CDC Z4n071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions

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  • 1/87 Questions

     (001) When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing?

    • At the end of the month.
    • At the end of the year.
    • When the need for new equipment is identified.
    • When "fall-out" money is available for new equipment.
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About This Quiz

Below is some CDC Z4N071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions. The quiz is perfect for ensuring that you get to review all you know about the duties a medical technician should carry out and the regulations governing their actions. Give it a shot and see just how attentive you are in your classes. All the best, and keep revising!

CDC Z4n071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (009) What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status RED represent?

    • Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago

    • Dental class 1 and 2

    • Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile)

    • Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4 requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile)

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4 requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile)
    Explanation
    The IMR status RED represents that the individual's immunizations are missing or out of date. Additionally, their last preventive health assessment (PHA) was more than 18 months ago, and they have dental class 3 or class 4 requirements that are missing. This status also indicates that they have a deployment-limiting profile.

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  • 3. 

    (009) What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status GREEN represent?

    • Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago

    • Dental class 1 or class 2

    • Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)

    • Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment limiting profile.)

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)
    Explanation
    The correct answer, "Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)", indicates that an individual with a GREEN IMR status has received all necessary immunizations and they are current. They have also undergone a Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) within the last 18 months, have a dental classification of either class 1 or class 2, and their lab requirements are up to date. Additionally, they do not have any deployment-limiting profiles.

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  • 4. 

    (012) What is one of the key features of TRICARE prime?

    • No enrollment fee for active duty members and their families

    • Wait list for care in military hospitals and clinics

    • Semi-annual enrollment fee for all dependents 

    • Large fee per visit to civilian providers

    Correct Answer
    A. No enrollment fee for active duty members and their families
    Explanation
    One of the key features of TRICARE prime is that there is no enrollment fee for active duty members and their families. This means that active duty members and their families can access healthcare services without having to pay an additional fee to enroll in the TRICARE prime program. This feature helps to make healthcare more accessible and affordable for active duty members and their families.

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  • 5. 

    (016) When you gather supplies to approximate a wound, what can be used in place of sutures or staples? 

    • Skin closure strips

    • Pressure dressing

    • Occlusive dressing 

    • Band aid

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin closure strips
    Explanation
    Skin closure strips can be used in place of sutures or staples to approximate a wound. These strips are adhesive strips that are applied across the wound to hold the edges together. They provide support and help the wound heal by keeping the edges in close proximity. Skin closure strips are a convenient alternative to sutures or staples as they are easy to apply, do not require anesthesia, and leave minimal scarring. They are commonly used for small to medium-sized wounds that have clean, straight edges.

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  • 6. 

    (017) A patient checks into your clinic for the same day surgery, what can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the patient feel at ease?

    • Never show empathy or concern

    • Ask your peers what works for them

    • Build rapport and make a good first impression

    • Take as many classes on your off time to improve your customer service skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Build rapport and make a good first impression
    Explanation
    Building rapport and making a good first impression is important in improving customer service skills and making the patient feel at ease. By establishing a positive and friendly connection with the patient, it helps to create a comfortable and trusting environment. This can be achieved by actively listening to the patient, showing empathy and concern, addressing their needs and concerns, and providing clear and concise information. Taking the time to build rapport and make a good first impression can greatly enhance the patient's experience and satisfaction with the clinic.

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  • 7. 

    (017) You notice a patient looking lost at the main entrance of the hospital. You approach and ask if he needs assistance. The patient proceeds to complaint about a previous visit with their provider. When attempting to resolve this issue, at what level should you initially the resolution?

    • Lowest

    • Squadron commander. 

    • Hospital commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient is expressing a complaint about a previous visit with their provider. Therefore, the resolution should initially be addressed at the lowest level, which would typically involve the provider or their immediate supervisor. This allows for a more direct and immediate resolution of the issue before escalating it to higher levels of authority such as squadron commander, hospital commander, or wing commander.

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  • 8. 

    (017) What should you do if you cannot solve a patient's problem?

    • Find someone in the organization who can

    • Contact patient administration

    • Refer to front desk personnel 

    • No actions are required

    Correct Answer
    A. Find someone in the organization who can
    Explanation
    If you cannot solve a patient's problem, the best course of action is to find someone in the organization who can. This could be a supervisor, a specialist, or someone with more expertise in the specific issue at hand. By seeking assistance from someone else within the organization, you can ensure that the patient's problem is addressed and resolved effectively.

