phenomenon and is not just a psychological experience. It occurs due to the brain's attempt to process and interpret signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the amputated limb. Despite the absence of the limb, the brain still receives signals and interprets them as pain, leading to the sensation of phantom limb pain.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
- A.
Nasogastric (NG) tube
- B.
Tourniquet
- C.
Oxygen
- D.
Suction
Correct Answer
B. TourniquetExplanation
A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily restrict blood flow to a limb during surgery or in emergency situations. It helps control bleeding and reduces the risk of excessive blood loss. After a surgical amputation, there may be residual bleeding or the need for further surgical intervention, and having a tourniquet readily available allows for immediate control of bleeding if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
- A.
Aspiration
- B.
Cardiac arrest.
- C.
Disorientation
- D.
Respiratory arrest.
Correct Answer
B. Cardiac arrest.Explanation
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movement or rotation of the body can put stress on the already compromised spinal cord, leading to a disruption in the normal functioning of the heart. The spinal cord plays a crucial role in transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body, including the heart. Any injury or trauma to the spinal cord can interfere with these signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
- A.
A lifelong process.
- B.
Of no use because they do not fully recover
- C.
continued for six months after the injury occurred
- D.
Continued for up to two years after the final surgery
Correct Answer
A. A lifelong process.Explanation
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process. This is because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations in mobility and function. The goal of rehabilitation is to maximize the patient's independence and quality of life by focusing on physical therapy, occupational therapy, and other interventions. The process involves ongoing support, adaptive strategies, and assistive devices to help the patient adapt to their new circumstances and manage any complications that may arise. Therefore, rehabilitation for spinal cord injury patients is typically a lifelong commitment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the
- A.
Dominant right or left side
- B.
Side of the body that is weaker
- C.
Side of the brain that was traumatized
- D.
Position the patient was in when the stroke occurred
Correct Answer
C. Side of the brain that was traumatizedExplanation
When a stroke occurs, it affects the blood flow to a specific area of the brain, causing damage to that area. The side of the brain that is traumatized determines which side of the body will be affected. This is because the brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. Therefore, if the left side of the brain is traumatized, the right side of the body will be affected, and vice versa.Rate this question:
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- 35.
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
- A.
Early infancy
- B.
Preschool.
- C.
School age.
- D.
Adolescence
Correct Answer
B. Preschool.Explanation
During the preschool stage of child development, separation anxiety is most stressful. This is because preschool-aged children are starting to develop a sense of independence and autonomy, but they still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for support and security. As a result, when they are separated from their caregivers, they may experience heightened anxiety and distress. This stage is characterized by increasing social interactions and exploration, which can make separation from familiar and trusted individuals particularly challenging for preschoolers.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is
- A.
Fantasy
- B.
Projection
- C.
Regression
- D.
Displacement
Correct Answer
C. RegressionExplanation
Regression is the correct answer because it refers to a normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. Regression involves reverting back to behaviors or actions that were typical of an earlier stage of development, providing a sense of comfort and security. This can include behaviors such as thumb-sucking, bed-wetting, or seeking more attention from parents. By regressing, children are able to cope with feelings of helplessness or insecurity.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
- A.
Hypernatremia
- B.
Hyperkalemia
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Aspiration
Correct Answer
C. DehydrationExplanation
When a child experiences nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous, leading to electrolyte imbalances, decreased blood volume, and potential organ damage. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address fluid intake in a child with nausea and vomiting to prevent dehydration and its associated complications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
- A.
The physician needs to suture the child’s face.
- B.
The child continues to climb out of bed in the night
- C.
To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair
- D.
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child.
Correct Answer
D. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child.Explanation
The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it does not prioritize the safety and well-being of the child. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary for their own protection or the protection of others, such as in the case of medical procedures or preventing accidents. Prioritizing other tasks over the child's safety is not an appropriate reason for restraining them.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Lotion
- C.
Lanolin
- D.
Antiseptic soap.
Correct Answer
A. AlcoholExplanation
Alcohol can be drying and irritating to the skin, especially for the elderly who may already have dry or sensitive skin. It can strip the skin of its natural oils and disrupt the skin's barrier function, leading to further dryness and potential skin damage. Therefore, it is important to avoid using alcohol-based products when providing skin care for the elderly.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
- A.
Explain the importance of nutrition
- B.
Ask the patient to try new foods
- C.
Cater to the patient’s customs.
- D.
Bring a tray full of choices.
Correct Answer
C. Cater to the patient’s customs.Explanation
Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By respecting and accommodating these customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and motivated to eat. This approach also promotes a sense of autonomy and control over their meals, which can further enhance their appetite.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which is a sign of uremia?
- A.