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  • 9. 

    Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility?

    • Custody receipt/locator

    • Back oder equipment

    • Equipment support

    • Equipment turn-in

    Correct Answer
    A. Custody receipt/locator
    Explanation
    The custody receipt/locator is the equipment management list that indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility. This list is used to keep track of the equipment that has been assigned to a custodian and serves as a proof of their acceptance of responsibility for the items. It helps in ensuring accountability and proper management of the equipment by clearly documenting who is responsible for each item.

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  • 10. 

    (002) One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for how many minutes?

    • 20

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for 60 minutes. This means that if a person works consistently for one hour without any breaks or interruptions, it is considered as one man-hour of work.

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  • 11. 

     (002) What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include a alpha prefix or suffix? 

    • Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

    • Program element code (PEC) 

    • Position number

    • Job number

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force specialty code (AFSC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a numeric code that identifies a particular task within the Air Force. It may include an alpha prefix or suffix to further specify the task. This code is used to categorize and organize various job positions and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    What annotates special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system? 

    • Individuals required grade

    • Functional account code (FAC)

    • Organizational structure code

    • Special experience identifier (SEI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier (SEI)
    Explanation
    The Special Experience Identifier (SEI) annotates special experience and training that is not reflected in the classification system. This means that individuals who have a specific SEI have undergone additional training or gained unique experience that is relevant to their job, but is not captured by their grade, functional account code (FAC), or organizational structure code. The SEI serves as a way to recognize and differentiate individuals who have acquired specialized skills or knowledge that goes beyond what is typically required for their position.

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  • 13. 

    (002) Each position in the unit manning document (UMD) is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end? 

    • 1 June through 30 May

    • 1 Jan through 31 Dec

    • 1 Sept through 30 Aug

    • 1 Oct through 30 Sept

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct through 30 Sept
    Explanation
    The fiscal year starts on October 1st and ends on September 30th. This means that the positions in the unit manning document (UMD) are displayed over this period of time.

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  • 14. 

    (004) What references and guidances does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule? 

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance

    • Clinical nursing skills handbook

    • Lippincott nursing manual

    • AFIs and local guidance

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance
    Explanation
    The scheduler uses Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. These references and guidances provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that the scheduler must follow when creating the schedule. They ensure that the schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's policies and guidelines. The clinical nursing skills handbook and Lippincott nursing manual may be useful resources for the nurses themselves, but they are not directly used by the scheduler when preparing the duty schedule.

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  • 15. 

    (011) Which is the most common choice for eligible beneficiaries? 

    • TRICARE prime, extra, standard

    • CHAMPUS health insurance

    • Bluecross and blueshield

    • Medicare

    Correct Answer
    A. TRICARE prime, extra, standard
    Explanation
    TRICARE prime, extra, and standard are the most common choices for eligible beneficiaries. These options are provided by the TRICARE healthcare program, which is available to active duty military personnel, retirees, and their families. TRICARE prime is a managed care option that offers comprehensive coverage, while TRICARE extra and standard provide more flexibility in choosing healthcare providers. CHAMPUS health insurance and bluecross and blueshield are not specifically mentioned as common choices for eligible beneficiaries. Medicare, while a widely used healthcare program, is primarily for individuals aged 65 and older, and may not be the most common choice for eligible beneficiaries in this context.

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  • 16. 

    (007) What Air Force Training Record (AFTR) component is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills?

    • 623 II

    • 623a

    • 803

    • 1098

    Correct Answer
    A. 623a
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 623a. The 623a component of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills. This component allows for the tracking and recording of an individual's training progress, ensuring that all necessary tasks and skills are properly documented and accounted for.

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  • 17. 

    (015) What are the benefits of ensuring medication reconciliation is completed?

    • Eliminating narcotic drug errors

    • Increasing supply resources

    • Decrease manning issues

    • Avoiding medication errors

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoiding medication errors
    Explanation
    Ensuring medication reconciliation is completed helps in avoiding medication errors. Medication errors can have serious consequences for patients, including adverse drug reactions, ineffective treatment, and even death. By reconciling medications, healthcare professionals can compare the medications a patient is currently taking with the medications they should be taking, identifying any discrepancies or potential interactions. This process helps to prevent medication errors, ensuring that patients receive the correct medications in the correct dosages, improving patient safety and overall healthcare outcomes.

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  • 18. 

    (004) Considering factors affecting duty schedules, the impatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines in communication with other impatient units to

    • Update mission statuses

    • Check intravenous therapy supplies

    • Verify levels of blood units on had

    • Relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads 

    Correct Answer
    A. Relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads 
    Explanation
    The impatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines of communication with other impatient units in order to relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads. This is important because it allows the scheduler to stay updated on the number of patients in the unit and anticipate any potential increase in workload. By having this information, the scheduler can make necessary adjustments to the duty schedules and ensure that there are enough staff members to handle the workload effectively.

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  • 19. 

    (006) The Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is a time-in-service (TIS) based model that ensures

    • Targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman`s career 

    • Optional delivery of ICs throughout the COL across the enlisted Airman`s career

    • The COL across an enlisted Airman`s career

    • The COL across the first element of an enlisted  Airman`s career 

    Correct Answer
    A. Targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman`s career 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman's career." This answer suggests that the Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is designed to provide specific skills and knowledge to enlisted Airmen throughout their career, ensuring that they receive the necessary training and education at different stages of their professional development. This approach aims to enhance their competency and effectiveness in their roles.

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  • 20. 

    (006) In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, What are the methods by which training is completed? 

    • Formal courses and o-the-job training

    • Informal courses and on-the-job training

    • Temporary duty assignments

    • Manning assists

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal courses and o-the-job training
    Explanation
    In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, training is completed through formal courses and on-the-job training. This means that individuals receive structured education through formal courses, which may include classroom instruction or online learning. Additionally, they gain practical experience and skills through on-the-job training, where they work alongside experienced professionals in real-life situations. This combination of formal courses and on-the-job training ensures that individuals acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field.

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  • 21. 

    (012) What was he former name of TRTICARE Standard?

    • Medicare

    • Medicaid

    • Blue cross

    • Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS)
    Explanation
    The former name of TRICARE Standard was the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS).

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  • 22. 

     (003) What priority category must be completed by the end of the duty day? 

    • A Urgent

    • B Immediate

    • C Lowest

    • D Rapid

    Correct Answer
    A. A Urgent
    Explanation
    The priority category that must be completed by the end of the duty day is "Urgent". This means that tasks or actions labeled as urgent need to be prioritized and completed before the end of the workday. Urgent tasks are typically time-sensitive and require immediate attention to prevent any negative consequences or delays.

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  • 23. 

    (006) In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, the effectiveness of training involves monitoring what key area? 

    • Qualification and certification

    • Upgrade raining courses, job proficiency

    • Career development courses, qualification

    • Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency 

    Correct Answer
    A. Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency 
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of training in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field involves monitoring career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency. This means that in order to determine how effective the training is, it is important to assess the individual's understanding of their career, their current qualifications and certifications, and their proficiency in performing their job duties. By monitoring these key areas, it can be determined if the training is adequately preparing individuals for their role in the field.

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  • 24. 

    (010) Who is eligible for TRICARE prime?

    • Active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor

    • Active duty military and spouse of and active duty sponsor

    • Active duty military only

    • Active duty, reserve, and air national guard

    Correct Answer
    A. Active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor
    Explanation
    TRICARE prime is a healthcare program for members of the military and their families. The correct answer states that active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor are eligible for TRICARE prime. This means that both the military personnel and their immediate family members can access healthcare services through this program.

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  • 25. 

    (013) A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain to her extremities. She complains the pain is worse at night Which type of neuropathy does she have?

    • Autonomic

    • Peripheral 

    • Proximal

    • Focal

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral 
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of pain in her extremities that worsen at night suggest peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy refers to damage or dysfunction of the peripheral nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and the rest of the body. This can result in symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the extremities. Autonomic neuropathy affects the nerves that control involuntary bodily functions, proximal neuropathy affects the nerves in the thighs, hips, or buttocks, and focal neuropathy affects a specific nerve or group of nerves.

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  • 26. 

    (013) Which of the following is a type of neuropathy and a brief description of it? 

    • Peripheral can cause either pain or loss of feeling in the toes, feet, legs, hands and arms. 