Oliguria
- B.
Hematuria
- C.
Polyuria
- D.
Dysuria
Correct Answer
A. OliguriaExplanation
Oliguria is a sign of uremia. Uremia is a condition where there is a buildup of waste products in the blood due to impaired kidney function. Oliguria refers to a decreased urine output, which is often seen in uremia. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to a decrease in urine production. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, polyuria refers to excessive urine production, and dysuria refers to painful urination. While these symptoms can be associated with various urinary tract conditions, oliguria specifically points towards uremia.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The first stage of dying is
- A.
Bargaining
- B.
Depression
- C.
Anger
- D.
Denial
Correct Answer
D. DenialExplanation
In the first stage of dying, known as denial, individuals may refuse to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death. This can manifest in various ways, such as avoiding discussions about death, downplaying the severity of their condition, or seeking multiple medical opinions in hopes of finding a different outcome. Denial serves as a defense mechanism, allowing individuals to cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. It provides a temporary sense of control and protection from the distressing reality.Rate this question:
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- 43.
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed
- A.
Environment
- B.
Personality
- C.
Character
- D.
Heredity
Correct Answer
B. PersonalityExplanation
Personality refers to the unique combination of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses a person's emotions, attitudes, values, and social interactions. It is different from character, which refers to the moral and ethical qualities of a person, and heredity, which pertains to the genetic factors that influence a person's traits. Personality is also distinct from the environment, which refers to the external factors and experiences that shape an individual. Therefore, personality is the most suitable term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What affects an individual’s feeling about themselves?
- A.
Socioeconomic status.
- B.
Opinions of others.
- C.
Self-perception.
- D.
Job title
Correct Answer
C. Self-perception.Explanation
An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they view themselves, their abilities, and their worth. Socioeconomic status may have an impact on self-perception, but it is not the sole determinant. Opinions of others can also influence self-perception, but ultimately it is the individual's own perception of themselves that has the most significant effect. Job title may contribute to self-perception, but it is not the main factor.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
- A.
Compulsion
- B.
Delusion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Conflict
Correct Answer
A. CompulsionExplanation
A compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform, even though it may not make sense to others or be necessary. It is characterized by an irresistible urge and is often associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD experience distressing thoughts or obsessions, and performing compulsions temporarily relieves their anxiety. Therefore, a compulsion aligns with the given definition of an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity?
- A.
Neurosis
- B.
Mania
- C.
Obsession
- D.
Psychosis
Correct Answer
B. ManiaExplanation
Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood, excessive energy, racing thoughts (flight of ideas), and increased physical activity. People experiencing mania often feel elated, have an inflated sense of self-esteem, and engage in impulsive or risky behaviors. This term specifically describes the symptoms mentioned in the question, such as feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Neurosis, obsession, and psychosis do not specifically encompass these symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be
- A.
Excited
- B.
Consistent
- C.
Demanding
- D.
Unsympathetic
Correct Answer
B. ConsistentExplanation
When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to be consistent in their behavior and actions. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability, which can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety. By being consistent, healthcare professionals can establish trust and build rapport with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and reassured. This can ultimately contribute to a more positive and effective patient-provider relationship.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
- A.
Withdrawal
- B.
Suspicion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Anger
Correct Answer
A. WithdrawalExplanation
Withdrawal is the correct answer because when a patient feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt, they may exhibit a behavior of withdrawing from social interactions and isolating themselves. This could be a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional pain and rejection. They may feel a lack of motivation to engage with others and may prefer to be alone. This behavior can be a sign of low self-esteem and a desire to avoid potential negative interactions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
- A.
During preadmission
- B.
Within 12 hours of admission.
- C.
Within 24 hours of admission
- D.
As soon as the patient is admitted.
Correct Answer
D. As soon as the patient is admitted.Explanation
The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial in treating mental illness. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for early assessment, diagnosis, and the development of an individualized treatment plan. It also helps to establish a therapeutic relationship between the patient and healthcare providers, promoting trust and collaboration. By starting rehabilitation early, the patient can receive the necessary support and interventions to manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient?
- A.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses.
- B.
Group therapy to prevent relapse
- C.
Prevention of regression
- D.
Social actions follow-up
Correct Answer
A. Strengthening the patient’s defenses.Explanation
The primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient is to strengthen their defenses. This means helping the patient develop coping mechanisms and skills to better manage their mental illness and prevent relapse. Strengthening defenses can involve therapy, medication, and support systems that empower the patient to effectively deal with their condition and maintain stability in their daily life. It is important to focus on building resilience and self-care strategies to enhance the patient's ability to navigate their mental health challenges.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 14, 2018Quiz Created by
Akamoosejr
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