    • Somatic causes changes to organ systems like the digestive, sexual responses, and perspiration as well as the nerves that serve the heart. 

    • Medial neuropathy can cause pain in the shoulders, neck, arms that may lead to weakness in the upper body.

    • Frontal neuropathy results in the sudden weakness of one muscle group of tendons causing weakness or pain t the site. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral can cause either pain or loss of feeling in the toes, feet, legs, hands and arms. 
    Explanation
    Peripheral neuropathy is a type of neuropathy that can cause either pain or loss of feeling in the toes, feet, legs, hands, and arms. It affects the peripheral nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and the rest of the body. This condition can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, infections, toxins, and injuries. The symptoms of peripheral neuropathy can range from mild numbness or tingling to severe pain and muscle weakness. Early diagnosis and treatment are important to manage the symptoms and prevent further nerve damage.

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  • 27. 

     (003) what category priority may be delegated out to other persons within the unit? 

    • Category A urgent

    • Category B immediate

    • Category C lowest

    • Category D highest

    Correct Answer
    A. Category C lowest
    Explanation
    Category C, which is the lowest priority category, may be delegated out to other persons within the unit. This means that tasks or responsibilities falling under category C can be assigned to someone else within the unit who has the capacity to handle them, freeing up the individual with higher priority tasks to focus on more urgent matters. Delegating category C priorities allows for efficient task distribution and ensures that resources are utilized effectively within the unit.

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  • 28. 

     (005) Who determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman? 

    • The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC

    • Element NCOIC

    • First Sergeant 

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC
    Explanation
    The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman. This is because the NCOIC is responsible for overseeing the operations and personnel within the flight or element, and assigning a supervisor ensures that the Airman receives proper guidance and mentorship. The First Sergeant and Commander may also have a role in the assignment process, but they are not specifically mentioned as the ones determining and assigning the immediate supervisor.

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  • 29. 

    (007) Who is mandated to have an active training record within Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? 

    • E-9 and below

    • E-8 and below

    • E-7 and below at Air Force levels

    • E-6 and below at base levels 

    Correct Answer
    A. E-9 and below
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E-9 and below. This means that all ranks E-9 (Chief Master Sergeant) and below are required to have an active training record within the Air Force Training Record (AFTR). This ensures that all personnel at these ranks are keeping up with their training requirements and are maintaining their readiness for their respective roles within the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    (003) Ssgt Johnson is constantly working from one project to another and is unable to bring his units current status in line with the future goals of the organization. what will help you bridge the time span between where you unit is today and where the unit will be in the future?

    • Planning

    • Brainstorming

    • Delegating

    • Scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the correct answer because it involves creating a detailed roadmap or strategy to achieve future goals. By planning, Ssgt Johnson can effectively prioritize tasks, allocate resources, and set deadlines to ensure that his unit's current status aligns with the organization's future goals. Planning allows for a systematic approach to address any gaps or challenges and helps bridge the time span between the present and the future.

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  • 31. 

    Which one do you like?(009) The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMMR) objectives are to 

    • Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to immediate superiors so they can accurately plan duty schedules and their Air Force (AF) personnel

    • Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of they assigned or enrolled AF personnel

    • Optimize the Military Health Services (MHS) readiness status

    • Optimize the Department of Defense (DOD) readiness status

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of they assigned or enrolled AF personnel
    Explanation
    The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMMR) objectives are to provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals, and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of their assigned or enrolled Air Force (AF) personnel. This means that the IMMR objectives aim to give commanders, individuals, and PCMs the necessary information and tools to effectively manage the readiness status of AF personnel, ensuring that they are prepared and capable of fulfilling their duties.

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  • 32. 

    (010) The Health Evaluation Assessment Review (HEAR) survey provides what specific information about the populations health?

    • Cholesterol result risks

    • Patients health risks and needs

    • Dependents health risks and needes

    • Diabetes screening risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Patients health risks and needs
    Explanation
    The HEAR survey provides specific information about the patients' health risks and needs. It helps in assessing and evaluating the health status of the population by gathering data on various health aspects such as medical history, lifestyle habits, and existing health conditions. This information is crucial for healthcare professionals to identify potential health risks, develop appropriate interventions, and provide personalized care to patients.

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  • 33. 

    (011) With which Healthy Maintenance Organization (HMO) does Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the United States, have a contract to manage the TRICARE?

    • Sierra Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

    • Health Net Federal Services

    • Lead agent

    • Humana

    Correct Answer
    A. Humana
    Explanation
    Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the United States, has a contract with Humana to manage the TRICARE.

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  • 34. 

    (014) When unconscious patient is unable to breath on their own, what is stablished? 

    • Suctioning

    • Tracheal tube

    • Nasal cannula

    • Endotracheal tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Endotracheal tube
    Explanation
    When an unconscious patient is unable to breathe on their own, an endotracheal tube is established. This tube is inserted into the patient's trachea through their mouth or nose and connected to a ventilator, which helps to deliver oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the patient's lungs. This ensures that the patient receives the necessary oxygenation and ventilation while they are unconscious and unable to breathe independently.

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  • 35. 

    (015) When you convert the units 0.001 grams, it would equal to one

    • Milligram

    • Centigram

    • Microgram

    • Decigram

    Correct Answer
    A. Milligram
    Explanation
    When converting units, 0.001 grams is equal to one milligram.

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  • 36. 

    (016) In reference to doing a closure, what is a digital block?

    • Minimizes the loss of blood

    • Increases wound healing 

    • A tissue block that anesthetize the joint

    • A nerve block that anesthetize the finger

    Correct Answer
    A. A nerve block that anesthetize the finger
    Explanation
    A digital block is a type of nerve block that is used to numb a specific finger or toe. It involves injecting an anesthetic medication around the nerves that supply sensation to the digit, effectively blocking the transmission of pain signals. This allows for pain-free procedures such as wound closure to be performed on the finger without the patient feeling any discomfort.

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  • 37. 

    (019) What is the intent of the assignment limitation code?

    • Protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations

    • Tracks members who are not worldwide qualified due to medical reasons and refers them to the servicing military treatment facility (MTF) for medical evaluation board (MEB) processing.

    • A personnel tool used by the military personnel flight (MPF)to ensure members with disabling illness/injuries are listed and evaluated every 12 months

    • Works in concert with the overseas medical clearance program to ensure dependents do not get stationed in locations without the proper medical facilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations
    Explanation
    The intent of the assignment limitation code is to protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations. This code ensures that members are not sent to locations that do not have the necessary medical facilities to address their specific medical needs.

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  • 38. 

    (012) Under TRICARE Standard, what are the allowable costs for outpatient care for both active duty families and all other beneficiaries? 

    • 80 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 75 percent for retirees and all other beneficiaries 

    • 70 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 65percent for retirees and all other beneficiaries 

    • 60 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 80 percent for retirees and all other beneficiaries 

    • 50 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 100 percent for retirees and all other beneficiaries 

    Correct Answer
    A. 80 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 75 percent for retirees and all other beneficiaries 
    Explanation
    Under TRICARE Standard, the correct answer states that active duty families are responsible for 20% of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care, while retirees and all other beneficiaries are responsible for 25% of the approved allowable cost. This means that TRICARE Standard covers a larger percentage of the cost for active duty families compared to retirees and other beneficiaries.

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  • 39. 

    (014) Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube?

    • Promote a positive outlook for the patients family

    • Clear the upper airway from any foreign body

    • Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage

    • Clear out the vocal cords for better speech understanding

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage
    Explanation
    Suctioning a tracheostomy tube is done to remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage. Tracheostomy tubes are inserted into the trachea to provide an alternate airway for patients who are unable to breathe on their own or have difficulty breathing. These tubes can accumulate secretions that can obstruct the airway and make it difficult for the patient to breathe. Suctioning helps to clear these secretions and maintain a patent airway, ensuring proper oxygenation and ventilation for the patient.

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  • 40. 

    (019) What are two thinks that determine a members security clearance?

    • Rank and Base

    • Citizenship and place of birth

    • Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) and assignment

    • Background clearance and date of birth

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) and assignment
    Explanation
    The two things that determine a member's security clearance are their Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) and assignment. The AFSC refers to the specific job or role that the member holds within the Air Force, while the assignment refers to the location or unit where they are assigned to work. These factors are important in determining the level of access and clearance that a member needs for their specific job and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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  • 41. 

     (006) When upgrading to a 7- skill level, what is the minimum number of months needed in training 

    • 9

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    When upgrading to a 7-skill level, the minimum number of months needed in training is 12. This means that it will take at least one year of training to reach the 7-skill level.

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  • 42. 

    (012) When was TRICARE for life made available?

    • 1 Sept 96

    • 30 Oct 99

    • 30 Sept 00

    • 1 Oct 01

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct 01
    Explanation
    TRICARE for life was made available on 1 Oct 01. This means that starting from this date, TRICARE beneficiaries who were eligible for both Medicare and TRICARE could have access to TRICARE for life benefits. Prior to this date, they would have had to choose between Medicare and TRICARE coverage.

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  • 43. 

    (004) Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule? 

    • Noncommissioned officers in charge (NCOIC)

    • Nurse managers and NCOICs

    • The base commander

    • The base superintendent 

    Correct Answer
    A. Nurse managers and NCOICs
    Explanation
    Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for the final approval of the enlisted duty schedule. This indicates that they have the authority and decision-making power to review and approve the schedule, ensuring that it is appropriate and meets the needs of the nursing staff. The base commander and base superintendent may have overall authority and oversight, but the responsibility for the final approval lies with the nurse managers and NCOICs specifically.

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  • 44. 

     (008) To what extent is Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) used for patient care? 

    • Is is not used for all aspects of patient care, including x-ray, envy, and coding

    • It is not used for all aspects of patient care, only order entry, and coding

    • Is is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding

    • It is used for some aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding

    Correct Answer
    A. Is is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding
    Explanation
    AHLTA is used for all aspects of patient care, including order entry and coding.

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  • 45. 

    (018) Why do you let the provider know if a QRS complex is wider than three blocks? 

    • Because of a possible heart block

    • Because of ventricular repolarization

    • Because of left atria Is pacing the heart

    • You do not need to; the ventricles are normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Because of a possible heart block
    Explanation
    If a QRS complex is wider than three blocks, it suggests a possible heart block. A heart block is a condition where the electrical signals in the heart are delayed or blocked, leading to an abnormal rhythm. By notifying the provider, they can assess the situation and determine if any intervention or treatment is necessary to address the heart block and prevent further complications.

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  • 46. 

    (003) Ssgt Mays is the shift leader of the special care unit and works 8-hour day shifts. Ssgt Mays is constantly stressed, overwhelmed, and always has a "hot" project or suspense that needs to be met. What prioritizing tool could Ssgt Mays use to make more efficient use of his time? 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 30% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities. 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 20% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 15% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities , then evenly split B and C priorities 

    Correct Answer
    A. Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities , then evenly split B and C priorities 
  • 47. 

    (009) What is the purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software?

    • An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. 

    • An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, PHA exams, individual medical readiness, and physical examination standards. 

    • Clinical preventive service standards

    • Physical examination standards

    Correct Answer
    A. An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. 
    Explanation
    The purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software is to provide an automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about various aspects of individual medical readiness. This includes individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) exams, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. The software serves as a comprehensive tool for managing and tracking the medical readiness of individuals, ensuring that all necessary information is accurately recorded and easily accessible.

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  • 48. 

    (018) What is the first node that generates an electrical impulse that travels through the right and left atrial muscles? 

    • Atrioventricular

    • Sinoatrial

    • Tricuspid

    • Mitral

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinoatrial
    Explanation
    The sinoatrial node is the first node that generates an electrical impulse that travels through the right and left atrial muscles. This node is located in the right atrium of the heart and is often referred to as the "natural pacemaker" of the heart. It initiates the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm and coordinates the contraction of the atria, allowing for efficient blood flow. The other options listed (atrioventricular, tricuspid, and mitral) are not responsible for generating the initial electrical impulse in the atrial muscles.

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  • 49. 

    (013) What additional risk factors contribute to diabetic neurophaty?

    • High blood pressure

    • Low insulin levels

    • High cholesterol

    • Lupus

    Correct Answer
    A. High blood pressure
    Explanation
    High blood pressure is an additional risk factor that contributes to diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy is a condition that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the nerves. High blood pressure can further damage the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the nerves, worsening the nerve damage. Therefore, individuals with diabetes who also have high blood pressure are at an increased risk of developing diabetic neuropathy.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 14, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Erica Funke
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